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Diagnostician Prep Questions

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The IDEA Act identifies _____ disability conditions

a)

10

b)

13

c)

12

d)

14

2.

What are the 13 disability conditions for which a student may be considered eligible to receive SPED services?

a)

SLD, SI, AU OHI, ID, ED Noncategorical Early childhood, Auditory Impairment, Blind/Visual Impairment, Orthopedic Impairment, Traumatic Brain Injury, and Deaf/Blind

b)

SLD, SI, AU OHI, ID, ED Noncategorical Early childhood, Auditory Impairment, ADHD, Orthopedic Impairment, Traumatic Brain Injury, and Deaf/Blind

c)

Dyslexia, SI, AU OHI, ID, ED Noncategorical Early childhood, Auditory Impairment, Blind/Visual Impairment, Orthopedic Impairment, Sleeping Problems, and Deaf/Blind

d)

SLD, SI, AU OHI, ID, ED Dyslexia, Basic Reading disability, Math Calculation, Dysgraphia, ADHD, and Medical issues

3.

What determines a child eligible for special education services as a student with SLD?

a)

must be 3 yrs of age to begin services

Qualify for dyslexia and dysgraphia

b)

meet TEA requirements for having a disability

Show that they meet 2 or more disabilities

c)

meet the criteria for the condition of SLD

Demonstrate an educational need for SPED services because of the disability

d)

meet district criteria for having a disability

Have a family history of disabilities

4.

What are 3 Areas of Inadequate Achievements?

a)

Oral Expression

b)

Listening Comprehension

c)

Auditory Learning

d)

Written Expression

e)

Sensory Learning

5.

What are 3 Areas of Inadequate Achievements?

a)

Basic Reading Skill

b)

Basic Spelling Skill

c)

Reading Fluency Skill

d)

Reading Comprehension

e)

Basic Communication Skill

6.

What are 3 Areas of Inadequate Achievements?

a)

Basic Math Skill

b)

Math Calculation

c)

Written Expression

d)

Mathematics Problem Solving

e)

Basic Phonemic Skill

7.

What are the 4 measures to determine achievement?

a)

Informal

b)

Norm-Referenced

c)

Curriculum-Based

d)

Criterion-Referenced

e)

Formal-Based

8.

Which of the Multiple Measures uses the following to determine Achievement:

  • - Referral Data

  • - Record Review

  • - Vision/Hearing Screening

    • - Work Samples

    • - Parent Info./ Interview

    • - Teacher Info. / Interview

    • - School/Home Observations

a)

Informal

b)

Norm-Referenced

c)

Curriculum-Based

d)

Criterion-Referenced

9.

Which of the Multiple Measures uses the following to determine Achievement:

  • - Teacher-made / Textbook Quiz

  • - District Benchmarks

  • - Curriculum Based Measurement (CBM)

  • - Running Records

  • - Progress Monitoring

  • - Universal Screeners

a)

Informal

b)

Norm-Referenced

c)

Curriculum-Based

d)

Criterion-Referenced

10.

Which of the Multiple Measures uses the following to determine Achievement:

  • - Standardized Measurements

  • - Achievement Tests

  • - Cognitive Tests

  • - Developmental Measures

  • Specialized Measures

a)

Informal

b)

Norm-Referenced

c)

Curriculum-Based

d)

Criterion-Referenced

11.

Which of the Multiple Measures uses the following to determine Achievement:

  • - State Assessments (STAAR, ITBS, TELPAS)

  • - Universal Screeners

  • - Advanced placement tests

  • - College Readiness Exams (SAT, ACT)

a)

Informal

b)

Norm-Referenced

c)

Curriculum-Based

d)

Criterion-Referenced

12.

Which of the Multiple Measures identifies student's strengths and needs WITHOUT norms?

a)

Informal Measures

b)

Norm-Referenced

c)

Curriculum-Based

d)

Criterion-Referenced

13.

Which of the Multiple Measures identifies student's performance level within the taught curriculum?

a)

Informal Measures

b)

Norm-Referenced

c)

Curriculum-Based

d)

Criterion-Referenced

14.

Which of the Multiple Measures identifies student's performance level in relation to specific tasks or expectations?

a)

Informal Measures

b)

Norm-Referenced

c)

Curriculum-Based

d)

Criterion-Referenced

15.

Which of the Multiple Measures identifies student's strengths and weaknesses compared to groups of students their same AGE or GRADE?

a)

Informal Measures

b)

Norm-Referenced

c)

Curriculum-Based

d)

Criterion-Referenced

16.

In order for a student to be considered for an evaluation, they must demonstrate:

a)

insufficient response to scientific, research-based intervention (RTI)

b)

Have a failing grade in any 2 classes

c)

exhibit a pattern of strengths and weaknesses (PSW)

d)

Have a history of SLD in the family

17.

__________ is a disorder manifested by a difficulty in learning to read, write, or spell despite conventional instruction, adequate intelligence, and sociocultural opportunity.

a)

Basic Reading Skill

b)

Dysgraphia

c)

Reading Comprehension

d)

Dyslexia

18.

An SLD with deficits in handwriting, writing fluency, written expression, spelling, letter formation, and orthographic awareness.

a)

Dyslexia

b)

Dysgraphia

c)

Orthographic Processing

d)

Dyscalculia

19.

What Cognitive Ability Factor is Gc?

a)

Reading Comprehension

b)

Comprehension-Knowledge ( Crystallized Intelligence)

c)

Calculation Knowledge

d)

Curriculum Knowledge

20.

What Cognitive Ability Factor is Glr?

a)

Long-Term Retrieval

b)

Short-Term Retrieval

c)

General Memory

d)

Listening Retrieval

21.

What Cognitive Ability Factor is Gsm/Gwm?

a)

Long-Term Retrieval

b)

Short-Term Working Memory

c)

General Memory

d)

Listening Retrieval

22.

What Cognitive Ability Factor is Gf?

a)

Reading Fluency

b)

Fact Frequency

c)

Filtering Memory

d)

Fluid Reasoning

23.

What Cognitive Ability Factor is Ga?

a)

Addition Fluency

b)

Auditory Processing

c)

Adequate Memory

d)

Achievement Processing

24.

What Cognitive Ability Factor is Gs?

a)

Processing Speed

b)

Sensory Skills

c)

Spelling Speed

d)

Reading Speed

25.

What Cognitive Ability Factor is Gv?

a)

Vision Accuracy

b)

Velocity of Processing

c)

Visual Processing

d)

Volume Processing

26.

The ability to apprehend and hold information in one's mind and then use it within a few seconds. Ability to attend to, process, and respond to information.

a)

Gc Comprehension Knowledge (Crystallized Intelligence)

b)

Glr

Long-Term Retrieval

c)

Gsm/Gwm

Short-Term Working Memory

d)

Gf

Fluid Reasoning

e)

Ga

Auditory Processing

27.

A person's level of acquired knowledge, including domain knowledge obtained through life experiences, school, and work.

a)

Gc Comprehension Knowledge (Crystallized Intelligence)

b)

Glr

Long-Term Retrieval

c)

Gsm/Gwm

Short-Term Working Memory

d)

Gf

Fluid Reasoning

e)

Ga

Auditory Processing

28.

Ability to perceive, analyze, and synthesize patterns among sounds and to discriminate subtle nuances in patterns of sound and speech when presented under distortion conditions.

a)

Gc Comprehension Knowledge (Crystallized Intelligence)

b)

Glr

Long-Term Retrieval

c)

Gsm/Gwm

Short-Term Working Memory

d)

Gf

Fluid Reasoning

e)

Ga

Auditory Processing

29.

Ability to take and store a variety of info (ideas, names, concepts) in one's mind, then later retrieve it quickly and easily using association.

a)

Gc Comprehension Knowledge (Crystallized Intelligence)

b)

Glr

Long-Term Retrieval

c)

Gsm/Gwm

Short-Term Working Memory

d)

Gf

Fluid Reasoning

e)

Ga

Auditory Processing

30.

The type of thinking an individual may use when faced with a relatively new task that cannot be performed automatically; a problem solving type of intelligence.

a)

Gc Comprehension Knowledge (Crystallized Intelligence)

b)

Glr

Long-Term Retrieval

c)

Gsm/Gwm

Short-Term Working Memory

d)

Gf

Fluid Reasoning

e)

Ga

Auditory Processing

31.

The ability to fluently and automatically perform cognitive tasks, especially when under pressure to maintain focused attention and concentration.

a)

Gc Comprehension Knowledge (Crystallized Intelligence)

b)

Gs

Processing Speed

c)

Gsm/Gwm

Short-Term Working Memory

d)

Gf

Fluid Reasoning

e)

Gv

Visual Processing

32.

The ability to think about and generate, perceive, analyze, synthesize, store, retrieve, manipulate, transform, and think with visual patterns and stimuli.

a)

Gc Comprehension Knowledge (Crystallized Intelligence)

b)

Gs

Processing Speed

c)

Gsm/Gwm

Short-Term Working Memory

d)

Gf

Fluid Reasoning

e)

Gv

Visual Processing

33.

Interventions for Gc deficit (Pick all that apply)

a)

Create a language and experience rich environment

b)

Relate new info to prior knowledge

c)

Provide explicit vocabulary instruction

d)

Provide flash cards for developing recall speed

e)

Provide raised lines to improve handwriting

34.

Interventions for Glr deficit (Pick all that apply)

a)

Teach memory aids such as mnemonic strategies

b)

Provide overlearning through review and repetition

c)

Create a language rich environment

d)

Provide text to speech

e)

Provide list of steps to help organize behavior and facilitate recall

35.

Interventions for Gsm/ Gwm deficit (Pick all that apply)

a)

Teach strategies such as chunking, verbal rehearsal, and visual imagery

b)

Provide overlearning through review and repetition

c)

Keep oral directions short and simple

d)

Provide decoding strategies

e)

Provide visual aids

36.

Interventions for Gf deficit (Pick all that apply)

a)

Teach strategies such as chunking, verbal rehearsal, and visual imagery

b)

Provide overlearning through review and repetition

c)

Use concrete objects and manipulatives to develop conceptual understanding

d)

Provide decoding strategies

e)

Use graphic organizers to analyze relationships

37.

Interventions for Gf deficit (Pick all that apply)

a)

Teach strategies such as chunking, verbal rehearsal, and visual imagery

b)

Provide overlearning through review and repetition

c)

Use concrete objects and manipulatives to develop conceptual understanding

d)

Provide decoding strategies

e)

Use graphic organizers to analyze relationships

38.

Interventions for Ga deficit (Pick all that apply)

a)

Teach strategies such as chunking, verbal rehearsal, and visual imagery

b)

Provide direct, explicit instructions in sounds discrimination, blending, and segmentation

c)

Use concrete objects and manipulatives to develop conceptual understanding

d)

Provide phonological awareness activities (rhyming, imitation, songs)

e)

Accompany oral info with visual materials (notes, study guides)

39.

Interventions for Gs deficit (Pick all that apply)

a)

Provide activities to increase rate and fluency (flash cards, speed drills through educational software)

b)

Encourage student to self-monitor progress using graphs for reading fluency, writing fluency, and math computation

c)

Use concrete objects and manipulatives to develop conceptual understanding

d)

Provide phonological awareness activities (rhyming, imitation, songs)

e)

Accompany oral info with visual materials (notes, study guides)

40.

Interventions for Gv deficit (Pick all that apply)

a)

Teach orthographic strategies for decoding

b)

Use manipulatives and hands-on activites during instruction

c)

Provide copying, tracing, and drawing activities

d)

Use color coding to illustrate steps

e)

Provide oral explanations for visual concepts

41.

Provide notice of action for all referrals not later than the _____ school day after the date the district receives the request.

a)

17th

b)

10th

c)

15th

d)

30th

42.

Conduct and complete a comprehensive evaluation and written report of full and individual initial evaluation (FIIE) by the _____________.

a)

45th school day

b)

45th calendar day

c)

30th school day

d)

30th calendar day

43.

Provide Notice of Admission Review and Dismissal (ARD) Committee Meeting by the ________.

a)

45th school day

b)

45th calendar day

c)

30th school day

d)

30th calendar day

44.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Short Instructions

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

45.

Identify the type of accommodation for: In class Time-out

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

46.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Highlighted materials for emphasis

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

47.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Audiobooks

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

48.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Oral Exams

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

49.

Identify the type of accommodation for: ESL materials

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

50.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Opportunity to leave class for individualized assistance

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

51.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Small group test administration

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

52.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Transition to next class 5 min before bell

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

53.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Extra Time for completing assignments

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

54.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Braille materials

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

55.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Oral administration of tests

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

56.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Extra time for oral responses

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

57.

Identify the type of accommodation for: dictate answers to a scribe

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

58.

Identify the type of accommodation for: seat near teacher for instruction

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

59.

Identify the type of accommodation for: Highlighted information

a)

Response/Presentation Accommodation

b)

Timing Accommodation

c)

Formatting Accommodation

d)

Setting Accommodation

e)

Scheduling Accommodation

60.

Categorize the research-based strategy to its disability: LANGUAGE AND COMMUNICATION NEEDS

a)

Autism Strategies

b)

Deaf/Hard of hearing strategies

c)

Blind/ Visually Impaired strategies

61.

Categorize the research-based strategy to its disability: READING AND WRITING INSTRUCTION BRAILLE

a)

Autism Strategies

b)

Deaf/Hard of hearing strategies

c)

Blind/ Visually Impaired strategies

62.

Categorize the research-based strategy to its disability: EXTENDED EDUCATIONAL PROGRAM

a)

Autism Strategies

b)

Deaf/Hard of hearing strategies

c)

Blind/ Visually Impaired strategies

63.

Categorize the research-based strategy to its disability: ORIENTATION AND MOBILITY INSTRUCTION

a)

Autism Strategies

b)

Deaf/Hard of hearing strategies

c)

Blind/ Visually Impaired strategies

64.

Categorize the research-based strategy to its disability: OPPORTUNITIES FOR DIRECT COMMUNICATION WITH PEERS AND PROFESSIONAL PERSONNEL IN CHILD'S LANGUAGE AND MODE OF COMMUNICATION

a)

Autism Strategies

b)

Deaf/Hard of hearing strategies

c)

Blind/ Visually Impaired strategies

65.

Categorize the research-based strategy to its disability: SENSORY EFFICIENCY

a)

Autism Strategies

b)

Deaf/Hard of hearing strategies

c)

Blind/ Visually Impaired strategies

66.

Categorize the research-based strategy to its disability: SOCIAL SKILLS AND SUPPORT STRATEGIES

a)

Autism Strategies

b)

Deaf/Hard of hearing strategies

c)

Blind/ Visually Impaired strategies

67.

Categorize the research-based strategy to its disability: AT, INCLUDING OPTICAL DEVICES

a)

Autism Strategies

b)

Deaf/Hard of hearing strategies

c)

Blind/ Visually Impaired strategies

68.

A school district must have established procedures that are in place to allow parties to resolve disputes through a mediation process.

a)
True
b)
False
69.

Mediation discussion can be used as evidence in a due process hearing.

a)
True
b)
False
70.

The LEA bears the cost of the mediation process.

a)
True
b)
False
71.

Mediation is conducted by a qualified and impartial school official.

a)
True
b)
False
72.

Mediation is voluntary on the part of both parties, the session is scheduled in a timely manner, and the location is convenient for both parties.

a)
True
b)
False
73.

The individual who serves as the mediator may NOT be an employee of the SEA or LEA.

a)
True
b)
False
74.

The State MUST maintain a list of individuals who are qualified mediators knowledgeable in laws and regulations relating to the provisions of special education and related services.

a)
True
b)
False
75.

The LEA and parent jointly select mediators on a random, rational, or other impartial basis.

a)
True
b)
False
76.

A copy of the Notice of Procedural Safeguards must be provided to the parent: upon a school district initiated referral for an initial evaluation

a)
True
b)
False
77.

A copy of the Notice of Procedural Safeguards must be provided to the parent: at every ARD meeting in a given school year.

a)
True
b)
False
78.

A copy of the Notice of Procedural Safeguards must be provided to the parent: at least once a year which is typically the annual ARD meeting.

a)
True
b)
False
79.

A copy of the Notice of Procedural Safeguards must be provided to the parent: on the day a decision is made to make a disciplinary change of placement.

a)
True
b)
False
80.

A copy of the Notice of Procedural Safeguards must be provided to the parent: at the beginning of each semester of the school year.

a)
True
b)
False
81.

For a 2.5 year old child in ECI, based on Federal regulations, when must a meeting be scheduled to help the family and student transition from ECI (part C) to special education services (part B) provided by the school district?

a)

45 school days for the evaluation and 30 days for the ARD meeting to determine eligibility

b)

Due to the student receiving services under Part C, the timeline is 90 school days before the student turns 3

c)

The timeline for the meeting is 90 calendar days before the student turns 3.

82.

According to federal and state law, what is the maximum number of consecutive days that a student with disabilities, who has violated school rules, may be removed from their current placement and receive no educational services?

a)

3 school days

b)

5 school days

c)

10 school days

d)

15 calendar days

83.

Identify the appropriate ability classification for each narrow ability: Number Facility (N)

a)

Ga

Auditory Processing

b)

Glr

Long-Term Storage and Retrieval

c)

Gs

Processing Speed

84.

Identify the appropriate ability classification for each narrow ability: Naming Facility (NA)

a)

Ga

Auditory Processing

b)

Glr

Long-Term Storage and Retrieval

c)

Gs

Processing Speed

85.

Identify the appropriate ability classification for each narrow ability: Rate of Test Taking (R9)

a)

Ga

Auditory Processing

b)

Glr

Long-Term Storage and Retrieval

c)

Gs

Processing Speed

86.

Identify the appropriate ability classification for each narrow ability: Meaningful Memory (MM)

a)

Ga

Auditory Processing

b)

Glr

Long-Term Storage and Retrieval

c)

Gs

Processing Speed

87.

Identify the appropriate ability classification for each narrow ability: Perceptual Speed (P)

a)

Ga

Auditory Processing

b)

Glr

Long-Term Storage and Retrieval

c)

Gs

Processing Speed

88.

Identify the appropriate ability classification for each narrow ability: Associative Memory (MA)

a)

Ga

Auditory Processing

b)

Glr

Long-Term Storage and Retrieval

c)

Gs

Processing Speed

89.

Identify the appropriate ability classification for each narrow ability: Phonetic Coding (PC)

a)

Ga

Auditory Processing

b)

Glr

Long-Term Storage and Retrieval

c)

Gs

Processing Speed

90.

What does it mean what a student's standard score of the full scale WISC-V is 86, with a 95% confidence interval of 78-94?

a)

The student received between 78-94 questions and got 95% correct.

b)

The student scored in the high average range.

c)

The student's true score would be between 78-94, 95% of the time.

d)

The chance of getting a score of 86 is less than 5%.