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Medical Case-Based Worksheet

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 45-year-old construction worker presents to the clinic with a 2cm lesion on his forearm that has irregular borders, multiple colors including brown and black areas, and has grown noticeably over the past 3 months. The patient reports the lesion sometimes bleeds when scratched. Based on the ABCDE criteria, which finding is MOST concerning for melanoma?

a)

The lesion's location on a sun-exposed area

b)

The patient's occupation involving outdoor work

c)

The lesion's evolving characteristics over time

d)

The lesion being larger than a pencil eraser

2.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a Stage 3 pressure ulcer on the coccyx. Which interventions should be included in the care plan?

a)

Reposition the patient every 4 hours

b)

Consult with a wound care nurse for treatment planning

c)

Use specialty mattresses to reduce pressure

d)

Promote tissue granulation with specialized solutions

e)

Administer prescribed antibiotic therapy

3.

A 28-year-old patient presents with thick, scaling plaques with a silvery appearance on the elbows and knees, along with joint pain and reduced range of motion. The patient reports a family history of similar skin conditions. Which medication would be the FIRST-LINE systemic treatment for this condition?

a)

Cyclosporine

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Infliximab (Remicade)

d)

Topical corticosteroids

4.

A school nurse is examining a 7-year-old child with honey-colored crusted lesions around the mouth and nose. The lesions started as fluid-filled blisters that ruptured and formed crusts. Which isolation precaution is MOST appropriate for this condition?

a)

Droplet precautions

b)

Airborne precautions

c)

Contact precautions

d)

Standard precautions only

5.

A 65-year-old diabetic patient develops a deep, tender, raised area with a central core on the back of the neck. The area is warm to touch and appears to have pus formation. Which intervention should be the nurse's PRIORITY?

a)

Apply topical antibiotic ointment

b)

Encourage oral fluid intake

c)

Apply warm compresses to the area

d)

Prepare for incision and drainage

6.

A patient with a history of chickenpox develops a painful, stripe-like rash along the left side of the torso with fluid-filled blisters. The patient reports severe burning pain that started before the rash appeared. Which medication regimen would be MOST effective if started within 72 hours of symptom onset?

a)

A) Acyclovir 400mg orally twice daily for 10 days

b)

B) Valacyclovir 1000mg orally three times daily for 7 days

c)

C) Famciclovir 250mg orally twice daily for 7 days

d)

D) Topical acyclovir cream applied four times daily

7.

A 72-year-old patient has a Stage 1 pressure ulcer on the heel. The skin shows non-blanchable redness and feels warmer than surrounding tissue. Which intervention is MOST important to prevent progression to Stage 2?

a)

Apply a moisture barrier cream

b)

Reposition the patient off the affected heel

c)

Rub the reddened area vigorously

d)

Place a heat lamp over the area

8.

A patient is diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma on the nose. The physician recommends Mohs surgery. The patient asks why this procedure is preferred over wide excision. Which response by the nurse is MOST accurate?

a)

Mohs surgery is less expensive than wide excision.

b)

Mohs surgery removes cancer layer by layer with the lowest recurrence rate.

c)

Mohs surgery doesn't require any follow-up care.

d)

Mohs surgery can be performed without anesthesia.

9.

A patient presents with cellulitis of the right lower extremity. The physician has marked the borders of the infection with a pen. Eight hours later, the nurse notes the redness has extended beyond the marked borders. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?

a)

Apply cold compresses to reduce inflammation

b)

Notify the healthcare provider immediately

c)

Increase the frequency of dressing changes

d)

Administer prescribed pain medication

10.

A patient with folliculitis asks what caused the condition. The nurse explains that folliculitis is commonly caused by which organism?

a)

Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Candida albicans

11.

A 55-year-old patient has multiple actinic keratoses on sun-exposed areas. The dermatologist prescribes topical 5-fluorouracil (5-FU). Which patient education is MOST important?

a)

Apply the medication three times daily for best results.

b)

Expect extreme redness, oozing, and possible fever during treatment.

c)

You can apply makeup over the medication to hide redness.

d)

Stop the medication immediately if any side effects occur.

12.

A patient is admitted with a suspected deep tissue injury (DTI) on the buttocks. The area appears purple-black with intact skin. Which statement about DTI is MOST accurate?

a)

DTI always indicates poor nursing care

b)

The true extent of tissue damage cannot be determined by visual inspection

c)

DTI only affects the superficial layers of skin

d)

DTI will always progress to a Stage 4 pressure ulcer

13.

A 30-year-old patient presents with intense itching that worsens at night, particularly between the fingers and on the wrists. Small burrow-like tracks are visible on examination. Which diagnostic test would CONFIRM the suspected diagnosis?

a)

Complete blood count with differential

b)

Skin biopsy for histopathological examination

c)

Mineral oil skin scraping for microscopic examination

d)

Bacterial culture of the affected areas

14.

A patient with impetigo is prescribed topical mupirocin. The patient asks when they can return to work at a daycare center. Which response by the nurse is MOST appropriate?

a)

You can return to work immediately since it's not contagious.

b)

You must wait until all lesions have completely healed.

c)

You can return 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment.

d)

You can return when the honey-colored crusts have fallen off.

15.

A nurse is assessing a patient for melanoma risk factors. Which factors increase the patient's risk?

a)

Family history of melanoma

b)

Caucasian ethnicity with fair skin

c)

More than 50 moles or atypical moles

d)

Red or blonde hair with blue or green eyes

e)

Age over 65 years

16.

A patient with a carbuncle on the back of the scalp requires treatment. Which intervention is the PRIORITY for this condition?

a)

Oral antibiotic therapy

b)

Incision and drainage (I&D)

c)

Topical antifungal cream

d)

Warm compress application

17.

A patient with herpes zoster (shingles) develops postherpetic neuralgia. Which medication would be MOST effective for managing this complication?

a)

Acetaminophen 650mg every 6 hours

b)

Ibuprofen 600mg every 8 hours

c)

Gabapentin (Neurontin) 300mg three times daily

d)

Topical lidocaine cream as needed

18.

A patient has a Stage 4 pressure ulcer with exposed bone and signs of infection. Which interventions should be included in the care plan?

a)

Wound vacuum therapy

b)

Systemic antibiotic therapy

c)

Specialty bed to reduce pressure

d)

Monitoring for osteomyelitis

e)

Surgical debridement of necrotic tissue

19.

A patient presents with seborrheic keratosis lesions. The patient is concerned about cancer risk. Which statement by the nurse is MOST accurate?

a)

These lesions frequently become malignant and require immediate removal.

b)

These are benign lesions that rarely require treatment unless cosmetically bothersome.

c)

These lesions are pre-cancerous and should be monitored closely.

d)

These lesions are contagious and require isolation precautions.

20.

A patient with psoriatic arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which laboratory value requires the MOST frequent monitoring?

a)

Complete blood count

b)

Liver function tests

c)

Kidney function tests

d)

Thyroid function tests

21.

Which interventions are appropriate for treating a patient with scabies?

a)

Apply permethrin to the entire body

b)

Repeat treatment in 8 days

c)

Leave permethrin on for 8+ hours

d)

Treat all contacts

e)

Wash bedding in hot water

22.

What is the priority initial intervention for a patient with a furuncle (boil)?

a)

Apply warm compresses to the area

b)

Start oral antibiotics immediately without assessment

c)

Cover the area with an ice pack

d)

Incise and drain the boil at home

23.

What is the correct dosing for herpes zoster?

a)

Valacyclovir 500mg orally three times daily for 7 days

b)

Valacyclovir 1000mg orally three times daily for 7 days

c)

Valacyclovir 500mg orally once daily for 7 days

d)

Topical valacyclovir for 7 days

24.

Which findings are most consistent with necrotizing fasciitis?

a)

Crepitus

b)

Itching

c)

Foul drainage

d)

Severe pain

e)

Slow progression

25.

What is the best intervention to prevent pressure injury to the heels?

a)

Massage reddened areas

b)

Elevate the heels off the bed using pillows under the calves

c)

Apply barrier cream

d)

Use heel protectors only at night

26.

Which procedure removes cancer layer by layer with the lowest recurrence rate?

a)

Wide local excision

b)

Mohs surgery

c)

Cryotherapy

d)

Radiation therapy

27.

Which symptoms indicate severe systemic psoriasis requiring immediate attention?

a)

Itchy plaques

b)

Malaise

c)

Scaly patches

d)

Chills

e)

Localized redness

28.

What is the most appropriate action if a patient with psoriasis develops malaise, chills, and fever?

a)

Increase topical therapy

b)

Notify the healthcare provider immediately

c)

Schedule a routine follow-up

d)

Start oral antihistamines

29.

Folliculitis is most commonly caused by which of the following?

a)

Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Escherichia coli

30.

Which of the following are required for chickenpox precautions?

a)

Airborne precautions

b)

Negative pressure room

c)

Contact precautions

d)

Droplet precautions

e)

N95 respirator

31.

What should you expect during 5-FU treatment?

a)

Mild redness only

b)

Expect extreme redness, oozing, and possible fever during treatment

c)

No visible reaction

d)

Immediate healing

32.

Which of the following is true about deep tissue injury (DTI)?

a)

The true extent of tissue damage can be determined by visual inspection

b)

The true extent of tissue damage cannot be determined by visual inspection

c)

DTI never extends to bone

d)

DTI always presents with open wounds

33.

Which of the following are true about Mohs surgery?

a)

Highest cure rates

b)

Preserves healthy tissue

c)

Immediate microscopic examination

d)

Involves layer-by-layer removal

e)

Used for all high-risk areas

34.

What confirms the diagnosis of scabies?

a)

Clinical appearance only

b)

Blood test

c)

Mineral oil skin scraping for microscopic examination

d)

Skin biopsy

35.

When can a child with impetigo return to school after starting antibiotic treatment?

a)

Immediately

b)

After lesions heal completely

c)

You can return 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment

d)

After 1 week

36.

Which of the following are risk factors for melanoma?

a)

Fair skin

b)

Light hair/eyes

c)

Family history

d)

Multiple/atypical moles

e)

Previous skin cancer

37.

Carbuncles are collections of multiple boils requiring surgical drainage. This is the priority treatment, followed by antibiotics if needed. What is the priority treatment for carbuncles?

a)

Antibiotics only

b)

Incision and drainage (I&D)

c)

Topical ointment

d)

Warm compresses

38.

Postherpetic neuralgia is neuropathic pain requiring anticonvulsants like gabapentin or pregabalin. Traditional analgesics are ineffective. What is the recommended medication for postherpetic neuralgia?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Gabapentin (Neurontin) 300mg three times daily

d)

Morphine

39.

Stage 4 ulcers require aggressive treatment including surgical debridement, systemic antibiotics, wound vac therapy, specialty beds, and monitoring for osteomyelitis. Repositioning should be every 2 hours, not 4. Which of the following are required for Stage 4 ulcer treatment?

a)

Specialty beds

b)

Wound vac therapy

c)

Systemic antibiotics

d)

Monitoring for osteomyelitis

e)

Surgical debridement

40.

Seborrheic keratoses are benign "age spots" and the most common skin growth in elderly patients. They're not pre-cancerous or contagious. What is true about seborrheic keratoses?

a)

They are contagious

b)

These are benign lesions that rarely require treatment unless cosmetically bothersome

c)

They are pre-cancerous

d)

They require immediate removal

41.

Methotrexate is hepatotoxic and requires frequent liver function monitoring. While CBC and kidney function are also monitored, liver toxicity is the primary concern requiring most frequent assessment. What test is most important to monitor in patients taking methotrexate?

a)

CBC

b)

Liver function tests

c)

Kidney function tests

d)

Blood glucose

42.

A nurse is using the Braden Scale to assess a patient's risk for pressure ulcers. Which factor is NOT evaluated as part of this assessment tool?

a)

A) Sensory perception

b)

B) Moisture exposure

c)

C) Age and gender

d)

D) Friction and shear

43.

A patient has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer on the sacrum that appears as a shallow open ulcer with clear drainage. Which assessment findings are consistent with this stage?

a)

C) Appearance similar to a blister

b)

D) Swollen and warm to touch

c)

A) Partial-thickness skin loss

d)

B) Visible subcutaneous fat

e)

F) May contain clear fluid or pus

44.

A patient with melanoma is scheduled for sentinel lymph node biopsy. The patient asks about the procedure. Which explanation by the nurse is MOST accurate?

a)

Radioactive dye is injected to track the first lymph nodes that drain the tumor site.

b)

All lymph nodes in the region will be surgically removed for examination.

c)

A biopsy needle will be inserted into suspicious lymph nodes under CT guidance.

d)

The procedure uses ultrasound to identify enlarged lymph nodes for removal.

45.

A patient with basal cell carcinoma is prescribed Aldara (imiquimod) cream. Which mechanism of action should the nurse explain to the patient?

a)

It directly destroys cancer cells through chemical burns

b)

It freezes the tumor tissue causing cell death

c)

It stimulates the immune system to attack tumor cells

d)

It blocks blood supply to the tumor

46.

A patient with an unstageable pressure ulcer has thick yellow slough covering the wound bed. The nurse understands that this wound:

a)

Is definitely a Stage 2 pressure ulcer

b)

Cannot be staged until the slough is removed

c)

Should be debrided immediately for staging purposes

d)

Will never progress beyond Stage 2

47.

A patient with psoriasis is experiencing severe itching that interferes with sleep. Which medication would be MOST appropriate for symptom management?

a)

Ibuprofen 400mg every 6 hours

b)

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25mg at bedtime

c)

Acetaminophen 650mg every 4 hours

d)

Gabapentin 300mg three times daily

48.

A patient asks about the difference between wide excision and Mohs surgery for skin cancer treatment. Which statement by the nurse is MOST accurate?

a)

Wide excision is always preferred because it's less expensive.

b)

Mohs surgery has lower recurrence rates but removes more tissue.

c)

Wide excision is faster but has higher recurrence rates than Mohs surgery.

d)

Both procedures have identical outcomes and cure rates.

49.

A patient with chickenpox asks when their child can return to school. The nurse should explain that the child is no longer contagious when:

a)

The fever has been gone for 24 hours

b)

All lesions have crusted over

c)

The child has been on antiviral medication for 48 hours

d)

The rash has completely disappeared

50.

A patient with a pressure ulcer requires wound photography for documentation. When should this documentation occur?

a)

Only when the wound shows signs of infection

b)

Once weekly during dressing changes

c)

Upon admission and when skin breakdown is first discovered

d)

Only before and after surgical procedures

51.

A patient with actinic keratosis is scheduled for cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen. Which side effect should the nurse warn the patient to expect?

a)

Permanent hair loss in the treated area

b)

Blistering and peeling of the skin

c)

Immediate relief of all symptoms

d)

No visible changes to the skin

52.

A patient with necrotizing fasciitis requires immediate intervention. Which treatments are indicated for this condition?

a)

Pain management protocols

b)

Contact isolation precautions

c)

Immediate fasciotomy or debridement

d)

Frequent wound vacuum changes

e)

Aggressive IV antibiotic therapy

53.

A patient with scabies is prescribed lindane lotion. Which patient characteristic would be a CONTRAINDICATION for this medication?

a)

Age over 65 years

b)

Pregnancy or breastfeeding

c)

History of diabetes

d)

Male gender

54.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a Stage 4 pressure ulcer that shows black eschar and exposed bone. Which complication is the patient at HIGHEST risk for developing?

a)

Contact dermatitis

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Folliculitis

d)

Seborrheic keratosis

55.

A patient is receiving interferon therapy following melanoma surgery. Which patient education points should the nurse include?

a)

Side effects may include flu-like symptoms

b)

The medication promotes apoptosis of abnormal cells

c)

The medication stimulates the immune system to fight remaining cancer cells

d)

Subcutaneous injections will be administered as prescribed

e)

This therapy is used in combination with surgery, not as a replacement

56.

A patient with psoriasis asks about phototherapy treatment. The nurse explains that this treatment involves:

a)

Surgical removal of affected skin areas

b)

Application of chemical peeling agents

c)

Exposure to controlled UVA light

d)

Injection of biologic medications

57.

A patient has a deep tissue injury that appears purple and feels boggy to touch. The nurse understands that the MOST important characteristic of this injury is:

a)

It only affects the superficial skin layers

b)

The depth of tissue damage cannot be determined visually

c)

It will always heal without intervention

d)

It indicates poor nursing care

58.

A patient with a furuncle (boil) on the face is prescribed oral antibiotics. The nurse understands that antibiotics are specifically indicated for facial furuncles because:

a)

Facial furuncles are more painful than those in other locations

b)

The risk of systemic complications is higher with facial infections

c)

Facial furuncles are caused by different bacteria

d)

Insurance requires antibiotic use for facial lesions

59.

A patient with cellulitis asks why alcohol should not be used to clean the affected area. The MOST appropriate response by the nurse is:

a)

Alcohol can dry and irritate the skin, delaying healing.

b)

Alcohol is not effective against bacteria.

c)

Alcohol causes allergic reactions in all patients.

d)

Alcohol increases the risk of infection.

60.

A patient is being evaluated for skin cancer risk factors. Which factors specifically increase the risk for developing melanoma?

a)

History of breast or thyroid cancer

b)

Indoor tanning bed exposure

c)

Having more than 50 moles

d)

Family history of melanoma

e)

Outdoor occupation with UV exposure

61.

A nurse is providing care for a patient with multiple pressure ulcers. The nurse notes that a Stage 3 ulcer appears to be developing granulation tissue and decreasing in size. This finding indicates:

a)

The ulcer is worsening and becoming a Stage 4

b)

Poor nursing care and inadequate treatment

c)

Improvement in the healing process

d)

The need for immediate surgical intervention

62.

A patient with herpes zoster is prescribed gabapentin for postherpetic neuralgia. The patient asks why this specific medication is used instead of regular pain relievers. Which explanation by the nurse is MOST accurate?

a)

Gabapentin is less expensive than other pain medications.

b)

This medication specifically treats nerve pain, which is different from regular pain.

c)

Gabapentin has fewer side effects than traditional pain relievers.

d)

Regular pain relievers are contraindicated with antiviral medications.

63.

Which of the following are characteristics of Stage 2 pressure ulcers? Select all that apply.

a)

May contain clear fluid or pus

b)

Swollen/warm

c)

Full-thickness loss

d)

May appear as blisters

e)

Partial-thickness skin loss

64.

Which statement is true about sentinel lymph node biopsy?

a)

Radioactive dye is injected to track the first lymph nodes that drain the tumor site.

b)

All regional nodes are removed

c)

It is used for all types of cancer

d)

It does not use radioactive dye

65.

What is the mechanism of action of Imiquimod (Aldara)?

a)

Direct cytotoxic agent

b)

Antihistamine

c)

It stimulates the immune system to attack tumor cells

d)

Analgesic

66.

Which of the following are biologic agents for psoriasis? Select all that apply.

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Cyclosporine

c)

Infliximab (Remicade)

d)

Rituximab (Rituxan)

e)

Etanercept (Enbrel)

67.

How should unstageable pressure ulcers with full-thickness tissue loss and slough/eschar be staged?

a)

Stage as full-thickness loss

b)

Cannot be staged until the slough is removed

c)

Stage as partial-thickness loss

d)

Stage as Stage 2

68.

Which medication is best for controlling itching and promoting sleep in psoriasis patients?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25mg at bedtime

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Methotrexate

69.

Which of the following are appropriate environmental cleaning measures for scabies? Select all that apply.

a)

Using bleach

b)

Vacuuming

c)

Washing in hot water

d)

Bagging non-washable items for 2-3 days

e)

Pets don't get human scabies

70.

Which statement is true regarding wide excision versus Mohs surgery?

a)

Mohs surgery is faster

b)

Wide excision has lower recurrence rates

c)

Wide excision is faster but has higher recurrence rates than Mohs surgery.

d)

Mohs surgery removes more healthy tissue

71.

Chickenpox is contagious until which of the following occurs?

a)

Fever subsides

b)

All lesions have crusted over

c)

Medication is started

d)

Rash appears

72.

Which of the following statements about interferon and surgery are correct?

a)

Interferon stimulates immune response

b)

Interferon causes flu-like symptoms

c)

Interferon is given subcutaneously

d)

Interferon is adjuvant to surgery

e)

Interferon promotes apoptosis

73.

When should wound photography occur for baseline documentation?

a)

Only when wound is healed

b)

Only when wound is infected

c)

Upon admission and when skin breakdown is first discovered

d)

Only at discharge

74.

What is the expected mechanism of action of liquid nitrogen cryotherapy?

a)

Causes infection

b)

Blistering and peeling of the skin

c)

Causes scarring

d)

Causes bleeding

75.

Which of the following are required for necrotizing fasciitis management?

a)

Aggressive IV antibiotics

b)

Topical antibiotics

c)

Wound vac therapy

d)

Surgical debridement/fasciotomy

e)

Isolation

76.

Lindane is contraindicated in which of the following?

a)

Age over 65

b)

Pregnancy or breastfeeding

c)

Diabetes

d)

Gender

77.

Stage 4 pressure ulcers with exposed bone have high risk for which of the following?

a)

Superficial skin conditions

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Diabetes

d)

Gender

78.

Which of the following are true about interferon?

a)

Promotes apoptosis

b)

Causes flu-like symptoms

c)

Adjuvant to surgery

d)

Given subcutaneously

e)

Stimulates immune response

79.

What is the treatment for certain skin conditions involving light exposure?

a)

Oral antibiotics

b)

Topical steroids

c)

Exposure to controlled UVA light

d)

Surgical excision

80.

The depth of tissue damage cannot be determined visually.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Impeptigo discharge teaching includes which of the following?

a)

Gentle cleaning

b)

Using separate personal items

c)

Avoiding scratching

d)

Using makeup immediately

e)

Completing antibiotics

82.

The risk of systemic complications is higher with facial infections.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Alcohol can worsen the infection and delay healing.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Melanoma risk factors include which of the following?

a)

Tanning bed use

b)

Previous cancer history (breast/thyroid)

c)

Multiple moles

d)

UV exposure

e)

Family history

85.

Granulation tissue formation and decreasing ulcer size indicate:

a)

Worsening in the healing process

b)

No change in the healing process

c)

Improvement in the healing process

86.

This medication specifically treats nerve pain, which is different from regular pain.

a)

True

b)

False