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Micro test 2

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
  1. In this scanning electron micrograph of Borrelia burgdorferi, which of the following structures is visible?

a)
  1. the outer sheath

b)
  1. cytoplasmic filaments

c)

the genome

d)

flagellar motors

2.

The cell wall is part of the

a)

cell membrane.

b)

cytoplasm.

c)

cell envelope.

d)

proteome.

3.

Lipopolysaccharides are found in

a)
  1. Gram-positive bacteria.

b)
  1. Gram-negative bacteria.

c)

archaea.

d)

eukaryotic microbes.

4.

In Gram-negative bacteria, peptidoglycan is found in the

a)
  1. cytoplasm.

b)
  1. inner membrane.

c)

outer membrane.

d)

periplasm.

5.

In this model of a Gram-negative bacterial cell envelope, which line is drawn to the periplasm?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

6.

In this model of a Gram-negative bacterial cell envelope, which line is drawn to lipopolysaccharides?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

7.

The majority of the bacterial cell cytoplasm (by total weight) is

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Protein

d)

Water

8.

In an E. coli cell, which molecule is found in only 1–2 copies per cell?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Protein

d)

Phospholipids

9.

Which bacterial cellular constituent is most liable to change under changing environmental conditions?

a)

DNA

b)

Peptidogylcan

c)

Polyamines

d)

Proteins

10.

The cell membrane stores energy by maintaining a separation of

a)

DNA

b)

Proteins

c)

Ions

d)

Lipids

11.

In Gram-negative bacteria the cell membrane separates the

a)
  1. periplasm from the external environment.

b)
  1. cytoplasm from the external environment.

c)
  1. cytoplasm from the nucleoid.

d)
  1. DNA from the RNA.

12.

In the image shown the circles and squares indicate molecules. The circles are at a higher concentration outside the cell and the squares are at a higher concentration inside the cell. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)
  1. Energy is released if the circles move into the cell or if the squares move out of the cell.

b)
  1. Energy is released if the circles move into the cell or if the squares move into the cell.

c)
  1. Energy is released if the circles move out of the cell or if the squares move out of the cell.

d)
  1. Energy is released if the circles move out of the cell or if the squares move into the cell.

13.

In this image the energy released by the transport of the circles out of the cell is used to drive the import of the squares into the cell. This is an example of

a)
  1. passive transport.

b)
  1. facilitated diffusion.

c)

symport coupled transport

d)

antiport coupled transport.

14.

In this image a transmembrane protein moves circles out of the cell, providing energy to move squares into the cell. Which of the following is correct?

a)
  1. Both the circles and the squares move down their concentration gradients.

b)
  1. Both the circles and the squares move against their concentration gradients.

c)
  1. The circles move down their concentration gradient and the squares move against their

d)

The circles move against their concentration gradient and the squares move down their

concentration gradient.

15.

What is the cellular target of penicillin (the first antibiotic discovered)?

a)
  1. genome

b)
  1. the cell wall

c)

ribosomes

d)

ABC transporters

16.

How does the cell wall protect bacterial cells from osmotic shock?

a)
  1. The wall forms a rigid cage that withstands turgor pressure.

b)
  1. The wall is impermeable to water, preventing turgor pressure.

c)
  1. The wall is impermeable to ions and other solutes, preventing osmotic imbalance.

d)
  1. The wall ensures cells are only found in environments where turgor pressure will not

    occur.

17.

The bacterial cell wall is an attractive target for antibiotics because

a)
  1. bacterial cells cannot develop resistance to antibiotics that target the cell wall.

b)
  1. animal cells lack a cell wall.

c)
  1. the cell wall is unimportant for bacterial survival.

d)
  1. the cell wall is the only structure bacteria require for survival.

18.

Mycoplasma lost their cell walls via reductive evolution. This was possible because

a)
  1. their cell membranes became extra thick to compensate.

b)
  1. it allowed them to not be sensitive to antibiotics that target the cell wall.

c)
  1. as obligate parasites they live in environments with constant osmolarity.

d)
  1. they live in soils with plenty of available moisture.

19.

This image models a

a)
  1. Gram-positive cell envelope.

b)
  1. Gram-negative cell envelope.

c)

eukaryotic cell membrane.

d)

mycobacterial envelope.

20.

Which of the following is FALSE of teichoic acids?

a)
  1. They reinforce the cell wall.

b)
  1. They may help pathogens attach to host cells

c)
  1. They are recognized by the host immune system.

d)
  1. They repel the Gram stain.

21.

This transmission electron micrograph shows a

a)
  1. Gram-positive cell envelope.

b)
  1. Gram-negative cell envelope.

c)

eukaryotic cell membrane.

d)

mycobacterial envelope.

22.

Murein lipoprotein is a part of the ________ of the ________.

a)
  1. outer leaflet, outer membrane.

b)
  1. inner leaflet, outer membrane.

c)

outer leaflet, inner membrane.

d)

inner leaflet, inner membrane.

23.

Which of the following is a function of lipopolysaccharide?

a)
  1. helps cells resist phagocytosis

b)
  1. aids in outer membrane cell wall attachment

c)
  1. allows for mobility to promote chemotaxis

d)
  1. provides energy to the cell

24.

Which of the following helps compact bacterial DNA?

a)

the origin of replication site

b)

supercoils

c)

porins

d)

pilins

25.

Which of the following is true of growing bacteria?

a)
  1. DNA synthesis occurs continuously.

b)
  1. DNA synthesis occurs during a defined period.

c)
  1. They suspend flagella rotation to put energy toward DNA replication.

d)
  1. DNA synthesis cannot occur at the same time as transcription.

26.

The arrows indicate the partition that separates a bacterial cell into two new daughter cells. This partition is called the

a)

stalk

b)

S-layer.

c)

septum

d)

termination site

27.

Bacterial cells that expand their cell walls during septation (not before) and septate in parallel planes will form

a)
  1. chains of rods (bacilli).

b)
  1. tetrads of rods (bacilli)

c)

chains of spheres (cocci)

d)

tetrads of spheres (cocci)

28.

This electron micrograph shows staphylococci, spherical cells that cluster together like grape bunches. This form occurs when cell wall expansion occurs

a)
  1. prior to septation and septation occurs in parallel planes.

b)
  1. prior to septation and septation occurs in random orientations.

c)
  1. during septation and septation occurs in parallel planes

d)
  1. during septation and septation occurs in random orientations.

29.

Which of the following structures is obligatory for all bacterial cells?

a)

nucleoid

b)

flagella

c)

pili

d)

magnetosomes

30.

Pili and stalks enable bacterial

a)

adherence

b)

chemotaxis

c)

photosynthesis

d)

symport

31.

While most wild E. coli usually have flagella, many lab strains have lost their flagella. What is a likely

cause of this loss?

a)
  1. reductive evolution due to an increased need for chemotaxis

b)
  1. reductive evolution due to an unchanging environment

c)
  1. reductive evolution due to an increased need for magnetotaxis

d)
  1. reductive evolution due to a decreased need for magnetotaxis

32.

Flagella are required for bacterial

a)

chemotaxis

b)

growth

c)

adherence

d)

buoyancy

33.

This transmission electron micrograph of a marine microbe shows internal structures such as thylakoids. This microbe has what capability that is not present in all bacterial species?

a)

adherence

b)

chemotaxis

c)

DNA replication

d)

photosynthesis

34.

Magnetotactic bacteria swim along a magnetic field. To do this these bacteria have which of the following structures that are not present in all bacterial species?

a)
  1. storage granules

b)
  1. sulfur

c)

flagella

d)

gas vesicles

35.

Which organelle is NOT part of the endomembrane system?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

lysosome

c)

peroxisome

d)

Golgi complex

36.

Ribosomes associate with which endomembrane organelle?

a)
  1. Golgi complex

b)
  1. endoplasmic reticulum

c)

lysosomes

d)

peroxisomes

37.

Which of the following shows the correct path a secreted protein takes in a eukaryotic cell?

a)
  1. Golgi complex, rough ER, vesicle, cell membrane

b)
  1. vesicle, rough ER, Golgi complex, cell membrane

c)
  1. rough ER, Golgi complex, vesicle, cell membrane

d)

rough ER, Golgi complex, cell membrane, vesicle

38.

Which organelle houses a eukaryotic cell’s genome?

a)
  1. rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)
  1. contractile vacuole

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleus

39.

Which organelle arose via endosymbiosis?

a)

chloroplast

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

lysosome

d)

nucleus

40.

ATP synthase is found in bacterial cell membranes. In eukaryotic cells, ATP synthase is found in the

a)
  1. cell membrane.

b)
  1. cytoplasm.

c)

mitochondrial inner membrane.

d)

mitochondrial matrix.

41.

Mycobacterium leprae, or leprosy disease, often takes years to develop. Naranjan must use a long-term multidrug therapy to cure it. Why is it necessary to take the drugs for such a long period, and why must he take so many drugs at once?

a)

Mycobacteria are Gram-negative organisms. They must be killed slowly to prevent release of toxic LPS

b)
  1. Mycolic acid within the cell wall reduces nutrient uptake, resulting in slow growth, and excludes some antibiotics.

c)
  1. Mycobacteria are all highly resistant to antibiotics.

d)
  1. Mycobacteria don’t have cell walls, so must be treated with antibiotics that target other

    structures.

42.

Given the incredibly fast division times of bacterial cells, which of the following could explain why

we are NOT surrounded by large mountains of bacterial cells?

a)
  1. Bacteria produce too much toxic iron.

b)
  1. Bacteria require a host cell to grow.

c)
  1. Bacteria are outcompeted by viruses.

d)
  1. Bacteria run out of nitrogen.

43.

Which of the following is needed as an important enzyme cofactor for microbial growth?

a)

Na+

b)

Mg2+

c)

sulfur

d)

oxygen

44.

Examine the media recipes shown. What ingredients make Luria Bertani a complex medium as opposed to a chemically defined minimal medium?

a)
  1. tryptone and NaCl

b)
  1. tryptone and yeast extract

c)
  1. NaCl and yeast extract

d)
  1. Luria Bertani is a chemically defined minimal medium.

45.

Which of the following could describe the relationship between the cyanobacterium Nostoc and E. coli

related to the carbon cycle?

a)

Nostoc produces carbohydrates from lithotrophy, and E. coli breaks down the

carbohydrates to generate CO2.

b)
  1. Nostoc produces carbohydrates from phototrophy, and E. coli breaks down the

    carbohydrates to generate CO2.

c)
  1. Nostoc produces CO2 that E. coli turns into carbohydrates.

d)
  1. E. coli produces carbohydrates that Nostoc uses as energy to produce more carbohydrates.

46.

Which of the following statements regarding examples of chemotrophy is FALSE?

a)
  1. Glucose is an oxidized compound that freely donates electrons to NAD, a more reduced

    compound.

b)
  1. Glucose is a reduced compound that freely donates electrons to NAD, a more oxidized

    compound.

c)
  1. NAD plays an important role in chemotrophic metabolism.

d)
  1. Glucose is an important chemotrophic carbon source.

47.

What is the correct term for the chemical conversion shown below?

a)

phototrophy

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

nitrogen fixation

48.

What advantage does the plating method shown on the left panel below have over the plating method

shown in

the right panel?

a)
  1. It can be used to isolate pure colonies.

b)

It can be used to culture viable organisms.

c)

It can be used to produce confluent growth

d)

It can be used to quantify the number of organisms in a given bacterial sample

49.

Fastidious organisms would be best grown on which type of media?

a)

enriched

b)

synthetic

c)

minimal

d)

selective

50.

Mannitol salts agar is a medium that contains a high concentration of salt (7.5%) and mannitol as a fermentable carbon source. Few organisms are able to grow on it because of its high salt concentration. Organisms that can grow and ferment mannitol will produce an acid that interacts with the pH indicator in the media, turning it yellow. Nonmannitol-fermenting organisms grow without any change to the media. Which of the following correctly describes this medium?

a)

selective

b)

differential

c)

selective and differential

d)

neither

51.

Which of the following can be used to directly count bacterial cells without the use of a microscope?

a)
  1. viable counts

b)
  1. optical density

c)

fluorescence-activated cell sorter

d)

Petroff-Hauser counting chamber

52.

Which of the following is NOT a problem with the viable count method of cell quantification?

a)
  1. underestimation of the number of living cells in the culture

b)
  1. takes too long if you want to immediately study cells at a particular growth phase

c)
  1. not accurate for organisms whose cells remain attached (for example, Streptococci

    growing in chains)

d)
  1. not useful for living cells

53.

Which of the following can be most efficiently used to measure bacterial growth in real time?

a)
  1. FACS

b)
  1. spectrophotometer

c)

Petroff-Hauser counting chamber

d)

fluorescent microscope

54.

Which of the following is NOT required for microorganisms to grow and divide?

a)
  1. DNA replication

b)
  1. binary fission

c)

equatorial septum formation

d)

conjugation

55.

A culture of Salmonella increases from 20 cells to over 10,000 cells in just three hours. Of what is this an example?

a)
  1. lag phase

b)
  1. doubling time

c)

budding

d)

exponential growth

56.

If you start with 14 organisms at time 0, how many organisms will you have after 9 generations, assuming exponential growth?

a)

126

b)

512

c)

7,168

d)

14,336

57.

Which of the following is NOT happening during the lag phase of growth?

a)
  1. Cells are at their largest.

b)
  1. Genes for growth in the specific environment are turned on.

c)
  1. Cell components are being synthesized.

d)
  1. Cells are detecting their environment.

58.

Bacteria begin to participate in quorum sensing at which stage of growth?

a)
  1. late log phase

b)
  1. log phase

c)

stationary phase

d)

stationary

59.

A new enzyme that helps protect a bacterial cell from reactive oxygen species has been discovered. During which phase of growth would you expect the gene that codes for this enzyme to be expressed?

a)
  1. lag phase

b)

log phase

c)

late log phase

d)

stationary phase

60.

Which of the following occurs when a microorganism is found in an environment below its minimum

growth temperature?

a)
  1. The cell dies.

b)
  1. Growth stops because the cell membrane melts.

c)
  1. Growth stops because enzymatic processes become sluggish.

d)
  1. Growth slows but does not stop.

61.

What classification is also given to barophilic organisms that grow at the ocean floor?

a)

mesophilic

b)

psychrophilic

c)

halophilic

d)

acidophilic

62.

Which of the following is true regarding an environment with a high osmolarity?

a)
  1. It has a low salt concentration.

b)
  1. It has a high pH.

c)

It has a high water activity.

d)

It has a low water activity.

63.

Which of the following cellular components could be found in high concentrations in a halophilic microorganism?

a)
  1. Na+/K+ ion pump

b)
  1. citric acid

c)

cold-tolerant enzymes

d)

asuperoxide dismutase

64.

Production of urease by Helicobacter pylori allows it to do which of the following?

a)
  1. sense when it has entered the intracellular environment of its host

b)
  1. survive in basic conditions

c)
  1. increase production of ion pumps

d)
  1. neutralize stomach pH to survive in acidic conditions

65.

Which of the following is NOT a toxic by-product of oxygen metabolism?

a)
  1. superoxide

b)
  1. hydroxide radicals

c)
  1. hydrogen peroxide

d)
  1. dihydrogen oxide

66.

Consider the tube shown. What type of organism would grow only at the bottom of the tube?

a)
  1. microaerophile

b)
  1. aerotolerant anaerobe

c)

strict anaerobe

d)

strict aerobe

67.

Why do strict anaerobes die in the presence of oxygen?

a)
  1. They are vulnerable to reactive oxygen species.

b)
  1. They are not able to get enough energy without using oxygen as a terminal electron

    acceptor.

c)
  1. They do not use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor

d)
  1. Strict anaerobes do not die in the presence of oxygen.

68.

Why might a facultative organism prefer aerobic respiration over fermentation when carbohydrates

become scarce?

a)
  1. Facultative organisms never prefer aerobic respiration to fermentation.

b)
  1. It gets more energy from fermentation.

c)
  1. It gets more energy from aerobic respiration.

d)
  1. It gets less energy from aerobic respiration.

69.

What is the purpose of the palladium packet in the anaerobic jar?

a)
  1. to catalyze a reaction between H2 and residual O2 in the jar to remove all the O2

b)
  1. to remove CO2 that can be converted to O2

c)
  1. to provide O2 for aerobic respiration

d)
  1. to provide N2 for protein synthesis

70.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a bacterial organism that can form a biofilm?

a)

All bacterial organisms can form biofilms.

b)
  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)
  1. Escherichia coli

d)
  1. Bacillus anthracis

71.

Why do bacterial organisms form a biofilm?

a)
  1. to claim territory and fight off competing organisms of a different species

b)
  1. to attach to a surface in an area where food is plentiful

c)
  1. to find a food source when nutrients are scarce

d)
  1. to mate with other bacterial organisms of the same or different species

72.

Which of the following is NOT involved in biofilm formation or function?

a)
  1. rorespore engulfment

b)
  1. quorum sensing

c)

exopolysaccharide formation

d)

antibiotic resistance

73.

Which of the following is NOT necessary for endospore formation?

a)
  1. exopolysaccharide formation

b)
  1. peptidoglycan synthesis

c)

dipicolinic acid synthesis

d)

calcium transport

74.

If an error occurred during the sporulation process and small acid-soluble proteins were not included in

the spore, what would be the effect?

a)
  1. The spore would only exist for 100 years.

b)
  1. The spore will be more likely to germinate.

c)
  1. The spore will be less resistant to heat.

d)

The spore will be less resistant to ultraviolet light.

75.

The blood agar plates used to culture Mirembe’s sample contain intact red blood cells and agar. Organisms that are capable of lysing the red blood cells may produce green-appearing zones of partial hemolysis or clear-appearing zones of complete hemolysis around colonies that are easily visually distinguishable. This medium is best described as:

a)

selective

b)

differential

c)

chemically defined

d)

synthetic

76.

Which of the following is found in eukaryotic but not prokaryotic genomes?

a)

promoters

b)

operons

c)

introns

d)

genes

77.

Each bacterial species has a unique

a)

cell shape

b)

cel wall

c)

genome

d)

glycolytic pathway

78.

Which of the following is true of plasmids?

a)
  1. They can be the entire genome.

b)
  1. They are common in eukaryotic cells.

c)
  1. They are usually linear

d)
  1. They may contain antibiotic resistance genes.

79.

Plasmids usually contain genes that are

a)
  1. important for cell survival in all environments.

b)
  1. important for cell survival in particular environments.

c)
  1. not important for cell survival in any environments.

d)
  1. composed of single-stranded DNA.

80.

In this image of a nucleoside, which arrow is pointing to the 2¢ carbon of deoxyribose?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

81.

In this image of a nucleoside, which arrow is pointing to the 5¢ carbon of deoxyribose?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

82.

In the active site of DNA polymerase, which monomer will form correct base pairs with a C in the

template strand?

a)

dATP

b)

dCTP

c)

dGTP

d)

dTTP

83.

An E. coli cell whose DNA contains N14 is placed in media with dNTPs containing a heavy isotope of nitrogen, N15, which incorporates into newly synthesized DNA. After one cell division, what will the DNA in the daughter cells look like?

a)
  1. One cell will have both strands of the helix N14; the other cell will have both strands of the helix N15.

b)
  1. One cell will have mostly N14 with a little bit of N15; the other cell will have mostly N15 with a little N14.

c)
  1. Each cell will have one strand of N14 and one strand of N15.

d)
  1. It is impossible to predict what the DNA in the daughter cells will look like.

84.

If you wanted to radioactively tag newly synthesized DNA, which numbered phosphate would need to be radioactive?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

Either 1, 2, or 3 would work.

85.

DNA replication begins at a chromosomal region called the

a)

activator

b)

initiator

c)

origin

d)

promoter

86.

The activity of what enzyme is modeled here?

a)

gyrase

b)

helicase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

primase

87.

Which of the following lists enzymes involved in DNA replication in the order they act?

a)
  1. primase, helicase, DNA polymerase

b)
  1. helicase, DNA polymerase, primase

c)
  1. primase, DNA polymerase, helicase

d)
  1. helicase, primase, DNA polymerase

88.

TAT is a codon for the amino acid tyrosine (Tyr). If a mutation changes TAT to TAA, what kind of mutation has occurred?

a)

frameshift

b)

missense

c)

nonsense

d)

silent

89.

TAT is a codon for the amino acid tyrosine (Tyr). If a mutation changes TAT to CAT, what kind of mutation has occurred?

a)

frameshift

b)

missense

c)

nonsense

d)

silent

90.

A mutation known as a pyrimidine dimer is usually caused by

a)
  1. acridine orange

b)
  1. DNA polymerase errors.

c)

UV light

d)

X-rays

91.

Which repair process leads to an abasic site as part of the repair pathway?

a)
  1. base excision repair

b)
  1. methyl mismatch repair

c)

recombination

d)

SOS repair

92.

During gel electrophoresis the ________ DNA fragments migrate more quickly and move further

down the gel toward the ________ pole.

a)
  1. larger; negative

b)
  1. larger; positive

c)
  1. smaller; negative

d)
  1. smaller; positive

93.

RFLP analysis requires which tools?

a)
  1. restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis

b)
  1. restriction enzymes and PCR

c)
  1. gel electrophoresis and PCR

d)
  1. gel electrophoresis and DNA sequencing

94.

Recombinant human insulin is safely produced in bacteria. Which of the following is the correct

sequence of steps needed to produce such a transgenic bacterium?

a)
  1. transform bacteria, ligate, hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid

b)
  1. hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, ligate, transform bacteria

c)
  1. hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, transform bacteria, ligate

d)
  1. ligate, hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, transform bacteria

95.

What technique is illustrated in this diagram?

a)
  1. DNA hybridization

b)
  1. DNA sequencing

c)

recombinant DNA production

d)

PCR

96.

Which of the following RNAs gets translated into protein?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

sRNA

97.

If a portion of the template strand of a gene has the sequence 5¢ TTGCAGCT 3¢, what is the sequence of the RNA transcribed from this template?

a)
  1. 5¢AACGTCGA3¢

b)
  1. 5¢AACGUCGA3¢

c)

5¢ AGCUGCAA3¢

d)

5¢ AGCTGCAA3¢

98.

During transcription termination

a)
  1. sigma disengages from RNA polymerase.

b)
  1. RNA polymerase disengages from the DNA.

c)
  1. ribosomes disengage from the mRNA.

d)
  1. DNA replicates the termination sequence.

99.

What enzyme is used to produce cDNA?

a)
  1. DNA polymerase III

b)
  1. DNA ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

reverse transcriptase

100.

Which of the following is NOT normally found in human cells?

a)

cDNA

b)

DNA

c)

mRNA

d)

tRNA

101.

Which of the following is most likely a signature of an operon?

a)

large distances between consecutive coding regions and functional association of the gene products

b)
  1. large distances between consecutive coding regions and gene products involved in different pathways

c)
  1. short distances between consecutive coding regions and gene products involved in different pathways

d)
  1. l

  2. short distances between consecutive coding regions and functional association of gene products

102.

Ribosomes are composed of

a)

protein only

b)

RNA only

c)

both protein and rRNA

d)

both protein and tRNA

103.

What energy source is used to drive translation?

a)

ATP

b)

GTP

c)

NADPH

d)
  1. the energy released when peptide bonds form

104.

An antibiotic that inhibits peptidyl transferase activity likely binds to

a)

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.

b)

mRNA

c)

a 30S ribosome subunit.

d)

a 50S ribosome subunit.

105.

Except for the initiating fMet tRNA, what is the order of sites that tRNAs take through a ribosome?

a)
  1. first E, then P, and finally A

b)
  1. irst A, then P, and finally E

c)

first E, then A, and finally P

d)

first P, then A, and finally E

106.

EF-G is involved in

a)
  1. transcription initiation.

b)
  1. transcription elongation.

c)

translation initiation.

d)

translation elongation.

107.

After translation

a)
  1. all proteins are folded and secreted.

b)
  1. some proteins are folded but all are secreted.

c)
  1. all proteins are folded and some are also secreted.

d)
  1. some proteins are folded and another subset are secreted.

108.

Phase variation controls protein levels by

a)
  1. altering the DNA sequence.

b)
  1. changing the rate of mRNA translation.

c)
  1. changing the rate of mRNA stability.

d)
  1. changing the rate of protein stability.

109.

Bacteria regulate virulence gene expression because

a)
  1. he genes need to be expressed all the time.

b)
  1. the genes do not need to be expressed all the time, and regulation saves energy.

c)
  1. the genes do not need to be expressed all the time; if they were, the bacterial cell would

    die.

d)
  1. it does not cost them any energy to keep the gene expressed all the time.

110.

The gene that codes for a protein involved in detoxifying an environmental toxin is only expressed in the presence of the toxin. A repressor protein controls transcription of the gene. Which of the following is true?

a)
  1. The toxin mediates induction of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor.

b)
  1. The toxin mediates induction of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an

    activator.

c)
  1. The toxin mediates repression of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the

    repressor.

d)
  1. The toxin mediates repression of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an

    activator.

111.

PrfA protein is a global regulator of virulence genes in Listeria, a bacterium that can cause severe food poisoning. Below host body temperatures PrfA mRNA exists in a conformation that hides the ribosome binding site. Upon entry into a host and a rise in temperature, hydrogen bonds in the mRNA break, exposing the ribosome binding site. What level of gene regulation is seen here?

a)
  1. changing the DNA sequence

b)
  1. transcription control

c)

translation control

d)

posttranslational control

112.

In a typical two-component signal transduction system

a)
  1. the sensor kinase senses the environment and the response regulator directly alters transcription.

b)
  1. both the sensor kinase and the response regulator sense the environment.

c)
  1. both the sensor kinase and the response regulator directly alter transcription.

d)
  1. the sensor kinase directly alters transcription and the response regulator senses the

    environment.

113.

In the lac operon, a mutation in the operator, LacO, that prevents repressor binding will cause which of the following changes compared to wild type cells?

a)
  1. more expression of the lac operon when lactose is present

b)
  1. more expression of the lac operon when lactose is absent

c)
  1. less expression of the lac operon when lactose is present

d)
  1. less expression of the lac operon when lactose is absent

114.

In a two-component signal transduction system the response regulator activity is altered via phosphorylation. This is an example of

a)
  1. changing the DNA sequence.

b)
  1. transcription

c)

translation control

d)

posttranslational control.

115.

Doxycycline is an antibiotic that binds to the bacterial ribosome. How does this antibiotic interfere

with the creating of proteins in bacterial cells?

a)
  1. Binding to the ribosome prevents DNA strands from being separated properly, preventing

    transcription.

b)
  1. Binding to the ribosome prevents mRNA strands from being properly assembled from

    single-stranded DNA templates.

c)
  1. Binding to the ribosome prevents mRNA from being properly read and translated into an

    amino acid sequence.

d)
  1. Binding to the ribosome prevents completed proteins from being exported to the cell

    surface.