wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Real Estate Exam Study Questions

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the Georgia Condominium Act, how many days after receiving the disclosure package does a potential buyer have to cancel the contract without penalty?

a)

seven

b)

four

c)

zero

d)

ten

2.

In Georgia, how do married property owners take title?

a)

as either joint tenants or tenants in common, depending on what is in the deed

b)

as tenants by the entirety

c)

as community property owners

d)

as tenants in severalty

3.

Jaimie is part of a business. It is a partnership where all partners are shielded from personal liability, meaning partners cannot be personally held liable for other partners' mistakes. It has over 100 members and is not subject to double taxation. What kind of business is Jaimie most likely part of?

a)

LLP

b)

sole proprietorship

c)

S corp

d)

C corp

4.

A syndicate where all members equally share unlimited personal responsibility for the financial liabilities and obligations of the business would be considered what type of partnership?

a)

general partnership

b)

limited partnership

5.

If a partnership includes equally shared financial responsibility, what type of partnership is it?

a)

general partnership

b)

limited partnership

c)

equitable estate

d)

partnership in-kind

6.

John, Paul, George, and Ringo own a property as joint tenants with the right of survivorship. If Paul passes away, who inherits his share of the property?

a)

John, George, and Ringo split his share equally.

b)

his wife, Linda

c)

his daughter, Stella

d)

It depends on what is specified in his will.

7.

In order to comply with the Georgia Condominium Act, a developer must do what two things to create a new condo in Georgia?

a)

file three documents in the land records of each county the development is located in and incorporate an entity to manage the condo

b)

create a plat map and an environmental impact report

c)

send a disclosure packet to all interested buyers and notify neighboring landowners

d)

complete a land survey and interview any potential buyers

8.

Laurel is part of a business. This business has one general partner and three limited partners (but can be any size) and is a pass-through business for tax purposes. The general partner is not shielded from personal liability, but the limited partners are. What kind of business is Laurel part of?

a)

Limited partnership

b)

General partnership

c)

Sole proprietorship

d)

Corporation

9.

Martha has her property in a trust. Her heir is the beneficiary, and she has named a non-family trustee. She cannot access the property or remove it, and when she dies, her heirs won't pay estate tax on it, and it won't be probated. What kind of trust is this?

a)

irrevocable trust

b)

revocable trust

c)

land trust

d)

testamentary trust

10.

What right does undivided interest give to co-owners of real property?

a)

right to possession of the whole property

b)

right to transfer their property to whoever they choose

c)

right of survivorship

d)

right of quiet enjoyment

11.

Which of the following are two primary types of trusts?

a)

living trusts and testamentary trusts

b)

living trusts and decedent trusts

c)

active trusts and testamentary trusts

d)

active trusts and decedent trusts

12.

Which of the following terms means that a property has only one owner, whether that is a person, corporation, or other legal entity?

a)

Sole ownership (or severalty)

b)

Joint tenancy

c)

Tenancy in common

d)

Community property

13.

A group of co-owners purchase property and take title as joint tenants with rights of survivorship. Person A later decides they want to sell their share to Person B. How will Person B take title?

a)

as a tenant in common

b)

as a joint tenant with rights of survivorship

c)

as a joint tenant with rights of inheritance

d)

as a tenant by the entirety

14.

Which of the following four unities are required for joint tenancy?

a)

unity of interest, time, title, and possession

b)

unity of income, time, title, and possession

c)

unity of interest, time, deed, and possession

d)

unity of income, time, deed, and possession

15.

Which of these is an advantage of using a living trust over a testamentary trust?

a)

Living trusts keep properties out of probate.

b)

Living trusts allow property owners to avoid paying all taxes.

c)

Testamentary trusts can only have one benefactor.

d)

Testamentary trusts don't allow the trustor to choose the trustee.

16.

Rebecca owns a business in her own name. She is personally liable for her business's profits, losses, and legal liabilities. What kind of business is she most likely to have?

a)

ownership in severalty

b)

joint tenancy

c)

tenancy by the entirety

d)

tenants in common

17.

What is one of the main advantages of a revocable trust over an irrevocable trust?

a)

A revocable trust can be changed by the trustor, while an irrevocable trust cannot.

b)

A revocable trust shields properties from liability, while an irrevocable trust does not.

c)

A revocable trust keeps properties out of probate, while an irrevocable trust does not.

d)

A revocable trust is designed for holding land, while an irrevocable trust is not.

18.

In a trust, what is the name of the person who holds title to the property while it is in the trust?

a)

trustee

b)

trustor

c)

beneficiary

d)

trustman

19.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a limited partnership?

a)

A. A limited partnership is made up of both limited and general partners.

b)

B. Limited partners, like general partners, assume unlimited financial liability.

c)

C. Limited partnerships do not need a general partner.

d)

D. Limited partners don't have any financial investment in the partnership.

20.

What does severalty mean?

a)

sole ownership

b)

community property

21.

Co-op boards cannot reject applicants for which of these reasons?

a)

being a member of a class protected by the Fair Housing Act

b)

not having a year's worth of mortgage and maintenance payments in cash post-closing

c)

not making the minimum income requirement

d)

number or type of pets

22.

What is the primary distinction between a PUD and a condo?

a)

PUD owners own the land beneath their unit; condo owners do not.

b)

PUD owners pay HOA dues; condo owners do not.

c)

PUD owners own shares in a corporation; condo owners own their units from the walls in.

d)

PUD owners own their common elements fee simple; condo owners own them as joint tenants.

23.

Which of the four unities states that each co-owner must hold title under the same instrument?

a)

unity of title

b)

unity of interest

c)

unity of possession

d)

unity of time

24.

What is undivided interest?

4 lines
25.

Why is an LLP a common business form for medical practices?

a)

because partners are shielded from personal liability if another doctor gets sued for malpractice

b)

because the LLC structure makes it easier to work with insurance agencies

c)

because it is the most favorable structure tax-wise

d)

because HIPAA requirements are easier to meet with the lower reporting requirements for LLPs vs. corporations

26.

What two kinds of ownership do condo owners have?

a)

fee simple absolute and tenancy in common

b)

tenancy by the entirety and fee simple defeasible

c)

tenancy in common and joint tenancy

d)

fee simple absolute and tenancy by the entirety

27.

Which is the most common form of co-ownership for unmarried co-owners?

a)

tenancy in common

b)

joint tenancy

c)

tenancy by the entirety

d)

tenancy by partnership

28.

Tenancy in common only requires one of the four unities. Which one is it?

4 lines
29.

What type of business organization must have at least 100 shareholders at the beginning of their second taxable year?

a)

a real estate investment trust

b)

a joint venture

c)

a syndicate venture

d)

an S corp

30.

Jaimie is part of a business that protects members from personal liability for business debts, but they can still be held liable if another member does something illegal. It has over 100 members and is not subject to double taxation. What kind of business is Jaimie most likely part of?

a)

LLC

b)

sole proprietorship

c)

S corp

d)

C corp

31.

With which type of land description does a surveyor indicate direction in degrees, minutes, and seconds?

a)

metes and bounds

b)

rectangular survey system

c)

lot and block system

d)

government survey system

32.

Derek paid $5.41 per square foot for a property with dimensions of 200 ft. by 250 ft. What was the full price Derek paid for the property?

a)

$270,500

b)

$135,250

c)

$540,000

d)

$225,000

33.

A 2,100 sq. ft. house is sold for $400,000. Rounded to the nearest cent, what is the cost per square foot?

a)

$190.48

b)

$152.98

c)

$542.21

d)

$220.17

34.

If a rectangular lot has an area of 20,500 sq. ft. and a depth of 200 ft., what is the frontage of the lot?

a)

102.5 ft.

b)

142 ft.

c)

120.5 ft.

d)

400 ft.

35.

A rectangular living room has dimensions of 15 ft. x 22 ft. What is the area of the living room?

a)

330 sq. ft.

b)

74 sq. ft.

c)

230 sq. ft.

d)

370 sq. ft.

36.

36. A datum is:

a)

a single piece of information

b)

a type of graph

c)

a measuring instrument

d)

a unit of length

37.

What is a section?

a)

one of 36 equal square-mile areas in a township

b)

a square area of land with sides of six miles each

c)

a fixed landmark, whether natural or human-made, used as a reference point in a metes and bounds legal description

d)

an imaginary line of latitude used in the rectangular survey system to identify townships in relation to proximity to a principal meridian

38.

Which of the following is an example of an informal reference to a property?

a)

4617 Jade St., Portland, OR

b)

SW 1/4 of SW 1/4 of NE 1/4 of Section 9

c)

Lot C, Block 7 of Moody Shores, Orange County, Florida

d)

Beginning at the intersection of King Road and the south line of Diamond Drive, proceed north 150 ft., then 500 ft. east more or less, to the center of Cline Creek, then continue south 200 ft. to the U.S.G.S. benchmark, then continue north-west to the place of beginning.

39.

Using this information, how many acres is the lot?

a)

9.26 acres

b)

10.4 acres

c)

9.34 acres

d)

11.23 acres

40.

Which survey system uses longitude and latitude lines to map property boundaries?

a)

the rectangular survey system

b)

the metes and bounds system

c)

the lot and block system

d)

the recorded plat system

41.

What unit of measurement is equal to 43,560 sq. ft.?

a)

an acre

b)

a square mile

c)

a township

d)

a section

42.

Which of the following terms refers to a surveyor's or developer's map that identifies lots and blocks?

a)

plat

b)

plot

c)

land

d)

squat

43.

One square mile is equal to how many acres?

a)

640

b)

36

c)

43,560

d)

9

44.

What is the total frontage of both Lots A and B, rounded to the nearest whole number?

a)

200 ft.

b)

250 ft.

c)

500 ft.

d)

325 ft.

45.

What is a meridian?

a)

an imaginary line of longitude used to identify a certain area of the earth's surface along a north-south direction

b)

an imaginary line of latitude used to identify a certain area of the earth's surface along an east-west direction

c)

a designated reference point to elevation used by surveyors to determine the elevations of land or property in an area

d)

the area of land between two consecutive base lines

46.

What is a parallel?

a)

a line of latitude

b)

a line of longitude

c)

a square area of land with sides of six miles each

d)

a meridian used in reference to a baseline to identify ranges, tiers, and townships in the rectangular survey method of land description

47.

What is an interest in, or a right to use, another individual's land or property, generally for a specific, limited purpose?

a)

easement

b)

appurtenance

c)

encumbrance

d)

lien

48.

What is a type of easement by implication that occurs when the dominant tenement could not be used without an easement, even without a longstanding, apparent use?

a)

easement by necessity

b)

easement by condemnation

c)

floating easement

d)

easement for light and air

49.

Which party is most likely to put deed restrictions in place?

a)

land developer

b)

local government

c)

the buyer

d)

real estate broker

50.

What is the purpose of special assessments?

a)

to pay for municipal projects that benefit the assessed homeowners

b)

establishes the order in which liens against a property will be settled

c)

to ensure payment for the work that a mechanic or materialman performs

d)

to give a mortgage recorded at a later date priority over a previously recorded mortgage

51.

This is an example of what type of encumbrance?

a)

cloud on title

b)

an encroachment

c)

a license

d)

an easement

52.

The purpose of an attachment lien is:

a)

to secure payment of a debt by seizing property before judgment

b)

to transfer ownership of property

c)

to release a debtor from liability

d)

to provide insurance for property

53.

Do the neighbors have any recourse to have them removed?

a)

Yes, because when city and private restrictions overlap, the stricter of the two is applied.

b)

Yes, because private regulations always override city regulations.

c)

No, because the city code has outlined this as a permitted use, they have no recourse.

d)

No, they have no recourse due to the fact that CC&Rs cannot restrict agricultural activity.

54.

Which of the following agencies would NOT be able to put a tax lien on a property if the associated taxes were not paid?

a)

HOA

b)

IRS

c)

city tax office

d)

county tax office

55.

What is a lien that applies to a certain property only?

a)

specific lien

b)

general lien

c)

involuntary lien

d)

voluntary lien

56.

56. Which of these statements most accurately reflects how lien priority works (after tax liens are settled)?

a)

Liens are prioritized by the date they were recorded.

b)

Liens are prioritized by the amount owed.

c)

Liens are prioritized by the type of property involved.

d)

Liens are prioritized by the lender's preference.

57.

Edna has an easement that allows her to use a part of Meena's driveway to reach her home. Which of these BEST describes Edna's role in the easement?

a)

A. dominant tenement

b)

B. servient tenement

c)

C. active notice

d)

D. constructive notice

58.

Which type of easement allows the owner of a landlocked parcel of land to gain access to their property?

a)

easement by necessity

b)

easement in gross

c)

easement by prescription

d)

easement by condemnation

59.

When must a mechanic's lien be filed?

a)

within 90 days of completion of the project or delivery of materials

b)

within one year of signing a contract

c)

within 30 days of the commencement of the labor

d)

within three years of the commencement of the labor

60.

If a deed restriction is in conflict with a fair housing law, what happens with the deed restriction and how is the deed affected?

a)

The deed restriction is unenforceable and the deed remains valid.

b)

The deed restriction overrides the fair housing law.

c)

The deed becomes void.

d)

The fair housing law is ignored.

61.

Jessica's neighbor, Nick, decides to pave his driveway, and it extends onto Jessica's property without her permission. What is Nick's driveway?

a)

an encroachment

b)

an easement

c)

a license

d)

a deed restriction

62.

Carla's parcel of land becomes "landlocked" by a surrounding property after a sale. Which scenario is MOST likely?

a)

Carla's property will be granted an easement by necessity.

b)

Carla will need the other owner's permission to access the property.

c)

Carla will have to sue for an easement by prescription.

d)

Carla doesn't need to do anything. She may access her property however she likes.

63.

John gave Peter the right to fish on John's property until John passes away. What type of easement is this an example of?

a)

easement in gross

b)

easement by necessity

c)

easement by condemnation

d)

easement for light and air

64.

Frank has recently been notified that the house next to his property has been purchased. As the property is landlocked, the new neighbor has been granted the right to build a driveway through the back of Frank's land. What type of encumbrance is this?

a)

an easement

b)

a property lien

c)

a property encroachment

d)

a deed restriction

65.

Which of these is an instrument that can create an easement by grant?

a)

a deed

b)

a court decision

c)

an HOA rule

d)

a survey

66.

What kind of lien is an IRS tax lien?

a)

involuntary, general

b)

voluntary, general

c)

voluntary, specific

d)

involuntary, specific

67.

Jeremy's fence encroaches on Selena's property. Which of these is NOT a way that Selena can try to resolve the encroachment?

a)

tear down the encroaching fence

b)

ask Jeremy to move the fence

c)

sue Jeremy to force him to move the fence

d)

sell Jeremy a small slice of her yard

68.

Which of these liens will normally take priority over the others?

a)

tax lien

b)

mechanic's lien

c)

mortgage lien

d)

vendor's lien

69.

The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) is a federal law that does what?

a)

provides broad federal authority to respond directly to releases of hazardous substances that may endanger public health or the environment

b)

protects people and the environment from the harmful effects of air pollution

c)

protects public drinking water supplies by instituting standards for drinking water quality

d)

requires home sellers to disclose lead-based paint hazards for properties built prior to 1978

70.

What is eminent domain?

a)

the power of government to seize private property for public use (government must pay the property owner just compensation)

b)

the enforcement of state and local laws with which developers must comply before land can be subdivided

c)

the act of sharing at least one common boundary with another property

d)

a land use that does not adhere to current zoning law but was established previously

71.

What is the straight-line depreciation recovery period for a commercial investment property?

a)

39 years

b)

27.5 years

c)

524 months

72.

Emilio bought a single-family home for 400,000.Sixyearslater,hesolditfor400,000. Six years later, he sold it for 545,000. How much of the profit will he have to pay capital gains tax on?

a)

$0

b)

$145,000

c)

$545,000

d)

$400,000

73.

What are brownfields?

a)

properties contaminated by hazardous substances

b)

water reclamation areas

c)

wetlands that have been paved over

d)

authorized landfills for hazardous waste disposal

74.

Which of these is a federal law that provides broad federal authority to respond directly to releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances that may endanger public health or the environment?

a)

CERCLA

b)

SARA

c)

RESPA

d)

TILA

75.

What is the governmental act of seizing private land through the exercise of the power of eminent domain?

a)

condemnation

b)

eminent domain

c)

area variance

76.

Which of these describes the power of the government to seize private property for public use (as long as the government pays the property owner just compensation)?

a)

eminent domain

b)

nonconforming use

c)

condemnation

d)

deed restriction

77.

Which of these is a legal document from a local authority that authorizes a construction or remodeling project?

a)

building permit

b)

certificate of occupancy

c)

use variance

d)

area variance

78.

Lester, a single gentleman, bought a primary residence for 700,000.Tenyearslater,hesolditfor700,000. Ten years later, he sold it for 1,500,000. How much money will he owe capital gains taxes on?

a)

$550,000

b)

$800,000

c)

$1,500,000

d)

$700,000

79.

What is a tax shelter?

a)

any strategy used to minimize the amount of taxable income and, therefore, to reduce taxes owed to the government

b)

a way to ensure your property taxes don't go up in any given tax year

c)

the amount a person can deduct for business expenses as a real estate agent