WorksheetsBiology B Review - Exam (2025)
Total questions: 84
Worksheet time: 42mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Two different populations of birds are similar but cannot interbreed and produce fertile offspring. However, the two populations’ DNA is 98% similar. This information is evidence that the two bird populations
a)
are the same species.
b)
are not related.
c)
share a common ancestor.
d)
evolved at different times in the same region.
2.
The structural changes that occur in certain plants over time, enabling them to thrive in dry habitats, are examples of
a)
adaptations
b)
nutritional relationships
c)
succession
d)
energy flow relationships
3.
Which of the following best characterizes natural selection?
a)
survival of the biggest and strongest organism in a population
b)
elimination of the smallest organism by the biggest organism
c)
survival and reproduction of the organism that occupies the largest area
d)
survival and reproduction of the organisms that are genetically best adapted to the environment.
4.
When lions prey on a herd of antelope, some antelope are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might be used to best describe this situation?
a)
acquired characteristics
b)
survival of the fittest
c)
reproductive isolation
d)
descent with modification
5.
Which of the following does the chart below best support?
a)
Groups of embryonic cells develop in similar patterns in all vertebrates, supporting the theory of evolution.
b)
Vertebrates subject to similar selection pressures evolved certain features in common.
c)
The limbs of vertebrates take the same amount of time to develop, supporting the theory of evolution.
d)
Vertebrates have been shown through fossil records to have become less complex over time.
6.
Given the diagram below, what would be a main reason for the development of the separate subspecies of the Northern Spotted Owl and the Mexican Spotted Owl?
a)
Their common ancestors became geographically isolated.
b)
The animals lost their ability to communicate with one other.
c)
They were able to adapt to drinking water from different sources.
d)
Their food sources changed over time.
7.
Which statement best explains how the different species in the diagram evolved?
a)
The genes of the founder species mutated over time.
b)
Birds in the original population that ate fruit and seeds underwent more mutations than those who ate insects and nectar.
c)
The birds with longer beaks were better adapted to their respective environments than those with shorter beaks.
d)
Groups of birds became isolated and adapted to their environment, until they could no longer reproduce with other populations.
8.
The cladogram below shows the phylogeny of seven animals. Which two animals are most distantly related?
a)
the hagfish and the chimp
b)
the mouse and the salamander
c)
the mouse and the chimp
d)
the lizard and the perch
9.
The algae at the beginning of the food chain in Figure 3-1 are
a)
consumers.
b)
producers.
c)
decomposers.
d)
heterotrophs.
10.
The ultimate source of energy for most producers and consumers is
a)
plants
b)
algae
c)
the sun
d)
the ocean
11.
Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the remaining energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is
a)
used in reproduction.
b)
stored as fat.
c)
stored as body tissue.
d)
eliminated as heat.
12.
a)
Smaller organisms require more energy than larger organisms.
b)
Primary producers store 95% of the available energy.
c)
Consumers are unable to use energy sources from lower levels.
d)
Organisms at each level lose energy in the form of heat to the environment.
13.
Which is a biotic factor that affects the size of a population in a specific ecosystem?
a)
average temperature of the ecosystem
b)
type of soil in the ecosystem
c)
number and kinds of predators in the ecosystem
d)
concentration of oxygen in the ecosystem
14.
Food chains differ from food webs in that food chains
a)
include more organisms than do food webs.
b)
depict only one line of energy transfer, while food webs depict many interrelated food chains.
c)
include producers and consumers, while food webs include only consumers.
d)
all of these are true
15.
Seaweed → minnow → sea trout → tuna → man
In the food chain above, which organism is the primary consumer?
a)
seaweed
b)
tuna
c)
minnow
d)
man
16.
You are studying an ecosystem that contains the food web in figure 4-2. There is a sudden outbreak in a disease among frogs, killing many of the frogs. Which of the following would most likely occur first, given the relationships above?
a)
The cricket population would decrease.
b)
The mouse population would decrease.
c)
The cricket population would increase.
d)
The hawk population would increase.
17.
What stage of the cell cycle and mitosis do chromosomes become visible and spindles move toward the poles?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
e)
Telophase
18.
Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a)
adenine.
b)
phosphate groups.
c)
uracil.
d)
thymine.
19.
What would be the corresponding strand of DNA for ACGGT
a)
UGGCT
b)
GGUAT
c)
TGCCA
d)
ACUGG
20.
The structure labeled X in the figure below is a(an)
a)
nucleotide
b)
nitrogen base
c)
codon
d)
deoxyribose
21.
Based on the DNA sequence information in the chart below, which organism is most closely related to Homo sapiens?
a)
Periplaneta americana
b)
Pan paniscus
c)
Felis domesticus
d)
Mus musculus
22.
Which process does the diagram below represent?
a)
DNA replication
b)
production of individual amino acids
c)
mRNA replication
d)
production of proteins
23.
The process of producing a molecule of mRNA from DNA is called
a)
initiation
b)
transcription
c)
translation
d)
decodation
24.
A codon contains a sequence of ______ nitrogen bases.
a)
3
b)
9
c)
6
d)
12
25.
What happens during the process of translation?
a)
Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b)
The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c)
Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d)
Copies of DNA molecules are made.
26.
Refer to Figure 3. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by the piece of mRNA shown in the diagram?
a)
Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe
b)
Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly
c)
Val—Asp—Pro—His
d)
Pro—Glu—Leu—Val
27.
Which molecule carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome?
a)
tRNA
b)
rRNA
c)
mRNA
d)
DNA
28.
What is the central dogma of molecular biology?
a)
DNA → RNA → Protein
b)
RNA → DNA → Protein
c)
Protein → RNA → DNA
d)
DNA → Protein → RNA
29.
In which part of the cell does transcription occur?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Nucleus
c)
Ribosome
d)
Endoplasmic reticulum
30.
What is the function of the ribosome during translation?
a)
To synthesize DNA
b)
To decode mRNA and assemble amino acids into protein
c)
To transcribe RNA
d)
To transport amino acids
31.
In the picture, what is the name for the blending observes in the heterozygous genotype (CwCr)?
a)
Regular Dominance
b)
Incomoplete Dominance
c)
Polygenic Trait
d)
Multiple Alleles
32.
In the Punnett Square below, 'N' is responsible for normal color vision while 'n' is responsible for color blindness. This connection between the gene for color blindness and the X chromosome best describes which exception to Mendel's rule?
a)
When neither allele is completely dominant over the other, resulting in a blending of the two
b)
When both alleles are expressed equally
c)
When two genes are located close together on the same chromosome and tend to be inherited together
d)
When a single phenotype is controlled by the interaction of two or more genes
33.
According to this pedigree, what gender has the trait / condition?
a)
male
b)
female
c)
both males and females
d)
there is no trait / condition shown
34.
In humans the gene for normal blood clotting, N, is dominate to the gene for hemophilia, n. This trait is found on the X chromosome. A woman with normal blood clotting has four children. They are a normal son, a hemophiliac son, and two normal daughters. The father has normal blood clotting.
Select the best Punnett Square representing this scenario.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
35.
In humans the gene for normal blood clotting, N, is dominate to the gene for hemophilia, n. This trait is found on the X chromosome. A woman with normal blood clotting has four children. They are a normal son, a hemophiliac son, and two normal daughters. The father has normal blood clotting.
Based on this scenario, what percent of children in this family will have hemophilia?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
e)
100%
36.
In the picture, what is the probability of red flowers?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
37.
In the picture, the genotype and phenotype are shown for pea pod color. What condition is pea pod color based on the provided information?
a)
Regular Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Polygenic Trait
d)
Multiple Alleles
38.
In the picture, the genotype and phenotype are shown for pea pod color. What is another genotype that would result with a green pea pod phenotype?
a)
gg
b)
GG
c)
both of the above
d)
none of the above
39.
A characteristic that can be observed such as hair color, seed shape, flower color, etc
a)
DOMINANT
b)
RECESSIVE
c)
ALLELE
d)
TRAIT
40.
A gene choice that MASKS ANOTHER choice for a trait
a)
DOMINANT
b)
RECESSIVE
c)
ALLELE
d)
TRAIT
41.
A gene choice that IS MASKED BY ANOTHER choice for a trait
a)
DOMINANT
b)
RECESSIVE
c)
ALLELE
d)
TRAIT
42.
Which Chromosomal combinations in humans typically leads to female development?
a)
XX
b)
XY
c)
YY
43.
Most sex-linked, recessive traits–including hemophilia and color blindness–appear more frequently in males. This phenomenon is best explained by which statement?
a)
a. Males have an X chromosome with dominant genes.
b)
b. Most of the genes on the X and Y chromosomes of males are recessive.
c)
c. In males, the recessive sex-linked genes appear only on the Y chromosome.
d)
d. In males, the Y chromosome lacks the genes needed to mask the recessive genes on the X chromosome.
44.
What is the genotypic ratio according to the Punnett Square below?
a)
1 BB : 2 Bb : 1 bb
b)
1 BB : 4 Bb : 1 bb
c)
3 Brown : 1 blue
d)
5 Brown : 1 blue
45.
How many generations are in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
e)
cannot be determined
46.
Blood type is an example of codominance which is best described as:
a)
When two genes are located close together on the same chromosome (typically the X chromosome) and tend to be inherited together
b)
When a single phenotype is controlled by the interaction of two or more genes
c)
When neither allele is completely dominant over the other, resulting in a blending of the two
d)
When both alleles are expressed equally
47.
A couple has five children, all with blood type A. The mother’s blood type is O, and the father’s blood type is A. Based on this information, which describes the most probable genotype of the father?
a)
a. diploid
b)
b. haploid
c)
c. heterozygous
d)
d. homozygous
48.
What is the phenotypic ratio according to the Punnett Square below?
a)
1 BB : 2 Bb : 1 bb
b)
1 BB : 4 Bb : 1 bb
c)
3 Brown : 1 blue
d)
5 Brown : 1 blue
49.
Using the Punnett Square below, what percent of the offspring peas will be heterozygous?
a)
0 %
b)
25 %
c)
50 %
d)
75 %
e)
100 %
50.
Using the Punnett Square below, what percent of the offspring peas will be homozygous dominant?
a)
0 %
b)
25 %
c)
50 %
d)
75 %
e)
100 %
51.
What is the primary purpose of meiosis?
a)
To produce identical cells
b)
To create genetic diversity
c)
To repair damaged cells
d)
To produce energy
52.
During which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?
a)
Prophase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Anaphase I
d)
Telophase II
53.
What is the result of nondisjunction during meiosis?
a)
Increased genetic variation
b)
Normal chromosome number
c)
An abnormal number of chromosomes
d)
Fertilization failure
54.
How many chromosomes are present in a human gamete (sex cell)?
a)
23
b)
46
c)
22
d)
44
55.
What term describes the joining of two haploid gametes (sex cells)?
a)
Fertilization
b)
Meiosis
c)
Translocation
d)
Nondisjunction
56.
Which of the following describes homologous chromosomes?
a)
Identical copies of a chromosome
b)
Chromosomes that are not related
c)
Pairs of chromosomes with the same genes at the same loci
d)
Chromosomes that have different functions
57.
What is a karyotype?
a)
A type of gamete
b)
The number and appearance of chromosomes in a diagram
c)
A stage in meiosis
d)
A genetic disorder
58.
Which process leads to genetic variation in offspring?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Fertilization
c)
Crossing over
d)
Cell differentiation
59.
What is the term for cells with two sets of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
c)
Gametes
d)
Somatic
60.
What happens during translocation?
a)
Chromosomes fail to separate
b)
A segment of a chromosome attaches to a nonhomologous chromosome
c)
Chromosomes replicate
d)
Gametes are formed
61.
What is the typical chromosome number in a human somatic (body) cell?
a)
23
b)
46
c)
22
d)
44
62.
What is the role of gametes in sexual reproduction?
a)
To provide energy
b)
To restore diploid chromosome number
c)
To create identical cells
d)
To repair tissues
63.
Which of the following is a potential outcome of nondisjunction?
a)
Normal development
b)
Genetic disorders
c)
Increased fertility
d)
Faster growth
64.
What is the term for the failure of chromosomes to separate properly during meiosis?
a)
Translocation
b)
Nondisjunction
c)
Crossing over
d)
Fertilization
65.
Using diagram, answer the following:
What is this diagram called?
a)
Karyotype
b)
Meiosis
c)
Graph
d)
Chart
66.
Using diagram, answer the following:
What is the chromosomal gender of the person?
a)
Female
b)
Male
c)
Neither
d)
Cannot be determined
67.
Using diagram, answer the following:
Is there a genetic disorder of this person?
a)
Yes, it a monosomy of Y
b)
Yes, it is a trisomy of 21
c)
Yes, it is a translocation
d)
No, there is no genetic disorder
68.
If body cells of a panda have 42 chromosomes how many cells will a gamete cell have?
a)
42
b)
21
c)
2
d)
none
69.
What is the difference between haploid and diploid cells?
a)
Haploid cells have two sets of chromosomes; diploid cells have one
b)
Diploid cells have two sets of chromosomes; haploid cells have one
c)
Both have the same number of chromosomes
d)
Haploid cells are larger than diploid cells
70.
Which of the following best describes a zygote?
a)
A haploid cell
b)
A diploid cell formed by fertilization from 2 gametes
c)
A type of gamete
d)
A stage in meiosis
71.
What stage of the cell cycle and mitosis do the sister chromatids split and the cell starts to elongate?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
e)
Telophase
72.
What stage of the cell cycle and mitosis is the DNA loosely coiled and not condensed into chromosomes yet?
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
e)
Telophase
73.
What stage of the cell cycle and mitosis do chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell?
a)
Metaphase
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
e)
Telophase
74.
What stage of interphase is where the DNA is doubled?
a)
G1 Phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 Phase
d)
75.
If a organism's skin cell has 46 chromosomes in its nucleus then its egg/sperm cell must have how many Chromosomes?
a)
92
b)
46
c)
11.5
d)
23
76.
A diploid cell has ________ the number of chromosomes as a haploid cell.
a)
one-fourth
b)
one-half
c)
twice
d)
four times
77.
An organism’s traits are determined by the specific combination of inherited ________.
a)
cells
b)
genes
c)
proteins
d)
chromatids
78.
Separation of the sister chromatids is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
79.
________ are changes to the nucleotides in a segment of DNA that codes for a protein.
a)
Proto-oncogenes
b)
Tumor suppressor genes
c)
Gene mutations
d)
Negative regulators
80.
Which diagram represents a haploid amount of chromoromes?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
both A and B
d)
neither A nor B
81.
Select the correct description of the image below.
a)
Diagram A is a plant cell because it lacks the cell plate
b)
Diagram B is a plant cell because it has the cell plate
c)
Diagram A is an animal cell because it lacks a cell plate
d)
Diagram B is an animal cell because it has a cell plate
82.
In the cell life cycle, the cell spends most of its time in:
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
e)
Telophase
83.
In the cell life cycle, which of the following best describes G0 (on the right side of the image)
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
e)
Dormant
84.
When in doubt, in Biology B the answer is most likely:
a)
DNA
b)
RNA (no, go to the start of the central dogma of biology)
c)
Protein (no, go to the start of the central dogma of biology)
100 %
