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Worksheets

MECHANIC 1

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The reference (station 0) for all structural measurements in the X axis is located:

a)

210.2 in.(5340mm) forward of the aircraft nose.

b)

251.2 in. (6382 mm) forward of the aircraft nose.

c)

100 in. (2540 mm) forward of the aircraft nose.

2.

The fuselage station number shows the distance of a cross section from X=0 is measured in:

a)

Inch

b)

Centimeter

c)

Millimeter

3.

Access doors and panels are identified by:

a)

Four-character code (3 digits of its zone and 1 letters)

b)

Five-character code (3 digits of its zone and 2 letters)

c)

Five-character code (2 letters and 3 digits of its zone)

4.

Aircraft Maintenance Configuration before you Lift the aircraft

a)

Remove the  wheel chocks  if they are in position, set the parking brake control switch to the OFF position

b)

Install the wheel chocks, set the parking brake control switch to OFF.

c)

Remove the wheel chocks if they are in position, set the parking brake control switch to ON.

5.

Aircraft Maintenance Configuration before you Lift the aircraft(A, B1, B2)

a)

Make sure that the passenger/crew doors and the cargo doors are: Closed and locked or fully open and locked.

b)

Make sure that the passenger/crew are closed and locked and cargo doors are Closed and locked or opened in vertical position

c)

Make sure that the passenger/crew doors and the cargo doors are: Closed and locked

6.

How many jack do you need to jack the aircraft:

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

7.

To prepare aircraft for lifting, before installing the jack pads you need

a)

Open 3 access panels and install jack pads

b)

Open 01 access panel for NLG jack pad only

c)

Open 02 access panels for MLG jack pads only

8.

When you jack aircraft for wheel change

a)

Loading/unloading or fueling operation are not allowed

b)

You can do loading/unloading or fueling operation

c)

You can only do fueling operation, loading/unloading is not allowed

9.

When you jack the MLG with two rear tires are deflated and two forward tires are inflated

a)

You can lift the forward axles as normal

b)

Put the  JACK - WHEEL CHANGE, MAIN/NOSE LANDING GEAR  in position on the side where the tires are deflated until the adapter touches the ball pad of the bogie

c)

Replace them before you lift the forward axles

10.

You can lift the two axles of the bogie beam of the same MLG at the same time

a)

No

b)

Yes, if you keep the bogie beam approximately level

c)

Yes, if the aircraft is stable.

11.

Before you tow the aircraft make sure that dimension H of the NLG is not more than.

a)

385mm

b)

310mm

c)

300mm

12.

The maximum permitted towing-angle on each side of the aircraft centerline is

a)

60 degrees

b)

72 degrees

c)

75 degrees

13.

If the passenger/crew doors are fully open and locked and/or the cargo doors are open in the vertical position

a)

You are not allow to tow the aircraft

b)

You can tow the aircraft with certain limited speed

c)

You can tow the aircraft with certain limited wind speed

14.

When towing by the NLG from the Front with a Towbar on Battery-Power Only, the maximum towing time is

a)

20 minutes

b)

25 minutes

c)

30 minutes

15.

When towing by the NLG from the Front with a Towbar on Battery-Power Only, which battery control aircraft braking

a)

BAT 1

b)

BAT 2

c)

EMER BAT 1 and EMER BAT 2

16.

You can tow an aircraft which has deflated tires in these conditions on the NLG

a)

Not more than one deflated tire

b)

Tow the aircraft with a towbar only

c)

Both of above

17.

You can tow an aircraft which has deflated tires in these conditions on the MLG

a)

Not more than three deflated tires on both MLGs

b)

Not more than one deflated tire on the same axle

c)

Both of above

18.

When you replace the wheel and tire assembly which has a deflated tire after towing

a)

You can replace the wheel and tire only

b)

You must also replace the adjacent wheel and tire assembly on the same axle

c)

You must also replace the adjacent wheel and tire assembly on the same MLG

19.

When you do pressure Refuel with Automatic Control from the Integrated Refuel Panel

a)

You can enter the Preselected Fuel Quantity (PFQ) through the Flight Management System (FMS).

b)

You cannot enter the Preselected Fuel Quantity (PFQ) through the Flight Management System (FMS).

c)

You can enter the Preselected Fuel Quantity (PFQ) through the Flight Management System (FMS) only when PFQ switch on IRP inoperative

20.

During pressure refuel, the maximum refuel pressure is limited to 3.4 BAR(50 PSI)

a)

To prevent from causing damage to the aircraft fuel system

b)

To limit the fuel flow into the tank

c)

To prevent from closing the refuel isolation valve by FQMS.

21.

You can use air for the servicing of the tires

a)

No

b)

Yes, if the oxygen in the tires is not more than 5% of volume

c)

Yes, if maintenance personnel remove the air from the tire(s) and inflate the tire(s) with dry nitrogen before 24 hours' time service.

22.

AIRBUS recommends that when you inflate the tires, you use the maximum normal pressure (given in the table).

a)

This is necessary to keep tire will not be worn on the shoulder.

b)

This is necessary to keep tire inflation to a minimum.

c)

This is necessary to keep tire inflation to a maximum.

23.

Procedure when you filling of the Pneumatic Starter

a)

Fill the engine oil at a rate of 4 strokes per minute for up to 9 strokes. Then fill at a rate of 1 stroke per minute until the engine oil starts to spill from the overfill port

b)

Fill the engine oil at a rate of 4 strokes per minute until the oil starts to spill from the overfill port

c)

Fill the engine oil at a rate of 9 stroke per minute until the oil starts to spill from the overfill port

24.

AWG means

a)

Wire size

b)

Wire Resistance

c)

Aircraft Wiring Guide

25.

In General case, Wire P/N Identification:

a)

Standard P/N + Wire type code + Wire gauge.

b)

Standard P/N + Code letter for number of cores + Wire gauge.

c)

Standard P/N + Wire gauge + Insulation color code

26.

If you find an unsatisfactory cable in a fuel tank:

a)

Do repair unsatisfactory cable.

b)

Replace it with new one that has the same P/N.

c)

Do repair unsatisfactory cable Or replace it with new one that has the same P/N.

27.

Continuity Test of an Aircraft Wire, you can do Continuity test:

a)

with aircraft wire connected to a grounding point.

b)

with an extension wire.

c)

with aircraft wire connected to a grounding point Or with an extension wire.

28.

Tools required to make a contact at a wire end are

a)

Striping tool and crimping tool

b)

crimping tool and insert/extract tool

c)

Striping tool and insert/extract tool

29.

What is operation you should not do in storm condition?

a)

refuel/ defuel operation.

b)

refuel/ defuel operation and use headset to communicate with flight deck from ground connection

c)

use headset to communicate with flight deck from ground connection

30.

To do a check of the insulation test, you must you:

a)

MEGOHMMETER.

b)

OHMMETER

c)

None specific

31.

What does this symbol mean?

a)

Handle with care

b)

Electrostatic Discharge Sensitive Devices

c)

Don't touch it

32.

The Trim Air Valve can be manually Positioned and locked

a)

Yes, can be manually positioned and locked 3 positions(Closed, LO, HI Pos)

b)

Yes, Locked 2 positions(Closed, Opened)

c)

Yes, Locked 2 Positions(Closed, LO Position)

33.

For Filling SCS which purpose of the Interconnection Cable to connect between Ground Service Panel and Ground Service Equipment

a)

Supply Electrical power for SCS

b)

Set the SCS from Standby to Servicing Mode

c)

Supply Electrical Power for Ground Service Equipment

34.

Which purpose of nitrogen supply to SCS Ground Service Equipment when filling SCS(A, B1, B2)

a)

Supply nitrogen for Accumulator of SCS

b)

Using nitrogen Pressure to pressurized filling system

c)

Using nitrogen pressure to push SCS coolant in hose return to Ground Service EquipmentTank

35.

On the overhead reset panel, when you pull PACK1 (2) Reset Pushbutton this mean reset which(A, B1, B2)

a)

ASCU1(2)

b)

ASCU1(2) and relate ACS application in CPIOM

c)

ASCU1(2) and ACU1(2)

36.

For quickly control Pack Outlet Temperature, which component main control by ACSU(A, B1, B2)

a)

RAM Air inlet Door Actuator and Ram Air Outlet Door Actuator

b)

Temp control Valve

c)

Temp Control Valve and Pack Discharge Heating-Valve

37.

Which purpose of the Pack Discharge Heating Valve(A, B1, B2)

a)

Add more hot air for increase temperature of pack outlet

b)

Minimum humid and also decrease ice build up

c)

Stop supply from pack when pack overheat

38.

For control temperature of pack outlet, which component using by ACSU to get lowest temp demand in mixer(A, B1, B2)

a)

Water extractor temperature-sensor and pack discharge temperature-sensor.

b)

Pack discharge Temperature sensor and compressor pack discharge sensor

c)

Main Heat exchangerOutlet Temp Sensor and Pack Discharge

39.

Relate to ASCU? Which answers follow is correct(A, B1, B2)

a)

ASCU is dual Channel controller, one channel in active mode, one in standby mode

b)

Each ASCU control related Pack

c)

Each ASCU Channel control one FCV

d)

All Above

40.

Which component take important data for ACSU control pack outlet temperature(A, B1, B2)

a)

Pack discharge temperature Sensor

b)

Compressor Discharge Temperature-Sensor

c)

Water Extractor Temperature-Sensor

41.

In flight if packs overheat(A, B1, B2)

a)

Pack auto shutdown for prevent damaged component

b)

Pack will continue to operated

c)

Depend A/C Attitude

42.

Related to Cockpit Seats. Which answers follow corrected? (A, B1, B2)

a)

Two symmetrical seats, third occupant with a mechanical control, fourth occupant without adjustment

b)

Two symmetrical seats,third and fourth occupant with a mechanical control

c)

Two symmetrical seats with electrical and mechanical control, third occupant with a mechanical control, fourth occupant withoutadjustment

43.

Third Occupant Seat has:(A, B1, B2)

a)

Only mechanical controls

b)

Mechanical controls and electrical controls.

c)

Only electrical controls.

44.

The side stick armrests (Captain and First Officer seats) are:(A, B1, B2)

a)

Symmetrical for the Captain and First Officer

b)

Asymmetrical for the Captain and First Officer.

c)

Interchangeable for the Captain and First Officer.

45.

The captain and First Officer Seat Backrest adjusment(Recline Function) by..?(A, B1, B2)

a)

Mechanical

b)

Electrical

c)

Electrical and Mechanical

46.

Lavatory Door(s) can be:(A, B1, B2)

a)

Unlocked and opened from the outside of the lavatory.

b)

Unlocked and opened from the insideside of the lavatory only.

c)

Locked from the outside of the lavatory.

47.

Which type follow for LAV Door? (A, B1, B2)

a)

Single Door and Double Door

b)

Single Door and Bi Folding Door

c)

All Above

48.

Which area you has LAV can using for Wheelchair?(A, B1, B2)

a)

In MID AFT Cabin Area(Door 3)

b)

In AFR Cabin Area(Door 4)

c)

In FWD Cabin Area(Door 1)

49.

How many position for Cockpit Sliding Table?(A, B1, B2)

a)

Stowed, Deployed with two position

b)

Stowed and Deployed at one position

c)

Deployed with two position

50.

Cockpit escape Hatch can manually open it from…?(A, B1, B2)

a)

From outside and inside A/C

b)

Only from inside A/C

c)

From outside and inside A/C with standard tool

51.

How many evacuation path to escape from cockpit in an emergency?(A, B1, B2)

a)

through the cockpit door

b)

through the cockpit door and escape hatch, slide window

c)

through the cockpit door and escape hatch

52.

Related to Extended Range Operations for Two-Engine Aeroplanes (ETOPS), which answer corrected?(A, B1, B2)

a)

Size of the two fire extinguishing bottle different

b)

Size of the fire extinguishing bottle 2 different

c)

Not Related to fire extinguishing bottle

53.

Which area in a/c to protect for Fire and Overheat? (A, B1, B2)

a)

Engines, APU

b)

Engines, APU, MLG Bay

c)

Engines, APU, MLG Bay, Cabin, Cargo

54.

Which the Function of the Conversion Module? (A, B1, B2)

a)

Change the analog signals to digital signals

b)

Supply Electrical Power to Fire Loop

c)

exchange data to monitor the fire detectors

55.

How to test smoke system?(A, B1, B2)

a)

Perform test thought OMT

b)

Push Smoke Test Pushbutton on Overhead panel

c)

Both above

56.

When you Push and Hold Fire Test Pushbutton on the overhead panel, on the FIRE section of panel 245VM, that mean?(A, B1, B2)

a)

Operational check of MLG-BAY, APU and Engine Fire Protection System

b)

Operational Check of APU or Engine Fire Protection System

c)

Operational Check of APU, Engine Fire Protection System and Cargo Fire Protection System

57.

In the conventional servo control actuator(A, B1, B2)

a)

The servo valve decides the direction and movement speed of actuator

b)

The rotation direction and rotation speed of the pump decide the direction and movement speed of actuator

c)

The servo valve or the pump will decide the direction and movement speed of actuator

58.

In the EHA(electro hydraulic actuator)(A, B1, B2)

a)

The servo valve decides the direction and movement speed of actuator

b)

The rotation direction and rotation speed of the pump decide the direction and movement speed of actuator

c)

The servo valve or the pump will decide the direction and movement speed of actuator

59.

In the EBHA(A, B1, B2)

a)

The servo valve decides the direction and movement speed of actuator

b)

The rotation direction and rotation speed of the pump decide the direction and movement speed of actuator

c)

The servo valve or the pump will decide the direction and movement speed of actuator

60.

Which control surfaces can be actuated by EHA(A, B1, B2)

a)

Inboard ailerons, outboard ailerons, elevators, rudder

b)

Inboard ailerons, outboard ailerons, elevators, rudder, spoilers

c)

Inboard ailerons, elevators, rudder

61.

Which control surfaces are actuated by EBHA(A, B1, B2)

a)

Inboard ailerons, elevators, rudder

b)

Rudders, elevators

c)

Spoilers number 05

62.

The normal control laws supply protections:(A, B1, B2)

a)

Load factor protection, angle of attack protection, high speed protection, bank angle protection

b)

Load factor protection, angle of attack protection, low speed protection, bank angle protection

c)

Load factor protection, angle of attack protection, low speed protection, high speed protection, bank angle protection

63.

All PRIMs are available and PRIM1 is master(A, B1, B2)

a)

Only PRIM1 make the computation for orders and sends to other flight control computers.

b)

All flight control computers make the computation but only PRIM1 sends order to other control computers.

c)

Flight control computers do not in charge of computing order.

64.

How PRIMs consolidate data from ADIRU(A, B1, B2)

a)

They make comparison data from ADIRU with ISIS and RGAUs

b)

They make comparison data from ADIRU with ISIS and 4th AOA probe, RGAUs

c)

They make comparison data from ADIRU with ISIS and 4th AOA probe

65.

The roll control is performed by(A, B1, B2)

a)

The ailerons, the spoilers 4 to 7

b)

The ailerons, the rudder, the spoiler 4 to 7

c)

The ailerons, the spoiler 3 to 7

66.

In normal operation each outboard aileron is actuated (A, B1, B2)

a)

By two servo controls in active mode at the same time

b)

By two servo controls, one servo control in active mode and the other in soft damping mode

c)

By two servo controls, one servo control in active mode and the other in hard damping mode

67.

In normal operation, the inboard aileron is operated by(A, B1, B2)

a)

The servo-control in active mode, the EHA in hard damping mode

b)

The servo-control in active mode, the EHA in soft damping mode

c)

The servo-control in hard damping mode, the EHA in active mode

68.

If one servo-control actuator of rudder fails(A, B1, B2)

a)

Both servo-control actuators operate in the damping mode, The EHA becomes active

b)

The fail one will in damping mode, the remain servo and EHA are in active mode

c)

EHA is in active mode, both servo-control actuators operate in hard damping during cruise, soft damping in take-off and landing

69.

PDFU is linked to the rudder pedals

a)

Provides pilot feel with resistance  related to A/C speed

b)

Provides pilot feel with resistance related to pedals moving speed

c)

Provides pilot feel with resistance related to A/C altitude

70.

The force that pilots need to move the rudder pedals is(A, B1, B2)

a)

Created by pedal damper and friction unit( PDFU), and pedal feel and trim unit ( PFTU)

b)

Controlled by PRIMs through PDFU and PFTU

c)

Proportional to A/C speed

71.

The computers control the trim motors inside PFTU

a)

a.      SEC1, SEC2, SEC3

b)

b.     SEC2, SEC3

c)

c.      PRIM2, SEC2, PRIM3, SEC3

72.

The rudder trim control panel (selector and reset pushbutton) is inhibited(A, B1, B2)

a)

When AP is engaged.

b)

In cruise

c)

In descent

73.

De-trim function activated(A, B1, B2)

a)

When auto trim THS lost, the pitch trim switches can control the elevators

b)

To inhibit the controlling THS from pitch trim switches when A/C in flight

c)

To enable pitch trim switches take over control THS from EMCUs( electric motor control unit)

74.

If one stabilizer electrical motor inoperative(A, B1, B2)

a)

The THS actuator moves at haft speed

b)

The THS actuator moving speed does not change

c)

The THS actuator will be locked

75.

When all PRIMs and SECs cannot control THS

a)

a.      The signal from pitch trim switches sent EMCU to trim THS

b)

b.     The signal from pitch trim switches sent directly to THS motor for pitch trim function

c)

c.      The signal from pitch trim switches sent to BCM to trim Elevator

76.

Two Power Off Brake of electric motors that installed on gear box of THS actuator(A, B1, B2)

a)

Both must be released for normal operation of THS

b)

One released is enough for normal operation of THS

c)

None of above

77.

The speed brakes are automatically retracted(A, B1, B2)

a)

If the thrust levers are applied above Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT)

b)

If the stall protection is activated

c)

If the thrust levers are applied above Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) or the stall protection is activated

78.

The operation modes of spoiler servo-controls (A, B1, B2)

a)

The active mode, damping mode

b)

The active mode, maintenance mode

c)

The active mode, anti-extension mode, maintenance mode

79.

If engine fan cowls were opened(A, B1, B2)

a)

slat extension is inhibited

b)

slat extension can be carried out with observation from ground

c)

slat retraction happen normally

80.

Centre tank is designed with the forward extends out to engine

a)

a.      To create an aerodynamic shape.

b)

b.     To enlarge its capacity.

c)

c.      To protect the outer tank if the engine parts fall out during flight.

81.

How the collector boxes maintain fuel for feeding the wing pumps(A, B1, B2)

a)

Fuel from outer tank flows into collector box by gravity.

b)

The clack valves fitted in collector box let fuel only flow into from the outer tank.

c)

Both of above.

82.

If fuel gets into the vent surge tank(A, B1, B2)

a)

It drains back to wing tank through non-return valve.

b)

It is sucked to wing tank by jet pump.

c)

Air pressure on the surge tank will push the fuel back to wing tank.

83.

If the tank venting system fail to work what can happen(A, B1, B2)

a)

Damage to the tank and aircraft structure due to differential pressure between outside and inside the tanks.

b)

Fuelling may not carry out.

c)

Both of above.

84.

Vent pipe of centre tank goes (A, B1, B2)

a)

To the left vent surge tank.

b)

To the right vent surge tank.

c)

To both sides vent surges tank.

85.

The structure of fuel quantity management system(A, B1, B2)

a)

With the computer FQMS, it does the measurement, management and monitoring.

b)

With in-tank equipment, TWDCs, IRP, software in CPIOMs.

c)

Both of above.

86.

Overflow and low level signal shown on CDS(A, B1, B2)

a)

Normally sent from FQMS software in CPIOMs to AFDX network then to CDS.

b)

Can be sent directly from TWDC to network then to CDS for back up.

c)

Both of above.

87.

FQMS side one and side two change over(A, B1, B2)

a)

After landing gear lever moves away from the down position.

b)

When landing gears up and locked.

c)

When condition of the active side becomes worse than the standby side

88.

The Tank Wall Data Concentrator has function(A, B1, B2)

a)

Calculate fuel quantity and send to CDS.

b)

Calculate fuel quantity as back up and shown on IRP when GFLI function selected.

c)

Interface between FQMS and CDS.

89.

IRP is powered (A, B1, B2)

a)

When A/C energized and IRP access panel is opened.

b)

A/C energized and refuel mode is selected from cockpit.

c)

When BAT1 pushbutton on Electrical panel is pushed.

90.

Water-scavenge jet pump operates(A, B1, B2)

a)

As electrical pump.

b)

By using motive pressure from related engine feed pump.

c)

By using motive motion from related engine feed pump shaft.

91.

Water-scavenge jet pump function(A, B1, B2)

a)

To prevent large quantity of water at the bottom the tank.

b)

To keeps the unusable fuel in tank to a minimum

c)

Both of above.

92.

The center pump is being inoperative, it will auto stop when(A, B1, B2)

a)

Slat/flap not at zero position

b)

Centre tank gets low level.

c)

All of above.

93.

Can the center pumps run independently from FQMS(A, B1, B2)

a)

No

b)

Yes with center pump pushbutton and center pump manual override pushbutton are pushed.

c)

Yes if The flaps/slats control lever is set to the ZERO position

94.

The cross feed valves open automatically when(A, B1, B2)

a)

A/C in electric emergency configuration which lets to shut off right wing pumps for saving electrical power.

b)

The A/C altitude higher than a specific value at which the air resistance is low

c)

Sum of both conditions above.

95.

How many fuel cross feed valves(A, B1, B2)

a)

One

b)

Two in parallel.

c)

Two in series.

96.

Indication on cross feed valve pushbutton when they are selected open automatically.(A, B1, B2)

a)

The ON lights are off and OPEN lights are green.

b)

The ON light are on and the OPEN lights are off

c)

The ON lights are one and OPEN lights are green.

97.

The cross feed valve can be deactivated (A, B1, B2)

a)

In close position.

b)

In open position.

c)

Either in close or open position.

98.

Standby pumps are designed to run automatically (A, B1, B2)

a)

When main fuel pump changes to low pressure.

b)

5 minutes auto running for testing on ground when pushbutton are pushed in.

c)

Both of above.

99.

Fuel scavenge valve will close in cases(A, B1, B2)

a)

Centre tank is empty in flight

b)

Fuel in Wing tanks are above low level

c)

Either above

100.

APU is running, the APU fuel pump will be off(A, B1, B2)

a)

When fuel pressure from engine gallery sufficient.

b)

When fuel pressure from engine gallery insufficient.

c)

APU vent pushbutton is pressed.

101.

With the APU "feed line damage wires" damaged(A, B1, B2)

a)

The APU isolation valve and low pressure valve will close

b)

The APU fuel pump is not affected, it continues running

c)

The APU isolation valve, low pressure valve will close and APU pump will stop.

102.

The " Ready to refuel" light, adjacent to refuel/defuel coupling comes on (A, B1, B2)

a)

When the cockpits refuel is selected.

b)

When the mode selector is selected to auto refuel position.

c)

When the IRP access panel is opened.

103.

The refuel isolation valve (A, B1, B2)

a)

Electrical controlled and fuel pressure operated

b)

Controlled from a manual override button and operated by fuel pressure.

c)

Either above.

104.

Gravity fuel transfer from wing tank to center tank(A, B1, B2)

a)

By opening inlet valves of wing tank and center tank

b)

By opening the inlet valve of center tank and keep inlet valve of wing tank close.

c)

By releasing the L(R) TK XFR pushbutton.