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examen resis

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How would hyperleukocytosis be defined within hematology-oncology emergencies?

a)

Leukocytes 40000, plus blasts

b)

Leukocytes > 100,000 /mm3

c)

Blasts distensible with acute renal failure, with dilution

d)

Erythrocytosis, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis

2.

In diabetic ketoacidosis, what would be the indications for administering bicarbonate?

a)

Near-cardiac arrest or cardiac arrest, hyperkalemia that puts life at risk, or severe acidosis with pH <6.9 with symptoms

b)

Serum bicarbonate less than 15 or pH < 7.2 with symptoms

c)

Patient requiring mechanical ventilation due to neurological deterioration and ketoacidosis with severe dehydration

d)

In every patient with diabetic ketoacidosis

3.

What is the second-line treatment in status epilepticus?

a)

Barbiturate coma with pentobarbital or midazolam at high doses >1000mcg/kg/hr

b)

Lorazepam, midazolam, clonazepam

c)

Ketogenic diet, electrostimulation, ketamine

d)

Fosphenytoin, valproic acid, levetiracetam

4.

The increase of ammonium in fulminant hepatic failure can cause?

a)

Hepatic encephalopathy, intracranial hypertension, brain herniation

b)

Intestinal malabsorption, short bowel syndrome

c)

Bleeding at any level, immune dysregulation and infections

d)

Vasodilatory shock and acute renal failure

5.

In relation to septic shock, which dysfunction is related to higher mortality?

a)

Renal dysfunction

b)

Gastrointestinal dysfunction

c)

Cerebral dysfunction

d)

Cardiovascular dysfunction

6.

Speaking of leukemia in children, what is the most common type in children?

a)

Acute myeloid leukemia

b)

Chronic myeloid leukemia

c)

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

d)

Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

7.

In relation to autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura, what would be risk factors for bleeding?

a)

Closed abdominal trauma only

b)

Astenia, adynamia, poor general condition

c)

Glomerulonephritis

d)

TBI, polytrauma, previous surgery, antiplatelet agents, coagulopathy

8.

When a patient is under mechanical ventilation, you visualize auto-PEEP on the monitor, what circulatory changes could occur?

a)

Decreased venous return, increased pulmonary vascular resistance

b)

Decreased left ventricular afterload only

c)

Increased cardiac output and increased ejection fraction

d)

Decreased vascular and peripheral resistance

9.

Vasoactive of choice in the presence of septic shock?

a)

Vasopressin

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Dopamine

d)

Norepinephrine

10.

Tumor marker of choice, for its high sensitivity and specificity, for the diagnosis of hepatoblastoma?

a)

Chorionic gonadotropin

b)

Carcinoembryonic antigen

c)

CA 125

d)

Alpha-fetoprotein

11.

What type of infections precede IgA vasculitis, up to 50%?

a)

Upper respiratory tract infections and gastrointestinal infections

b)

Upper respiratory tract infections by Streptococcus

c)

Gastrointestinal infections by parasites like Giardia

d)

Urinary tract infections

12.

In a patient under 6 months, what is the most common renal tumor?

a)

Rhabdoid tumor

b)

Wilms tumor

c)

Neuroblastoma

d)

Mesoblastic nephroma

13.

What do the initials BLW stand for?

a)

Baby lead weaning or baby-led feeding

b)

Baby led introduction to solids

c)

Feeding based on purees and solids

d)

Proteins from the first day of complementary feeding

14.

What are the laws of feeding?

a)

Abundant, specific, nutritional

b)

Scarce, hypocaloric, paused, digestible

c)

Sufficient, varied, complete, balanced, adequate, safe

d)

Rich, partitioned, multiple

15.

Caloric content of mature breast milk?

a)

100kcal/100 ml

b)

0.6 kcal/10 ml

c)

60-70kcal/100ml

d)

30 kcal / ml

16.

According to the osmolar state of the patient, how is dehydration classified?

a)

Mild, moderate, severe

b)

Isotonic, hypotonic, hypertonic

c)

Hyperosmolar, hypoosmolar

d)

With hemodynamic repercussion - without hemodynamic repercussion

17.

In the calculation of parenteral solutions, what sodium ratio should be considered?

a)

3 meq / 100 ml of solution

b)

30 meq /500 ml of solution

c)

2 meq/kg/hour

d)

3 meq/1000 ml of solution

18.

Calculation of insensible losses in patients over 10 kg?

a)

30 to 40 ml/kg/day

b)

400- 600 ml/kg/day

c)

300-400 ml/m2SC/day

d)

50 ml/kg/day

19.

Examples of conditions that require calculation of 'low' solutions?

a)

Renal failure, heart failure

b)

Pancreatitis, respiratory failure

c)

Hyaline membrane disease, necrotizing enterocolitis

d)

Appendicitis and pneumonia

20.

Osmolarity of 0.9% saline solution?

a)

273 mosm/L

b)

294 mosm/L

c)

290 mosm/L

d)

308 mosm/L

21.

Proportion of replacement of predominantly gastrointestinal losses?

a)

2:1

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

1:1

22.

Hyperkalemia generally presents what type of alteration in the electrocardiographic trace?

a)

U wave

b)

Delta wave

c)

Wide T

d)

Pointed T

23.

In hyponatremia, when is it appropriate and/or recommended to use hypertonic solution 3%?

a)

When sodium is less than 128

b)

When the patient presents convulsive crises

c)

When the patient presents cardiac block

d)

When sodium is less than 125

24.

Upon the initiation of complementary feeding, what is appropriate?

a)

Hypercaloric foods

b)

High iron content

c)

Low sodium foods

d)

Foods of high nutritional value

25.

What formula used in medicine can help in the diagnostic protocol of hypocalcemia?

a)

Serum osmolarity

b)

R-R segment

c)

Cerebral perfusion pressure

d)

Corrected QT

26.

Among the measurable losses a patient can have, for example vomiting, diarrhea, etc.; what would be the ideal liquid to use for replacement?

a)

Physiological solution

b)

Lactated Ringer's

c)

Hartmann's solution

d)

Mixed solution with calcium

27.

A patient who is 3 years old, weighs 17 kg, what amount of solution should be administered in their solution calculation?

a)

1350 ml

b)

1500 ml

c)

2040 ml

d)

100 ml/kg

28.

Weight that increases per month for a 10-month-old patient?

a)

400g

b)

750g

c)

500g

d)

250g

29.

Predominantly protein malnutrition is characterized by?

a)

Being marasmatic and presenting edema

b)

Being marasmatic and having extreme weight loss

c)

Being Kwashiorkor and having extreme weight loss

d)

Being kwashiorkor and presenting edema

30.

What is the protein requirement in parenteral nutrition, predominantly in neonates?

a)

1-3gr/day

b)

2-3gr/day

c)

2-4gr/day

d)

1-5gr/day

31.

The diagnosis of obesity, based on BMI, is defined as?

a)

BMI >50

b)

BMI >85

c)

BMI >95

d)

BMI >70

32.

SAOS, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, can present in which pathology?

a)

Allergic rhinitis

b)

Obesity

c)

Gastroesophageal reflux

d)

As a background in sudden infant death

33.

Germ cell tumors from a histological point of view can be classified as?

a)

Ovarian and testicular

b)

Gonadal or extragonadal

c)

Germinomas or non-germinomas

d)

Benign or malignant

34.

Gasometric presentation in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

a)

Hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis

b)

Normochloremic metabolic alkalosis

c)

Decompensated metabolic alkalosis with hyperoxemia

d)

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

35.

Cystatin C, when used for the diagnosis of chronic renal failure, can confuse us by elevating in?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Hypothyroidism

c)

Melanoma

d)

Only a and c