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practice test 5

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nurse determines that the patient with chronic Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) understands the discharge instructions when the patient makes which statement?

a)

I need to shop for foods low in sodium and avoid adding salt to food.

b)

I should weigh myself weekly and report any weight loss or gain.

c)

I need to limit my fluid intake to no more than 1000ml of liquids per day.

d)

I should eat food low in potassium because diuretics cause potassium loss.

2.

A patient arrives into the Emergency department with complaints of mid-sternal chest pain radiating down the left arm. What would be a priority task to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

a)

Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

b)

Apply oxygen at 2L/NC per protocol

c)

Obtain and electrocardiogram (EKG)

d)

Ambulate the patient to the bathroom

3.

A severely malnourished patient is not able to absorb nutrition enterally and is started on TPN. The nurse knows the patient is at risk for a metabolic disorder referred to as refeeding syndrome. Refeeding syndrome can cause hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia and hypomagnesium. Which serious manifestation of refeeding syndrome should the nurse be concerned about?

a)

Dysrhythmias

b)

Rapid weight loss

c)

Metallic taste in the mouth

d)

Proteinuria

4.

A patient's order reads iron dextran 40 mg in 200 mL of 0.9% NS to infuse over 5 hours. At what rate would the nurse program the infusion pump? (Round to the nearest whole number and include unit of measurement)

a)

40 mL/hr

b)

25 mL/hr

c)

50 mL/hr

d)

60 mL/hr

5.

A patient with pneumonia is receiving cefazolin (Ancef) 1000mg in 250 mL D5W over 5 hours. At what flow rate will the nurse set the IV pump? (Round to the nearest whole number and include unit of measurement)

a)

50 mL/hr

b)

25 mL/hr

c)

100 mL/hr

d)

75 mL/hr

6.

The ICU hospitalist has ordered your patient 180mg of Dilantin orally every 12 hours. The patient weighs 124 lbs. The label reads 250mg/5ml. How many milliliters (mL) will you administer to this patient per dose? (Round answer to the nearest tenth and include unit of measurement)

a)

3.6 mL

b)

2.5 mL

c)

5.0 mL

d)

7.2 mL

7.

The Nurse Practitioner orders Solu-Medrol (methylprednisolone) 60 mg IV push every 8 hours. The pharmacy sent Solu-Medrol 125 mg/mL. How many milliliters (mls) will the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest hundredth and include unit of measurement)

a)

0.48 mL

b)

0.60 mL

c)

2.08 mL

d)

0.13 mL

8.

The physician orders Vancomycin 2 grams in 250mL D5W over 6 hours. The label on the tubing administration set provides a drop factor of 20 gtts/mL. What would be the flow rate in gtts/min? (Round to the nearest whole number and include unit of measurement)

a)

14 gtts/min

b)

8 gtts/min

c)

21 gtts/min

d)

28 gtts/min

9.

A patient has been diagnosed with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) and has been ordered Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). What is the purpose of this medication?

a)

This medication will replace the missing antidiuretic hormone.

b)

This medication will remove the excess antidiuretic hormone.

c)

This medication will replace the missing thyroid hormone.

d)

This medication will remove the excess thyroid hormone.

10.

The student nurse is performing a central line dressing change under the supervision of the clinical instructor. Which intervention observed by the instructor would require immediate corrective action?

a)

Placing a mask on the patient prior to the procedure.

b)

Performing hand hygiene before applying sterile gloves.

c)

Raising the bed to waist level.

d)

Applying a bio patch with blue side next to the patient's skin.

11.

The nurse is starting their 3pm-11pm shift on the diabetic unit. After receiving report from the day shift, which patient will the nurse determine needs assessed first?

a)

A. A 19-yr-old patient with type 1 diabetes, newly admitted from the emergency department on an insulin drip.

b)

B. A 35-yr-old patient with type 1 diabetes that had a blood glucose reading of 263 mg/dL before lunch.

c)

C. A 60-yr-old patient with type 2 diabetes with possible Somogyi symptoms over the last week.

d)

D. A 68-yr-old patient with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and a pressure injury to the right heel.

12.

The nurse is providing education at the community health fair on prevention strategies for atherosclerosis. Which of the following information does not belong in the education?

a)

Smoking cessation support group information

b)

Methods to eliminate all saturated fats from the diet

c)

Importance of anti-hypertensive medication administration as prescribed

d)

Methods to maintain glucose control for the patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus

13.

The nurse is teaching a student nurse about the stages of coronary artery disease. Which of the following is the earliest stage in the development of atherosclerosis?

a)

Complicated Lesion

b)

Intermediate Lesion

c)

Fibrous Plaque

d)

Fatty Streak

14.

A patient with chronic stable angina is out shoveling their driveway and begins to have chest pain. The nurse understands care is based on which causative imbalance?

a)

Oxygen supply and oxygen demand

b)

Potassium and sodium levels

c)

Exercise and weight

d)

Oxygen supply and CO2 expulsion

15.

The nurse is caring for a patient with an exacerbation of their left sided heart failure (HF). Which of the provider's orders should the nurse call to clarify?

a)

Spironolactone (Aldactone) 25 mg orally twice a day

b)

Oxygen 2 L nasal cannula to keep oxygen saturation >92%

c)

0.9 Normal Saline IV infusion at 125 ml/hr

d)

Vital signs every 2 hours and prn

16.

A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of increasing shortness of breath over the last three days. The patient is currently agitated and coughing up frothy pink-tinged sputum. The nurse notes a past medical history of left-sided heart failure. What position would potentially help the patient improve perfusion and gas exchange?

a)

Supine with legs elevated above the heart

b)

High Fowler's position with legs horizontal in the bed

c)

Prone position with knees pulled up into chest

d)

Left lateral position with pillow between the knees

17.

The nurse is preparing to administer the 9:00 am medications to a patient admitted with a diagnosis of heart failure. The patient is scheduled to get the following four (4) oral medications. After reviewing the assessment data, which order requires the nurse to clarify with the healthcare provider before administering? BP: 120/86 Pulse: 70 Serum potassium: 3.0 mEq/L

a)

Furosemide (Lasix)

b)

Potassium chloride

c)

Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

d)

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

18.

The nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed with chronic heart failure (CHF). Which laboratory data would indicate that the patient is in severe CHF?

a)

A creatine kinase (CK-MB) level of 100 mcg/L

b)

A B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 1000 pg/mL

c)

A Troponin of 120ng/ml

d)

A BUN of 45 mg/dL

19.

The patient with heart failure has been prescribed intravenous nitroglycerin and furosemide (Lasix) for pulmonary edema. Which is the priority nursing action related to these medications?

a)

Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter

b)

Monitoring the patient's vital signs

c)

Obtaining daily weights

d)

Evaluating the patient's oral intake of fluids

20.

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure and asks the nurse what could have brought on the disease. Which of the following could be a precipitating cause of the heart failure?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hyperthyroid disease

c)

Myxedema

d)

Addison's disease

21.

A nurse is administering analgesia to a terminally ill patient experiencing severe pain with a respiratory rate of 4. The family is concerned the medication will harm the patient. Which practice will the nurse explain to the family in this situation?

a)

Euthanasia

b)

Physician-assisted suicide

c)

Conscious sedation

d)

Palliative sedation

22.

A family member of a hospice patient asks the nurse about signs that end of life is near. Which physical manifestation will the nurse share with the family that may be seen at the end of life?

a)

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

b)

Cyanosis of the nail beds

c)

Decrease in urinary output

d)

Kussmaul respirations

e)

Mottling

23.

A patient has been brought up from the recovery room after a right radical mastectomy procedure. The nurse should plan to perform which intervention to decrease the chance of lymphedema?

a)

Elevate the right arm on a pillow

b)

Apply ice packs on the right arm to decrease swelling

c)

Immobilize the right arm to minimize strain

d)

Place the patient on a fluid restrictive diet

24.

A patient is receiving radiation therapy to the chest as treatment for a lung tumor. Which side effect would the nurse monitor for as a result of the radiation therapy?

a)

Desquamation

b)

Lymphedema

c)

Cystitis

d)

Extravasation

25.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Diabetes Insipidus. Which of the following would be a potential cause for this disorder?

a)

Adrenalectomy

b)

Head injury

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Hyperglycemia

26.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with an Acute Kidney Injury (AKI). The patient's symptoms include a urine output of 18 mL/hour, a potassium level of 7.0 mEq/dL and generalized edema. Which actions should the nurse include in the patient's plan of care? (Select all that apply by dragging your answer(s) from the Intervention section to the AKI Plan of Care section.)

a)

Monitor the patient's serum creatinine

b)

Place the patient on a cardiac monitor

c)

Place the patient on strict intake and output

d)

Administer calcium gluconate

e)

Provide the patient a 3g/kg protein diet

27.

The nurse is caring for a patient with Acute Kidney Injury (AKI). After reviewing the patient's lab results what would be the priority intervention for this patient?

a)

Prepare for peritoneal dialysis

b)

Hang a piggyback infusion of 3% Normal Saline

c)

Restrict dietary intake of potassium

d)

Administer sodium polystyrene (Kayexalate) orally

28.

The nurse educator of the urology floor is teaching a group of nursing students about the staging of Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD). What statement should be included in this education?

a)

Creatinine levels decrease as kidney function decreases

b)

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) levels increase as kidney function decreases

c)

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) levels decrease as kidney function decreases

d)

Urine output will decrease as the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) increases

29.

The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a patient with Ulcerative Colitis. Which priority action would the nurse take if the TPN bag emptied before the next bag arrives to the floor?

a)

Hang any TPN bag on the floor, even if it is not for the specific patient.

b)

Remove the TPN tubing and flush the lumen with 10 ml of 20% Dextrose

c)

Hang an infusion of 10% dextrose at the same rate as the TPN.

d)

Call pharmacy to order a new bag of TPN for the patient.

30.

A patient with non-small cell lung cancer has developed stomatitis of the mouth. What would be an appropriate intervention for this patient related to this complication?

a)

Include hot beverages with honey into their diet daily

b)

Choose moist, bland and soft foods

c)

Discourage nutritional supplements so the patient will eat more of their meal

d)

Rinse mouth with an alcohol-based mouthwash before each meal

31.

A nurse is caring for a 76 year old patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's Disease 10 years ago. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find in this patient?

a)

Muscle weakness with activity and color distortion

b)

Festination and postural instability

c)

Paralysis and diarrhea

d)

Lhermitte's sign and short term memory loss

32.

A patient with Parkinson's disease is started on Levodopa (L-Dopa). What should the nurse explain to the patient about this drug?

a)

Take this medication with a high protein meal.

b)

Immediately stop this medication if you experience nausea or lightheadedness.

c)

This medication will convert into dopamine in your brain.

d)

This medication will completely resolve your symptoms as long as you are taking it the rest of your life.

33.

The spouse of a patient with myasthenia gravis is trying to improve the nutritional intake of their loved one. Which meal option would be most appropriate for a patient with myasthenia gravis?

a)

Cubed steak and crispy roasted potatoes

b)

Hamburger with baked fries

c)

Pasta with tomato sauce

d)

Fresh veggie tray with cheese cubes

34.

A patient presents with an acute exacerbation of their Multiple Sclerosis (MS) symptoms. Which class of medication does the nurse anticipate administering to this patient?

a)

Antihypertensives

b)

Antimicrobials

c)

Anticholinergics

d)

Corticosteroids

35.

The nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed in the early stage of Multiple Sclerosis (MS). The nurse understands the pathophysiology of MS includes which process?

a)

Excessive myelination of the peripheral nervous system

b)

Demyelination of the peripheral nervous system

c)

Excessive myelination of the central nervous system

d)

Demyelination of the central nervous system

36.

The nurse enters a patient room and notes the patient appears anxious with tachycardia and tachypnea. The nurse learns that a patient's sibling passed away during a recent hospitalization. What would be the best action by the nurse at this time?

a)

Allow the patient time to verbalize feelings, and offer to consult support services.

b)

Provide alone time to the patient by not going into the patient's room unless absolutely necessary.

c)

Administer an oral sedative to the patient.

d)

Find out which religion the patient practices by viewing the chart and then request a representative from that religion to see the patient.

37.

The nurse is caring for a patient with Ulcerative Colitis who is experiencing severe bloody diarrhea, and doesn't understand why he needs total parenteral nutrition (TPN) therapy. What education should the nurse provide to the patient to explain the proposed treatment needed?

a)

It will help you decrease your weight so your body doesn't have to work so hard.

b)

It will create a positive nitrogen balance with all the blood loss.

c)

Your intestines can rest but you will still get the nutrition you need to heal.

d)

The doctor would not have ordered it if you didn't need it.

38.

During the nursing assessment of a patient scheduled for hemodialysis, which finding by the nurse indicates that the right arm arteriovenous fistula is patent?

a)

Palpation of a thrill over the fistula

b)

Palpation of a bruit over the fistula

c)

Auscultation of a thrill over the fistula

d)

No notable bruit over the fistula

39.

For a patient who is experiencing side effects of radiation therapy, which task would be the most appropriate to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

a)

Helping the patient to identify patterns of fatigue.

b)

Applying a medicated based cream to desquamation site.

c)

Report the amount consumed from the meal tray.

d)

Assessing the skin for redness and irritation after the bath.

40.

The nurse is caring for a patient with Crohn's disease. Which complications of this disease should be considered for the patient's plan of care?

a)

Ageusia and pruritis

b)

Infection and fistulas

c)

Thrombocytopenia and bruising

d)

Cognitive and sensory deficits

41.

Which action should the nurse take before inserting an angiocath for continuous intravenous (IV) therapy?

a)

Apply a cool compress to the potential insertion area.

b)

Inspect the IV solution and check the expiration date.

c)

Apply sterile gloves and mask the patient.

d)

Apply a tourniquet below the determined venipuncture site.

42.

The nurse is caring for a patient with orders for a hypotonic intravenous (IV) solution. During the 60 second assessment, which solution would the nurse expect to see infusing?

a)

3% Normal Saline

b)

0.45% Normal Saline

c)

0.9% Normal Saline

d)

5% Dextrose in Lactated Ringer's

43.

The nurse educator is teaching a group of nurses about the different types of insulin for Type 1 diabetes. Which statement demonstrates further education is needed?

a)

Glargine (Lantus) is a long acting insulin and provides the basal Insulin coverage between meals

b)

Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short acting insulin and is given to manage postprandial blood sugar

c)

NPH (Humulin N) is an Intermediate acting Insulin and given before meals for prandial coverage

d)

Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid acting insulin that should be given within 15 minutes of eating

44.

A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with complications of Type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient is being discharged on Acarbose (Precose). What information is most important to include in the discharge teaching plan?

a)

Take Acarbose (Precose) at bedtime to decrease side effects of nausea.

b)

Take Acarbose (Precose) 30 minutes after eating.

c)

Take Acarbose (Precose) with the first bite of food.

d)

Take Acarbose (Precose) 30 minutes before your meal to allow time to work.

45.

The nurse is discussing different types of insulin with the patient. Which type of insulin is the nurse referring to when she states an onset of 30-60 minutes and a peak of 2-5 hours?

a)

Insulin glargine (Lantus)

b)

Insulin Lispro (Humalog)

c)

NPH insulin (Humulin N)

d)

Regular insulin (Humulin R)

46.

The nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient for Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse would expect to find which of the following as clinical manifestations of DKA?

a)

A. Slow and shallow respirations and shakiness

b)

B. Acetone breath characterized by a sweet fruity odor.

c)

C. Dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor

d)

D. Increased heart rate and electrolyte imbalance

e)

E. Lethargy and confusion

47.

The nurse is reviewing the chart of a female patient. Which clinical findings would be reviewed to determine if the patient is positive for metabolic syndrome?

a)

A. Body Mass Index

b)

B. Waist circumference

c)

C. Fasting blood glucose

d)

D. Body weight

e)

E. High Density Lipids (HDL)

48.

A patient returns from a Roux-en-Y surgical procedure. The nurse knows it is important to monitor for which possible serious complication immediately after surgery?

a)

Relapse to old eating habits

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Dumping syndrome

d)

Malnourishment

49.

Which of the following are health risks associated with obesity? (Select all that apply)

a)

A. Osteoarthritis

b)

B. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

c)

C. Sleep Apnea

d)

D. Depression

e)

E. Infertility

50.

The nurse is providing education for a patient with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS). The nurse compares Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) and HHS and understands which of the following statements is true?

a)

DKA and HHS are both life threatening emergencies.

b)

DKA is more likely to occur in patients with Type 2 diabetes and HHS is more likely to occur in patients with Type 1 diabetes.

c)

DKA is a hyperglycemic complication and HHS is an hypoglycemic complication of diabetes mellitus.

d)

HHS occurs due to insulin insufficiency causing the body to breakdown fats to utilize as energy sources resulting in the formation of ketone bodies.

51.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). The initial blood glucose was 450 mg/dL. Intravenous hydration with 0.9 Normal Saline and an insulin infusion with Regular Insulin was initiated. The serum glucose level is now 240 mg/dL. Which would be the next expected action of the nurse?

a)

Administer an ampule of 50% dextrose intravenous.

b)

Change the frequency of finger sticks to every 2 hours.

c)

Change the IV solution to 5% Dextrose and 0.9% Normal Saline.

d)

Hold the insulin infusion until blood glucose levels increase.

52.

Which statement is true about the microvascular complications associated with diabetes?

a)

Neuropathy is the leading cause of end stage renal disease

b)

Retinopathy is the leading cause of blindness

c)

Peripheral artery disease is the leading cause of amputations

d)

Hypertrophy is the leading cause of a Somogyi effect

53.

When there is reinforcing instructions to a patient who has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes, which statement by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?

a)

I will stop taking my insulin if I am too sick to eat.

b)

I will increase my insulin dose during times of exercise.

c)

I will adjust my insulin dose according to the level of glucose in my urine.

d)

I will need to monitor my carbohydrate intake as well as my blood glucose levels.

54.

A patient with Crohn's disease is possibly being discharged but is requesting a snack first. Which of the following is the most appropriate snack for this patient?

a)

Grilled chicken on white bread

b)

Whole grain cereal with 2% milk

c)

Cheddar cheese and crackers

d)

Raw carrots and broccoli with buttermilk ranch dip

55.

A patient with Crohn's disease is in the office for a follow up visit after the 10th surgery to resect damaged areas of the small intestine. The patient complains of the following symptoms: weight loss, diarrhea, dry mouth and abdominal pain. What nursing diagnosis is a priority for this patient at this time?

a)

Alteration in mobility

b)

Alteration in nutrition

c)

Alteration in body image

d)

Alteration in cellular regulation

56.

A patient with a new diagnosis of Graves disease is being educated about signs and symptoms of the disease. The nurse determines the patient understands the teaching when the patient restates which signs and symptoms?

a)

Exophthalmos

b)

Weight loss with Increased appetite

c)

Cold intolerance

d)

Heat intolerance

e)

Bradycardia

57.

While caring for a 33-year-old patient with hyperthyroidism, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

a)

Heart rate of 118 beats/minute

b)

Severe bilateral exophthalmos

c)

Temperature of 103.8 F (40.4 C)

d)

Blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg

58.

Patients with Cushing's Syndrome show clinical manifestations of 1 and 2

a)

Weight Gain

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Mood Changes

e)
Weight Gain
59.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient diagnosed with Myasthenia Gravis. Which goal would be appropriate for a patient with this disease?

a)

Maximize cognitive function during waking hours

b)

Pain management related to Lhermitte's sign

c)

Avoid aspiration during meals

d)

Avoid tissue breakdown due to neuropathy

60.

A patient with an intravenous (IV) catheter has an order for an IV solution of 1000 mL D5 in 0.9% sodium chloride to infuse at 100 mL/hour. Which statement about the solution is true?

a)

D5 in 0.9% Normal Saline will cause the fluid to shift from the vascular space to the cells.

b)

D5 in 0.9% Normal Saline will decrease the plasma osmolarity.

c)

D5 in 0.9% Normal Saline will cause a fluid shift from the cells to the intravascular space.

d)

D5 in 0.9% Normal Saline will not cause any shifting of fluid between the cells and the extracellular space.

61.

The patient has been ordered erythromycin 600 mg orally every twelve hours for strep throat. The drug is supplied in 200 mg tablets. How many tablets total will the nurse administer per day?

a)

3 tablets

b)

4 tablets

c)

6 tablets

d)

2 tablets

62.

A patient with Crohn's disease is diagnosed with Short Bowel Syndrome (SBS) and is started on total parental nutrition (TPN) at 125mL/hr. The patient has an order for blood sugars every 6 hours with Lispro (Humalog) insulin sliding scale coverage subcutaneously. The nurse administered insulin at 6pm for a blood sugar of 358 mg/dL. When is the patient at the highest risk for hypoglycemia?

a)

6:10 pm-6:30 pm

b)

6:30 pm - 9:00 pm

c)

6:00 pm - 11:00 pm

d)

7:00 pm - 2:00 am

63.

The nurse is discussing protective features of health for a patient diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which of the following statements is accurate?

a)

The development of collateral circulation can happen over time and may assist in improving myocardial oxygen supply.

b)

A diet high in potassium allows the heart to have a stronger contraction force.

c)

An elevated LDL assists the patient in reducing atherosclerosis.

d)

Extended physical inactivity allows the heart muscle the much needed time to rest and recover.

64.

A patient on the unit has the following insulin administration orders: Humulin N 26 units subcutaneous every morning at 8 am Lispro (Humalog) sliding scale insulin before meals (AC) and at bedtime (HS) Blood Glucose Insulin Order < 200 mg/dL No insulin 201 - 250 mg/dL 2 units 251 - 300 mg/dL 4 units 301 - 350 mg/dL 6 units >350 mg/dL Call Health Care Provider (HCP) The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports the blood sugar level is 348 at 5:15 pm. Using the insulin orders, how much total insulin will the nurse administer for the dinner dose when the meal tray arrives at 5:30pm?

a)

6 units of insulin

b)

26 units of insulin

c)

32 units of insulin

d)

2 units of insulin

65.

____1____ and ____2____ support the patient is experiencing diabetes insipidus.

a)

Fluid intake

b)

Hormonal therapy

c)

Medication

d)

Monitoring

66.

A nursing instructor is teaching the class about Addison disease. The instructor determines that the class understands the disease process when students indicate which corticosteroids may be reduced in this disease?

a)

Androgens

b)

Bicarbonate

c)

Electrolytes

d)

Glucocorticoid

e)

Mineralocorticoids