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Fundamentals of Nursing for BSN 1st semester by NRA

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary gas exchanged during alveolar gas exchange?

a)

Helium

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Oxygen

2.

Which factor directly impairs cilia function in older adults, increasing infection risk?

a)

Decreased cilia activity

b)

Rigid chest wall

c)

Dry mucous membranes

d)

Reduced surfactant production

3.

Hypoventilation leads to:

a)

Alkalosis

b)

Low blood CO₂ levels

c)

Increased blood CO₂ levels

d)

Hyperoxia

4.

Orthopnea refers to:

a)

Cessation of breathing

b)

Abnormal breath sounds

c)

Difficulty breathing when lying flat

d)

Rapid, shallow breathing

5.

Which oxygen delivery device provides the highest concentration (95-100%)?

a)

Venturi mask

b)

Non-rebreather mask

c)

Nasal cannula

d)

Simple face mask

6.

Normal adult oral temperature is:

a)

38°C (100.4°F)

b)

36.4°C (97.6°F)

c)

35°C (95°F)

d)

37°C (98.6°F)

7.

Heat loss via electromagnetic waves is called:

a)

Conduction

b)

Radiation

c)

Evaporation

d)

Convection

8.

A pulse rate <60 BPM in adults is termed:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Arrhythmia

c)

Thready pulse

d)

Tachycardia

9.

Korotkoff sounds are used to assess:

a)

Core temperature

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Pulse volume

d)

Respiratory rhythm

10.

Widened pulse pressure (>40 mmHg) may indicate:

a)

Cardiovascular disease

b)

Dehydration

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Bradypnea

11.

A Stage 2 pressure ulcer involves:

a)

Full-thickness tissue necrosis

b)

Intact skin with redness

c)

Partial-thickness skin loss

d)

Exposed bone

12.

The primary cause of pressure ulcers is:

a)

Friction

b)

Moisture

c)

Prolonged unrelieved pressure

d)

Poor nutrition

13.

Which site is most vulnerable to pressure ulcers in a supine position?

a)

Ears

b)

Sacrum

c)

Knees

d)

Shoulders

14.

Suspected Deep Tissue Injury (SDTI) appears as:

a)

Purple/maroon discolored skin

b)

Yellow slough

c)

Black eschar

d)

Blister with clear fluid

15.

Learning defined as "assimilating information with behavioral change" aligns with:

a)

WHO

b)

ANA

c)

Virginia Henderson

d)

Maslow

16.

Tactile learners best acquire knowledge through:

a)

Reading

b)

Hands-on experience

c)

Diagrams

d)

Lectures

17.

Discharge teaching for patients must prioritize:

a)

Institutional policies

b)

Theoretical concepts

c)

Health literacy adaptation

d)

Medical jargon

18.

Isometric exercise involves:

a)

Muscle contraction without movement

b)

Full joint movement

c)

Aerobic endurance

d)

Constant contraction rate

19.

A key effect of immobility on the cardiovascular system is:

a)

Improved circulation

b)

Orthostatic hypotension

c)

Hypertension

d)

Increased cardiac output

20.

Body mechanics principles include:

a)

Avoiding push/pull motions

b)

Bending at the waist

c)

Holding objects close to the body

d)

Twisting while lifting

21.

Leaving Against Medical Advice (LAMA) refers to:

a)

Transfer to another unit

b)

Planned discharge

c)

Patient-initiated early discharge

d)

Expiry-related discharge

22.

Dehumanization during admission may stem from:

a)

Family involvement

b)

Fear of the unknown

c)

Clear communication

d)

Routine orientation

23.

Discharge planning begins:

a)

During transfer

b)

At admission

c)

At discharge

d)

Post-surgery

24.

The first Muslim nurse documented in history is:

a)

Clara Barton

b)

Rufaidah Bento Saad

c)

Florence Nightingale

d)

Mary Seacole

25.

Florence Nightingale's contribution during the Crimean War included:

a)

Inventing the stethoscope

b)

Creating vaccination protocols

c)

Establishing sanitation rules

d)

Developing chemotherapy

26.

A nurse acting as a "client advocate" primarily:

a)

Speaks up for the patient's rights

b)

Conducts research

c)

Teaches wound care

d)

Administers medications

27.

Which role involves helping clients cope with grief?

a)

Leader

b)

Counselor

c)

Teacher

d)

Caregiver

28.

Hypoxemia refers to:

a)

Excess CO₂ accumulation

b)

Low blood oxygen

c)

Alveolar collapse

d)

Low tissue oxygen

29.

The posterior hypothalamus regulates:

a)

Sweating

b)

Radiation

c)

Heat conservation

d)

Vasodilation

30.

In Maslow's hierarchy, basic physiological needs include:

a)

Self-esteem

b)

Food and water

c)

Creativity

d)

Friendship

31.

The posterior hypothalamus is primarily responsible for:

a)

Radiation

b)

Heat conservation

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Sweating

32.

A core temperature below 35°C (95°F) defines:

a)

Pyrexia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Hyperthermia

d)

Heat exhaustion

33.

Inverse fever is characterized by:

a)

Highest temperature in the morning

b)

Fever spikes

c)

Constant high temperature

d)

Highest temperature in the evening

34.

Heat exhaustion differs from heat stroke in that it:

a)

Requires surgical intervention

b)

Involves moderate temperature elevation (38.3-38.9°C)

c)

Presents with warm, dry skin

d)

Causes unconsciousness

35.

During the "cold phase" of fever, a nurse would expect:

a)

Thirst

b)

Shivering and cyanotic nail beds

c)

Flushed skin

d)

Profuse sweating

36.

Cardiac output is calculated as:

a)

Stroke volume × Heart rate

b)

Heart rate × Blood pressure

c)

Blood volume × Viscosity

d)

Systolic pressure - Diastolic pressure

37.

The apical pulse is assessed using:

a)

Observation of jugular vein

b)

Auscultation with a stethoscope

c)

Doppler ultrasound

d)

Palpation of radial artery

38.

A thready pulse indicates:

4 lines
39.

A thready pulse indicates:

a)

Bounding volume

b)

Weak strength

c)

Regular rhythm

d)

Bradycardia

40.

Femoral pulse assessment is prioritized for:

a)

Evaluating leg circulation

b)

Infant heart rate

c)

Routine vital signs

d)

Exercise tolerance

41.

Cheyne-Stokes breathing is associated with:

a)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

Neurological injuries (e.g., stroke)

c)

Anxiety

d)

Asthma

42.

Hypoventilation results in:

a)

Hypoxemia without CO₂ change

b)

Hypercarbia (high CO₂)

c)

Alkalosis

d)

Increased oxygen saturation

43.

Kussmaul respirations are a sign of:

a)

Heart failure

b)

Metabolic acidosis (e.g., DKA)

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Pulmonary embolism

44.

The normal tidal volume for adults is approximately:

a)

1500 ml

b)

500 ml

c)

200 ml

d)

1000 ml

45.

Orthostatic hypotension is confirmed by a systolic BP drop of:

a)

≥20 mmHg

b)

5-10 mmHg

c)

30-40 mmHg

d)

No change; symptoms only

46.

Hypertension is diagnosed when:

a)

Diastolic ≥90 mmHg on two visits

b)

Systolic fluctuates by 10 mmHg

c)

Systolic >120 mmHg

d)

Pulse pressure >40 mmHg

47.

A Stage 3 pressure ulcer involves:

a)

Subcutaneous tissue

b)

Muscle or bone

c)

Epidermis only

d)

Epidermis and dermis

48.

Slough in a wound appears as:

a)

Purple discoloration

b)

Yellow/green necrotic tissue

c)

Fresh granulation tissue

d)

Black eschar

49.

The 'Rule of 30' for positioning includes:

a)

HOB elevation ≤30°

b)

Sitting upright for 30 minutes

c)

Elevating HOB to 45°

d)

Prone positioning

50.

Humidification during oxygen therapy prevents:

a)

Barotrauma

b)

Mucosal drying

c)

Oxygen toxicity

d)

Hyperventilation

51.

A Venturi mask is unique because it:

a)

Delivers 100% oxygen

b)

Provides precise oxygen concentrations

c)

Requires no humidification

d)

Is used for nebulization

52.

Rufaidah bint Saad is celebrated in nursing history for:

a)

Developing the nursing process

b)

Providing battlefield care in early Islam

c)

Writing the first nursing code of ethics

d)

Founding modern nursing education

53.

As a 'change agent,' the nurse:

a)

Reacts to policy changes

b)

Proactively initiates improvements

c)

Avoids interdisciplinary collaboration

d)

Focuses only on direct care

54.

Virginia Henderson's definition emphasizes:

a)

Hospital-based care

b)

Patient independence in self-care

c)

Physician-directed interventions

d)

Technological dependency

55.

For a tactile/kinesthetic learner, optimal teaching involves:

a)

Lectures

b)

Hands-on practice

c)

Reading assignments

d)

Diagrams

56.

Discharge teaching should avoid:

a)

Medical jargon

b)

Visual aids

c)

Family involvement

d)

Written instructions

57.

Isokinetic exercise is characterized by:

a)

Full joint range of motion

b)

Constant contraction speed (e.g., stationary bike)

c)

Muscle contraction without movement

d)

High-intensity intervals

58.

A key effect of immobility on the GI system is:

a)

Appetite stimulation

b)

Constipation

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Increased absorption

59.

Maslow's physiological needs include:

a)

Financial security

b)

Nutrition and hydration

c)

Social belonging

d)

Self-actualization

60.

WHO's primary mission is to:

a)

Manufacture vaccines

b)

Promote global health equity

c)

Certify nurses

d)

Regulate medical devices

61.

A 'profession' differs from a 'vocation' in that it requires:

a)

Manual labor

b)

University-level education

c)

Informal apprenticeships

d)

Short-term training

62.

The Pakistan Nursing Council (PNC) is responsible for:

a)

Hospital staffing

b)

Setting nursing curricula

c)

Pharmaceutical regulation

d)

Medical research

63.

Which nursing intervention best promotes venous return in immobile patients?

a)

Applying warm compresses

b)

Performing leg exercises regularly

c)

Elevating the head of bed

d)

Encouraging deep breathing

64.

The safest way to confirm NG tube placement at the bedside is:

a)

Asking the patient

b)

Injecting air and auscultating

c)

Testing pH of aspirate

d)

Measuring external length only

65.

Which lab value best reflects long-term glucose control?

a)

Random glucose

b)

HbA1c

c)

Fasting insulin

d)

Serum cortisol

66.

The primary purpose of proper hand hygiene is to:

a)

Maintain skin softness

b)

Prevent cross-infection

c)

Demonstrate professionalism

d)

Remove visible dirt only

67.

When administering ear drops to an adult, the pinna should be pulled:

a)

Upward and back

b)

Downward only

c)

Straight back

d)

Downward and back

68.

Which is a key sign of fluid volume deficit?

a)

Bounding pulse

b)

Postural hypotension

c)

Edema

d)

Crackles in lungs

69.

To maintain a sterile field, a nurse must avoid:

a)

Wearing gloves

b)

Opening items away from body

c)

Reaching over the sterile field

d)

Using sterile forceps

70.

The best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea is:

a)

High Fowler's position

b)

Supine

c)

Sims' position

d)

Trendelenburg

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