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Special Tractions Lower Limb

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Bryant’s Traction primarily used for in pediatric patients?

a)

Fractures of the femur in children up to two years old or weighing less than 30 lbs (14kg)

b)

Fractures of the humerus in adults

c)

Dislocations of the shoulder in teenagers

d)

Sprains of the ankle in children over five years old

2.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for using Bryant’s Traction?

a)

Fractures of the femur in children under two years old

b)

Stabilization of the hip joint where use of the cast is not indicated

c)

Fractures of the femur in adults

d)

Fractures of the femur in children weighing less than 30 lbs (14kg)

3.

Why might Bryant’s Traction be chosen over a cast for a child with a hip joint injury?

a)

When stabilization is needed but use of the cast is not indicated

b)

When the child is over five years old

c)

When the injury is to the upper limb

d)

When the child weighs more than 30 lbs (14kg)

4.

What is a key feature of Bryant’s Traction as shown in the treatment of a child?

a)

Both legs are elevated and suspended vertically

b)

Only one arm is in traction

c)

The child is sitting upright

d)

The legs are immobilized with a cast

5.

What is the primary reason for using bilateral traction in Bryant’s Traction, even if the pathology is unilateral?

a)

To prevent rotation and facilitate better stabilization of the patient.

b)

To increase the speed of recovery.

c)

To reduce the need for medication.

d)

To allow the patient to move freely.

6.

According to the guidelines for Bryant’s Traction, how should the hips be positioned when setting up vertical suspension traction of the legs?

a)

The hips should be flexed at right angles.

b)

The hips should be extended straight.

c)

The hips should be rotated outward.

d)

The hips should be elevated above the chest.

7.

When Bryant’s Traction is correctly in place, what should be the position of the buttocks relative to the mattress?

a)

The buttocks should just clear the mattress.

b)

The buttocks should be pressed firmly into the mattress.

c)

The buttocks should be elevated several inches above the mattress.

d)

The buttocks should rest flat on the mattress.

8.

What should you do if, after lifting and releasing the buttocks in Bryant’s Traction, the child does not return to the “just clear” position?

a)

Adjust the weights yourself until the child returns to the correct position.

b)

Check with the attending physician regarding a possible change in the amount of weight.

c)

Ignore the position and continue monitoring.

d)

Remove the traction system immediately.

9.

Which of the following is a dangerous complication that can occur with Bryant’s Traction?

a)

Ischemic contractures

b)

Bone fractures

c)

Muscle sprain

d)

Skin rash

10.

How often should both feet be checked for color, pulse, motion, temperature, and sensation in a patient with Bryant’s Traction?

a)

Every two hours

b)

Every four hours

c)

Once a day

d)

Every thirty minutes

11.

Where should you check for undue pressure when caring for a patient in Bryant’s Traction?

a)

Over the outer head and neck of the fibula, on the dorsum of the foot, and on the Achilles tendon

b)

Only on the heel

c)

Only on the toes

d)

Only on the knee

12.

Why is it important to check both feet regularly in a patient with Bryant’s Traction?

a)

To monitor for signs of compromised circulation and nerve function

b)

To ensure the patient is comfortable

c)

To keep the feet clean

d)

To prevent muscle cramps

13.

A nurse notices redness and swelling over the Achilles tendon in a child with Bryant’s Traction. What should the nurse do next?

a)

Report the finding and adjust the traction to relieve pressure

b)

Ignore it as it is a normal finding

c)

Apply ice directly to the area

d)

Remove the traction immediately

14.

Which of the following is an important step when caring for a child in Bryant’s Traction?

a)

Ensure that bandages, boots, etc., have not slipped and become bunched around the toes or ankles.

b)

Change the traction weights daily.

c)

Allow the child to walk with assistance.

d)

Remove the traction device every hour.

15.

Why are problems with Bryant’s Traction difficult to define in children?

a)

Because the traction is always painful.

b)

Due to the age of the child.

c)

Because the equipment is too complex.

d)

Due to frequent changes in traction type.

16.

A nurse is planning care for a child in Bryant’s Traction. Which strategy best addresses the child’s inability to communicate wants and needs?

a)

Regularly check for non-verbal cues indicating discomfort or needs.

b)

Only provide care when the child cries.

c)

Ignore the child’s behavior unless it is disruptive.

d)

Wait for the child to verbally express their needs.

17.

Why might it be necessary to use some form of jacket or restraint when a child is in Bryant’s traction?

a)

To keep the child from rotating around the traction apparatus

b)

To help the child sleep better

c)

To prevent the child from eating

d)

To make the child more comfortable

18.

What is the primary purpose of using Modified Bryant's Traction in children?

a)

To help reduce congenital hip dislocation

b)

To treat broken arms

c)

To improve lung function

d)

To correct spinal curvature

19.

How does Modified Bryant's Traction work when a child is lying on his back?

a)

It holds the legs upright and gently stretches the child's leg using the weight on the traction

b)

It bends the knees and supports the back

c)

It immobilizes the arms and shoulders

d)

It compresses the chest to aid breathing

20.

Which structures are loosened by the use of Modified Bryant's Traction?

a)

Ligaments, tendons, and muscles around the child's hip

b)

Bones in the child's arm

c)

Nerves in the child's spine

d)

Blood vessels in the child's leg

21.

A child is undergoing Modified Bryant's Traction. Explain why it is important for the traction to gently stretch the leg rather than apply excessive force.

a)

Gentle stretching prevents injury to the ligaments, tendons, and muscles, allowing gradual loosening and reducing the risk of further damage.

b)

Excessive force is needed to speed up the healing process.

c)

Gentle stretching is only for comfort and has no medical benefit.

d)

Excessive force helps to strengthen the bones faster.

22.

Which of the following best describes the correct position of a patient in Buck’s Traction?

a)

The patient should be flat on their back with the foot of the bed elevated.

b)

The patient should be sitting upright with the head of the bed elevated.

c)

The patient should be lying on their stomach with the bed flat.

d)

The patient should be in a side-lying position with the head of the bed lowered.

23.

Which of the following is a key precaution when setting up Buck’s Traction?

a)

Pulley bars must be placed so that the line of pull aligns distal to proximal.

b)

The patient should be allowed to sit up as much as possible.

c)

The traction boot should be removed every hour.

d)

The weights should be placed on the bed.

24.

What is Buck’s traction primarily used for?

a)

Bilateral arm traction

b)

Unilateral leg traction (one leg)

c)

Cervical spine traction

d)

Pelvic traction

25.

Explain why Buck’s traction might have been particularly useful during the American Civil War. Use reasoning and evidence from historical context.

a)

It allowed for quick and easy amputation.

b)

It provided a non-surgical method to stabilize leg fractures, which was crucial due to limited surgical resources and high rates of limb injuries.

c)

It was used to treat head injuries.

d)

It was primarily for spinal injuries.

26.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for the use of Buck’s traction?

a)

Trial treatment of nerve root disorders

b)

Muscle spasms

c)

Treatment of upper arm fractures

d)

Minor fractures of the lower spine

27.

What is the primary purpose of Buck’s unilateral leg traction?

a)

To treat head injuries

b)

To stabilize one leg, especially in cases of hip or femoral shaft fractures

c)

To immobilize both arms

d)

To treat abdominal pain

28.

A patient with degenerative arthritis and knee injuries may benefit from which of the following treatments?

a)

Buck’s traction

b)

Cervical collar

c)

Arm sling

d)

Spinal fusion surgery

29.

Explain why Buck’s traction might be chosen as a temporary stabilization method for fractured hips or femoral shaft fractures. Use evidence from the indications listed.

a)

It provides permanent fixation of the bone.

b)

It allows for temporary stabilization before definitive treatment.

c)

It is only used for muscle spasms.

d)

It is primarily for upper limb injuries.

30.

What is the initial step in setting up Modified Bryant's Traction?

a)

Bryant's traction is set up as usual.

b)

Abduction of both hips is begun immediately.

c)

The hips are fully abducted from the start.

d)

Abduction is increased by 20 degrees daily.

31.

After how many days is abduction of both hips begun in Modified Bryant's Traction?

a)

Five days

b)

One day

c)

Ten days

d)

Three weeks

32.

By how many degrees is abduction increased on alternate days in Modified Bryant's Traction?

a)

10 degrees

b)

5 degrees

c)

20 degrees

d)

15 degrees

33.

By what time frame should the hips be fully abducted in Modified Bryant's Traction?

a)

Three weeks

b)

One week

c)

Five days

d)

Ten days

34.

Explain the rationale behind gradually increasing the abduction of both hips by about 10 degrees on alternate days in Modified Bryant's Traction.

a)

To allow gradual adaptation and minimize complications.

b)

To speed up the healing process as much as possible.

c)

To avoid the need for any traction setup.

d)

To ensure the hips remain immobile throughout.

35.

What can happen if the wrappings are too tight across the dorsum of the foot when applying Buck’s Traction?

a)

Excess pressure can cause severe complications.

b)

The traction will be more effective.

c)

The patient will feel less pain.

d)

The adhesive will not stick properly.

36.

Which material is suggested to be used near the ankles to cover the adhesive side of Skin-Trac Traction Strips?

a)

Strips of felt or sheet wadding

b)

Plastic wrap

c)

Cotton balls

d)

Band-aids

37.

When planning to apply Buck’s Traction, what should you consider to avoid complications related to pressure?

a)

Ensure wrappings are not too tight across the dorsum of the foot.

b)

Use extra adhesive for better grip.

c)

Apply heat to the area before wrapping.

d)

Wrap the foot as tightly as possible.

38.

Why is it important to ensure that the heels are not digging into the mattress when a patient is in Buck’s Traction?

a)

To prevent irritation and skin breakdown

b)

To increase blood flow to the toes

c)

To reduce swelling in the knee

d)

To strengthen the calf muscles

39.

What can be placed under the full length of the calf to keep the heels off the bed in Buck’s Traction?

a)

Small foam pads or folded blankets

b)

Ice packs

c)

Heating pads

d)

Wooden boards

40.

What complication may occur if pressure is not kept off the peroneal nerve during Buck’s Traction?

a)

Foot drop

b)

Skin rash

c)

Muscle cramps

d)

Swelling of the thigh

41.

A patient in Buck’s Traction complains of numbness in their foot. Using your reasoning skills, what should you check for first?

a)

Pressure on the peroneal nerve

b)

The tightness of the bed sheets

c)

The temperature of the room

d)

The patient’s hydration status

42.

Which of the following is a purpose of using a bed cradle in Buck’s traction?

a)

To keep bed covers from resting on the feet

b)

To help the patient sit up in bed

c)

To provide additional traction to the leg

d)

To support the patient’s back

43.

Why should a patient in Buck’s traction be encouraged to perform both active and passive exercises as tolerated?

a)

To prevent muscle atrophy and promote circulation

b)

To increase the weight of the traction

c)

To reduce the need for a bed cradle

d)

To allow the patient to remove the traction

44.

What is the recommended method for a patient in Buck’s traction to move about in bed?

a)

By using the trapeze

b)

By pulling on the bed covers

c)

By pushing with their feet

d)

By rolling to one side

45.

What is the primary method by which skeletal traction applies force to the skeleton?

a)

By using a cast around the limb

b)

By attaching weights to the skin

c)

By driving a metal pin or wire through the bone

d)

By using elastic bands around the joint

46.

In which situation is skeletal traction most frequently used?

a)

Management of upper limb fractures

b)

Management of lower limb fractures

c)

Treatment of muscle strains

d)

Correction of spinal deformities

47.

Why should skeletal traction be reserved for cases where skin traction is contraindicated?

a)

Because it is less effective than skin traction

b)

Because it is more expensive than skin traction

c)

Because it involves a higher risk of complications

d)

Because it is easier to apply than skin traction

48.

What is a serious complication associated with skeletal traction?

a)

Muscle cramps

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Skin rash

d)

Joint dislocation

49.

A patient with a lower limb fracture cannot undergo skin traction due to a skin condition. What is the most appropriate alternative, and what risk should be considered?

a)

Use skeletal traction; monitor for osteomyelitis

b)

Use a cast; monitor for muscle atrophy

c)

Use elastic bandages; monitor for swelling

d)

Use physical therapy; monitor for pain

50.

Which of the following best describes a Steinmann pin as used in skeletal traction?

a)

A flexible plastic rod used for bone alignment

b)

A rigid stainless-steel pin of varying lengths, 4 to 6 millimeters in diameter

c)

A rubber band used to provide tension

d)

A wooden dowel for external fixation

51.

What is the primary function of the Bohler stirrup when attached to a Steinmann pin?

a)

To increase the length of the pin

b)

To allow the direction of traction to be varied without turning the pin in the bone

c)

To secure the pin to the skin

d)

To sterilize the pin after insertion

52.

After the insertion of a Steinmann pin, what is the next step in the application of skeletal traction?

a)

The pin is removed immediately

b)

A special stirrup (Bohler, 1929) is attached to the pin

c)

The pin is bent to fit the bone

d)

The pin is covered with a cast

53.

Explain why the Bohler stirrup is important in the application of skeletal traction, and discuss how it improves the procedure compared to simply turning the pin in the bone.

a)

It prevents infection by covering the pin

b)

It allows for adjustment of traction direction without rotating the pin, reducing bone damage

c)

It increases the weight applied to the traction

d)

It shortens the healing time by compressing the bone

54.

Which feature distinguishes a Denham pin from a Steinmann pin?

a)

The Denham pin is longer than the Steinmann pin.

b)

The Denham pin has a short raised threaded length near the end held in the introducer.

c)

The Denham pin is made of a different metal than the Steinmann pin.

d)

The Denham pin is only used in children.

55.

What is the primary function of the threaded portion on a Denham pin?

a)

To make the pin easier to remove

b)

To engage the bony cortex and reduce the risk of the pin sliding

c)

To increase the weight-bearing capacity of the pin

d)

To allow for electrical stimulation

56.

For which type of bone is the Denham pin particularly suitable?

a)

Compact bone in the femur

b)

Cancellous bone such as the calcaneus or osteoporotic bone

c)

Cartilage in the knee joint

d)

Dense bone in the skull

57.

Explain why the Denham pin is preferred over other pins for use in osteoporotic bone. Use evidence from the description to support your answer.

a)

Because it is less expensive than other pins

b)

Because its threaded portion engages the bony cortex, reducing the risk of sliding, which is important in weaker, osteoporotic bone

c)

Because it is easier to sterilize

d)

Because it is shorter and causes less pain

58.

Which of the following best describes the method to determine the site of insertion for a Steinmann pin at the distal femur?

a)

Draw a line anteriorly at the level of the lower pole of patella and a second line from above downwards just posterior to the head of tibia.

b)

Draw a line posteriorly at the level of the upper pole of patella and a second line from below upwards just anterior to the head of fibula.

c)

Draw a line medially at the level of the upper pole of patella and a second line from below upwards just posterior to the head of fibula.

d)

Draw a line laterally at the level of the lower pole of patella and a second line from above downwards just anterior to the head of tibia.

59.

What is the significance of the intersection point of the two lines drawn as described in the application of skeletal traction for the distal femur?

a)

It marks the location for incision of the skin.

b)

It is the site of insertion of a Steinmann pin.

c)

It indicates the end of the femur.

d)

It is used to measure the length of the femur.

60.

Which bone is specifically mentioned as a reference point for drawing the second line when determining the site of insertion at the distal femur?

a)

Tibia

b)

Patella

c)

Fibula

d)

Humerus

61.

What anatomical structure is used as a reference for drawing the first line in determining the insertion site for skeletal traction at the distal femur?

a)

Lower pole of patella

b)

Upper pole of patella

c)

Head of tibia

d)

Shaft of femur

62.

Which site is commonly used for the application of skeletal traction?

a)

Proximal Tibia

b)

Distal Femur

c)

Proximal Humerus

d)

Distal Radius

63.

When applying skeletal traction to the distal femur, how far proximal to the articulation between the lateral femoral condyle and the lateral tibial plateau should the pin be inserted?

a)

0.5 inches (1.25 cm)

b)

2 inches (5 cm)

c)

1.25 inches (3 cm)

d)

3 inches (7.5 cm)

64.

What is the correct direction for inserting the pin during skeletal traction of the distal femur?

a)

Medial to lateral

b)

Anterior to posterior

c)

Lateral to medial

d)

Superior to inferior

65.

Explain the reasoning behind the recommendation to insert the pin lateral to medial and avoid the knee joint capsule during skeletal traction application to the distal femur.

a)

To ensure the pin is more comfortable for the patient

b)

To prevent damage to the joint and reduce the risk of complications

c)

To make the procedure faster

d)

To allow for easier removal of the pin

66.

What is the correct site for the application of skeletal traction on the proximal tibia?

a)

0.75 inch (2 cm) posterior and inferior to the tibial tuberosity

b)

1 inch (2.5 cm) anterior to the tibial tuberosity

c)

0.5 inch (1 cm) superior to the tibial tuberosity

d)

2 inches (5 cm) lateral to the tibial tuberosity

67.

In which direction should skeletal traction be applied to the proximal tibia to avoid nerve damage?

a)

Medial to lateral

b)

Lateral to medial

c)

Superior to inferior

d)

Inferior to superior

68.

Why is it important to avoid damaging the common peroneal nerve during the application of skeletal traction to the proximal tibia?

a)

It can cause severe bleeding

b)

It can result in loss of knee stability

c)

It can lead to nerve injury and possible foot drop

d)

It can cause infection in the bone

69.

A patient requires skeletal traction to the proximal tibia. As a healthcare provider, how would you plan the procedure to minimize complications?

a)

Apply traction from medial to lateral and avoid the tibial tuberosity

b)

Apply traction 0.75 inch (2 cm) posterior and inferior to the tibial tuberosity, from lateral to medial, and avoid the common peroneal nerve

c)

Apply traction directly on the tibial tuberosity from superior to inferior

d)

Apply traction 2 inches (5 cm) above the tibial tuberosity from medial to lateral

70.

At what specific location is skeletal traction applied to the distal tibia?

a)

2 inches above the level of the ankle joint, midway between anterior and posterior tibia

b)

Directly on the ankle joint

c)

5 inches below the knee joint

d)

On the lateral side of the tibia only

71.

What is the correct direction for applying skeletal traction to the distal tibia?

a)

Medial to lateral

b)

Lateral to medial

c)

Anterior to posterior

d)

Posterior to anterior

72.

Why is it important to apply skeletal traction midway between the anterior and posterior tibia when treating the distal tibia?

a)

To ensure even distribution of force and avoid injury to surrounding structures

b)

To increase the speed of bone healing

c)

To reduce the need for anesthesia

d)

To prevent infection at the site

73.

At what site should skeletal traction be applied to the calcaneum according to the provided guidelines?

a)

0.75 inch (2 cm) below and behind the lateral malleolus

b)

Directly on the lateral malleolus

c)

2 inches above the medial malleolus

d)

1 inch in front of the subtalar joint

74.

Which anatomical structure should be avoided when applying skeletal traction to the calcaneum?

a)

Subtalar joint

b)

Lateral malleolus

c)

Medial malleolus

d)

Tibial shaft

75.

If the site for skeletal traction is chosen as 0.75 inch (2 cm) below and behind the lateral malleolus, what is the corresponding point relative to the medial malleolus?

a)

1.25 inches below and behind the medial malleolus

b)

0.5 inch above the medial malleolus

c)

2 inches in front of the medial malleolus

d)

1.25 inches above the medial malleolus

76.

Why is it important to avoid entering the subtalar joint during the application of skeletal traction to the calcaneum?

a)

To prevent joint damage and complications

b)

To increase the effectiveness of traction

c)

To ensure the bone heals faster

d)

To avoid unnecessary pain

77.

Which of the following items is NOT typically included in the preparation pack for the application of skeletal traction?

a)

Sterile towels

b)

Disinfectant

c)

Bandages

d)

Syringe

78.

Which tool is specifically used to drive the Steinmann pin into the bone during skeletal traction?

a)

Syringe

b)

Jacobs chuck with T-handle

c)

Scalpel with pointed blade

d)

Stirrup

79.

What is the concentration and volume of local anaesthesia typically injected on each side of the tibial tuberosity during the application of skeletal traction?

a)

5 ml of 2% lignocaine

b)

10 ml of 1% lignocaine

c)

2 ml of 5% lignocaine

d)

5 ml of 1% lignocaine

80.

What is the purpose of infiltrating local anaesthesia down to the periosteum during the application of skeletal traction?

a)

To numb the bone and surrounding tissues for pin insertion

b)

To sterilize the skin before surgery

c)

To reduce swelling in the joint

d)

To increase blood flow to the area

81.

Explain the reasoning behind injecting local anaesthesia both laterally and medially at the proposed site of pin insertion during skeletal traction.

a)

To ensure complete anaesthesia at both the entry and exit points of the pin

b)

To reduce the risk of infection

c)

To increase the speed of the procedure

d)

To avoid damaging the bone

82.

At what point is a Steinmann or Denham pin inserted during the application of skeletal traction?

a)

About 2 cm dorsal to the tibial tuberosity

b)

Directly on the tibial tuberosity

c)

5 cm above the knee joint

d)

At the midpoint of the femur

83.

What is the purpose of checking the exit point of the pin during skeletal traction application?

a)

To ensure it coincides with the area of local anesthetic infiltration

b)

To avoid hitting the patella

c)

To measure the length of the pin

d)

To prevent infection

84.

Which instrument is used to make the initial incision for pin insertion in skeletal traction?

a)

Pointed scalpel

b)

Bone saw

c)

Surgical scissors

d)

Needle holder

85.

In Modified Bryant’s Traction, why is gradual abduction of the hips preferred over immediate full abduction?

a)

To reduce the risk of vascular compromise and allow tissues to adapt

b)

To prevent the need for any monitoring

c)

To speed up the healing process

d)

To make the setup easier for caregivers