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Respiratory Therapy 1010 study

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are potential areas of risk common in respiratory therapy? Select all that apply.

a)

Patient Movement

b)

Patient Ambulation

c)

Fire Hazard

d)

Drowning

2.

Chronic respiratory patients like sitting in a high fowler's position because it decreases their WOB.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Respiratory therapists move patients in order to:

a)

Improve Gas Exchange

b)

Properly performed therapies

c)

Tramsport patients procedures

d)

Help other colleagues

4.

What is an autogenous infection?

a)

An infection that is autoimmune

b)

An infection a patient gets from themselves

c)

An infection acquired from a health care worker

d)

An infection acquired from equipment

5.

What does PPE stand for?

a)

Please Protect the Environment

b)

Personal Protection Equipment

c)

Personal Protection Environment

d)

Patient Protection Equipment

6.

What disease(s) spread infection by airborne transmission?

a)

Bacterial pneumonia

b)

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

c)

Varicella

d)

Cholera

e)

Measles

7.

Which of the following are signs of diaphragmatic fatigue?

a)

Respiratory alternans

b)

Abdominal paradox

c)

Apneustic respirations

8.

Breath sounds that are described as having a musical quality and are produced as air flows through constricted airways are known as?

a)

Wheezes

b)

Rhonchi

c)

Crackles

d)

Diminished

9.

A RT notes that a patient has a heart rate of 150/min prior to beginning a breathing treatment. The therapist should do?

a)

Administer the treatment as prescribed

b)

Record the patient's heart rate and return in 1 hour

c)

Notify the patient's nurse and inform the physician

d)

Recommend obtaining an arterial blood gas sample

10.

What is the purpose of hyperbaric chambers in medical gas therapy?

a)

Increased oxygen delivery to tissues

b)

Enhanced carbon dioxide elimination

c)

Administration of anesthetic gases

d)

Prevention of aerosolized infections

11.

The selective vasodilatory effect of nitric oxide is due to its action on:

a)

Systemic arteries

b)

Pulmonary arteries

c)

Coronary arteries

d)

Cerebral arteries

12.

Fill in the blank: A symptom characterized by pain in the chest area is called _______.

a)

Heart pain

b)

Headache

c)

Stomach ache

d)

Back pain

13.

Fill in the blank: The medical term for losing consciousness is _______.

a)

Fainting

b)

Sneezing

c)

Coughing

d)

Yawning

14.

Fill in the blank: Difficulty in swallowing is referred to as _______.

a)

Difficulty swallowing

b)

Difficulty breathing

c)

Difficulty speaking

d)

Difficulty hearing

15.

Fill in the blank: Difficulty breathing while lying down is called _______.

a)

Difficulty breathing lying down

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Apnea

d)

Bradypnea

16.

Fill in the blank: A symptom where the patient has a rough or harsh-sounding voice is called _______.

a)

Hoarseness

b)

Dysphagia

c)

Tinnitus

d)

Diplopia

17.

Fill in the blank: The act of expelling blood from the mouth due to bleeding in the respiratory tract is called _______.

a)

Vomiting blood

b)

Hematuria

c)

Epistaxis

d)

Hematemesis

18.

Fill in the blank: An unpleasant smell detected from the patient is referred to as _______.

a)

Odor

b)

Fever

c)

Rash

d)

Pulse

19.

Fill in the blank: A condition where there is insufficient blood supply to the tissues is called _______.

a)

Low blood supply to the tissue

b)

High oxygen saturation

c)

Excessive bleeding

d)

Increased heart rate

20.

Fill in the blank: A symptom where the patient feels better when sitting up and worse when lying down is described as _______.

a)

Orthopnea

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Platypnea

d)

Tachypnea

21.

Fill in the blank: The act of expelling blood from the lungs or airways is called _______.

a)

Coughing up blood

b)

Sneezing

c)

Vomiting

d)

Hiccups

22.

Fill in the blank: Difficulty breathing when lying on one side is called _______.

a)

Difficulty breathing lying on side

b)

Orthopnea

c)

Platypnea

d)

Tachypnea

23.

The use of Heliox will correct a severe asthma attack.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

A patient complains of a "tingling" feeling in her lips during an IS treatment. The RT should instruct the patient to?

a)

Breath more slowly

b)

Take smaller breaths

c)

Continue with the treatment as ordered

d)

Exhaled through pursed lips after each breath

25.

The primary indication for lung expansion therapy is?

a)

Asthma

b)

Atelectasis

c)

Chronic bronchitis

d)

Respiratory distress

26.

On an IPPB machine, as you increase the flow what does it do to the inspiratory time?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

27.

Which of the following increases the delivered tidal volume to a patient taking an IPPB treatment?

a)

Increasing the flow rate

b)

increasing the inspiratory pressure

c)

Decreasing the sensitivity

d)

Decreasing the flow rate

28.

Which of the following situations is a contraindication for incentive spirometry?

a)

A patient whose IC is <10 ml/kg

b)

A patient whose IC is >10 ml/kg

c)

A patient who cannot cooperate or follow instructions

d)

An unconscious patient

e)

Post OP from abdominal surgery

29.

While evaluating a post-operative patient for whom incentive spirometry has been ordered, the RT obtains an inspiratory capacity of 6 ml/kg of body weight. The therapist should do which of the following?

a)

Recommend IPPB in place of IS

b)

Start the treatment as ordered

c)

Measure the patient's tidal volume

d)

Recommend a bronchodilator using a hand held nebulizer

30.

As compliance decreases, what happens to tidal volume?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

31.

As RAW increases, what happens to tidal volume?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

32.

Which of the following is true in regard to DPIs?

a)

Requires a rapid inhalation

b)

Minimum flows of 30 L/min

c)

Does not have a propellant

d)

Can not be used if the patient has a breathing problem

33.

Stability is defined as?

a)

Medication spreading out within the lungs

b)

Depth medication gets within the lungs

c)

Tendency of aerosol particles to remain in suspension

d)

Size of the aerosol particle

34.

Increased viscosity of a medication requires increased flows.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

As PaCO₂ increases, the pH______

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains the same

36.

As HCO₃ decreases, the pH____________

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains the same

37.

Standard blood gas analyzers do not measure actual SaO2.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

A galvanic analyzer measures FiO2.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

After changing electrodes or membranes, the RT should recalibrate the blood gas analyzer.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

A pH >7.45 is known as?

a)

Alkalosis

b)

Acidosis

c)

Alkalemia

41.

Capnography measures:

a)

Oxygen concentrations

b)

Carbon dioxide concentrations

c)

Nitric oxide concentrations

d)

Helium concentrations

42.

A cough assist device delivers positive pressure breaths at a pressure range of what?

a)

10-20 cmH2O

b)

15-25 cmH2O

c)

30-50 cmH2O

d)

55-65 cmH2O

43.

Which of the following would facilitate clearance of pulmonary secretions in a patient with cystic fibrosis?

a)

Flutter valve

b)

Vest therapy

c)

Autogenic drainage

d)

room humidifier

e)

Volara or IPV

44.

Which of the following hand positions is used in chest percussion to loosen bronchial secretions?

a)

Hands slightly cupped with fingers and thumbs closed

b)

Hand flat with fingers and thumb closed

c)

Fingers cupped thumb open

d)

Fingers and thumb open

45.

Which of the following areas should percussion not be performed over?

a)

Spine

b)

Female Breast

c)

Surgical site

d)

Skull

46.

After CPT is performed, what should you instruct a patient to do?

a)

Lay flat for 30 minutes

b)

Stand on their head

c)

Cough

d)

All of the above

47.

While reviewing the chart of a patient receiving postural drainage therapy, you notice the patient tends to undergo mild desaturation during therapy. Which of the following would you recommend to manage this problem?

a)

Increase the patient's FiO2 during therapy

b)

Discontinue the postural drainage therapy entirely

c)

Discontinue the percussion and vibration only

d)

Decrease the frequency of treatments

48.

What happens during the exsufflation phase of mechanical insufflation-exsufflation?

a)

Airway pressure is Abruptly decreased to -30 to -50 cmH20

b)

Negative airway pressure is maintained for 2 to 3 seconds

c)

Airway pressure is delivered 30 to 50 cmH20

d)

Medication is delivered

49.

An increase in which of the following can occur if condensation or water is allowed to accumulate in the large bore aerosol delivery tubing?

a)

Gas flow to the patient

b)

Absolute humidity delivered to the patient

c)

FiO2

d)

Total aerosol delivered

50.

Secretions tend to become thicker if the inspired air has which of the following characteristics?

a)

A relative humidity of 100% at body temperature

b)

32 mg H2O per liter of gas

c)

A water vapor pressure of 47 mmHg

d)

48 mg H2O per liter of gas

51.

After connecting a nasal cannula to the humidifier outlet, you kink the tubing and hear a whistling noise coming from the humidifier. Which of the following most likely has caused this?

a)

The humidifier jar is cracked

b)

The capillary tube in the humidifier is disconnected

c)

The humidifier has no leaks

d)

The top of the humidifier is not screwed on tightly

52.

Which of the following are indications for cool, bland aerosol therapy?

a)

A cough must be induced for sputum collection

b)

Mobilization of secretions must be improved

c)

post extubation of upper airway must be treated

d)

Strider

53.

The respiratory therapist is asked to recommend a humidifier that will be able to provide the highest water vapor content to the patient's airway.

a)

Pass-over

b)

Heat moisture exchanger

c)

Heated wick

d)

Bubble

54.

What is the clinical indication for Heliox?

a)

To make a patient sound like Mickey Mouse

b)

To oxygenate a patient with an upper airway obstruction (ex. mass)

c)

To oxygenate a patient in a severe asthma attack

55.

The main function of white blood cells is to carry oxygen to the body

a)

True

b)

False

56.

NO is a selective pulmonary vasodilator.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

The physician wants a patient to have no more than 9 L/min of 80:20 Heliox. Where does the RT set the flow meter?

a)

5 L/min

b)

8 L/min

c)

10 L/min

d)

12 L/min

58.

Which of the following are types of atelectasis?

a)

Detached

b)

Reabsorption

c)

Passive

d)

Adhesive

e)

Crushing

59.

What is the name of the test used to determine collateral circulation?

a)

There is no test required

b)

Modified Allens Test

c)

Functional Arterial Test

d)

Arterial Collateral Circulation Test

60.

What is the #1 complication of arterial blood gas?

a)

Embolism

b)

Bruising

c)

Arteriospasm

d)

Shearing

61.

A PaO2 of 50 mmHg will reveal what level of SaO2?

a)

70%

b)

80%

c)

90%

d)

100%

62.

Look at the image of the medical device. What is the name of this device?

a)

Defibrillator

b)

Coughalator or Cough Assist

c)

Metaneb

d)

Bird Mark 7

63.

What is the name of the device shown in the image?

a)

IPV device

b)

EZPAP

c)

Percussor

d)

Incentive Spirometer

64.

What is the name of the device shown in the image?

a)

Flutter

b)

PEP

c)

Nebulizer

d)

Aerogen

65.

Look at the image of the medical device. What is the name of this device?

a)

Acapella

b)

Incentive Spirometer

c)

Cough Assist

d)

EZPAP

66.

Look at the image of the medical device. What is the name of this device?

a)

TheraPEP

b)

Nebulizer

c)

Aerogen

d)

IPV

67.

A patient is going out of town for a conference. Travel time by vehicle is 3 hours. Her home care company is ensuring she has a pick up once she gets to her destination. Currently her portable unit has 3 lbs remaining. Her nasal cannula runs at 3 L/min. How long will her oxygen last?

a)

2.1 hours

b)

5.7 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

10.3 hours

68.

A full E cylinder is being used for an oxygen transport. They cylinder is being used for a patient on a 3 L/min nasal cannula. How long will the cylinder last?

a)

1 hour

b)

2.2 hours

c)

3.4 hours

d)

8.7 hours

69.

Which of the following are considered forms of interstitial lung disease (ILD)?

a)

I, III

b)

I, II

c)

II, IV

d)

All of the above

70.

A chest tube is placed for a pneumothorax. At what intercostal space does the physician place the tube?

a)

1st-2nd intercostal space

b)

2nd-3rd intercostal space

c)

4th-5th intercostal space

d)

5th-6th intercostal space

71.

Interpret the following blood gas: pH 7.30 PaCO₂ 32 mmHg PaO₂ 75 mmHg HCO₃ 19 mEq/L

a)

Partially compensated metabolic acidosis with mild hypoxemia

b)

Combined acidosis with mild hypoxemia

c)

Partially compensated respiratory acidosis with mild hypoxemia

d)

Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis with mild hypoxemia

72.

Interpret the following blood gas: pH 7.60 PaCO₂ 50 mmHg PaO₂ 82 mmHg HCO₃ 30 mEq/L

a)

Combined alkalosis with normal oxygenation

b)

Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis with mild hypoxemia

c)

Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis with normal oxygenation

d)

Combined acidosis with mild hypoxemia