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Ob Practice 1

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Hydatidiform Mole is defined as:

a)

An abnormal growth of trophoblastic tissue in the uterus resulting from abnormal fertilization.

b)

A benign tumor of the ovary.

c)

A type of uterine fibroid.

d)

A malignant tumor of the cervix.

2.

Tocolytic drugs are defined as:

a)

Drugs that suppress premature labor

b)

Drugs that induce labor

c)

Drugs that treat hypertension

d)

Drugs that relieve pain

3.

PROM/PPROM is defined as:

a)

Premature rupture of membranes/preterm premature rupture of membranes

b)

Postmature rupture of membranes/preterm postmature rupture of membranes

c)

Partial rupture of membranes/partial preterm rupture of membranes

d)

Persistent rupture of membranes/persistent preterm rupture of membranes

4.

Which type of abortion is characterized by spotting, cervical os remains closed, and mild cramping?

a)

Threatened

b)

Inevitable

c)

Incomplete

d)

Septic

5.

Which type of abortion involves moderate to heavy bleeding, mild to severe cramping, and cervical dilation?

a)

Missed

b)

Inevitable

c)

Complete

d)

Septic

6.

Which type of abortion may present with moderate to heavy bleeding, mild to severe cramping, and passage of tissue?

a)

Incomplete

b)

Complete

c)

Threatened

d)

Missed

7.

Which type of abortion is described as slight bleeding, mild cramping, all tissue is passed and cervix closed?

a)

Complete

b)

Incomplete

c)

Septic

d)

Inevitable

8.

Which type of abortion is characterized by the fetus having died but POC remain in the uterus for days, weeks, or months, usually with no bleeding or cramping, and cervix remains closed?

a)

Missed

b)

Threatened

c)

Septic

d)

Complete

9.

Which type of abortion is associated with fever, abdominal pain, and malodorous vaginal bleeding?

a)

Septic

b)

Incomplete

c)

Inevitable

d)

Threatened

10.

Which medication is given to contract the uterus after a dilation and curettage procedure?

a)

Pitocin

b)

Aspirin

c)

Metformin

d)

Diazepam

11.

Which medication is used to open the cervix and contract the uterus, and may cause cramping, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea?

a)

Misoprostol (Cytotec)

b)

Ibuprofen (Advil)

c)

Metformin (Glucophage)

d)

Loratadine (Claritin)

12.

Which of the following is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Past surgery on the fallopian tubes

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

13.

Which of the following is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Prior STI or other tubal infection

b)

Heart disease

c)

Obesity

d)

Migraine

14.

Which of the following is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Smoking

b)

Allergies

c)

Anemia

d)

Arthritis

15.

What are the three most classic diagnostic symptoms of ectopic pregnancy before rupture?

a)

Abdominal pain, delayed menses, abnormal vaginal bleeding

b)

Fever, cough, night sweats

c)

Headache, blurred vision, dizziness

d)

Chest pain, palpitations, shortness of breath

16.

Ectopic pregnancy is diagnosed with which of the following methods?

a)

Blood pressure measurement

b)

Transvaginal ultrasound and HCG level

c)

MRI scan

d)

X-ray

17.

Which medication is given intramuscularly to dissolve an ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Misoprostol

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Mifepristone

18.

How long does it usually take for methotrexate to dissolve an ectopic pregnancy?

a)

2-3 weeks (but may take 6-8 weeks)

b)

1-2 days

c)

6-12 months

d)

12-24 hours

19.

What are the two surgical options for managing an ectopic pregnancy in the fallopian tube?

a)

Salpingectomy or salpingostomy

b)

Hysterectomy or oophorectomy

c)

Myomectomy or endometrial ablation

d)

Tubal ligation or uterine artery embolization

20.

Fill in the blank: Hydatidiform mole is a benign proliferative growth in which chorionic villi grow into _________

a)

grape-like clusters

b)

solid nodules

c)

fibrous bands

d)

cystic spaces

21.

Fill in the blank: Hydatidiform mole is possibly caused by abnormal fertilization without a _________.

a)

viable fetus

b)

placenta

c)

zygote

d)

ovum

22.

Fill in the blank: A characteristic finding on transvaginal ultrasound in hydatidiform mole is a ________ pattern.

a)

snowstorm

b)

honeycomb

c)

ground-glass

d)

cobblestone

23.

Fill in the blank: Hydatidiform mole is associated with a high level of ________.

a)

HCG

b)

FSH

c)

LH

d)

Progesterone

24.

Fill in the blank: Management of molar pregnancy usually requires ______.

a)

D+C

b)

Hysterectomy

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Observation

25.

Fill in the blank: In molar pregnancy management, monitor HCG until normal for 3 weeks, then monthly for ______ months.

a)

6-12

b)

3-6

c)

1-3

d)

12-18

26.

Fill in the blank: Follow up after molar pregnancy lasts for at least ______ to monitor for gestational trophoblastic disease (more invasive mole).

a)

a year

b)

a month

c)

six weeks

d)

three days

27.

Fill in the blank: ________ is a hypertensive disorder that is a common cause of indicated preterm birth.

a)

Preeclampsia

b)

Gestational diabetes

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

28.

Physiological changes that occur in pregnancy include:

a)

Increased blood volume and cardiac output

b)

Decreased metabolic rate

c)

Reduced renal blood flow

d)

Lowered hormone levels

29.

Fill in the blank: Pregnancy tests (serum and urine) are based on the recognition of _______.

a)

hCG

b)

LH

c)

FSH

d)

TSH

30.

Fill in the blank: The placenta acts as an endocrine organ and secretes ________.

a)

Progesterone

b)

Insulin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Thyroxine

31.

Look at the image below. Which side of the placenta is shown in the image?

a)

Maternal side (Dirty Duncan)

b)

Fetal side (Shiny Shultz)

c)

Lateral side

d)

Inferior side

32.

What surrounds the umbilical cord?

a)

Wharton's jelly

b)

Amniotic fluid

c)

Placental villi

d)

Chorionic plate

33.

What is the function of Wharton's jelly in the umbilical cord?

a)

Provides sensory innervation

b)

Protects blood vessels and prevents compression of the cord

c)

Supplies oxygen directly to the embryo

d)

Forms the circulatory pathway to the embryo

34.

One of the functions of amniotic fluid is to provide ______ for protection.

a)

cushions

b)

heat

c)

nutrients

d)

oxygen

35.

What does the term 'fundal height' refer to in pregnancy?

a)

The distance from the top of the uterus to the pubic bone

b)

The distance from the top of the uterus to the top of the mother's head

c)

The distance from the baby's head to the mother's feet

d)

The distance from the mother's navel to her back

36.

What is ptyalism? (Fill in the blank: Ptyalism is excessive ________.)

a)

salivation

b)

urination

c)

perspiration

d)

defecation

37.

Fill in the blank: Increased blood volume (40-45% increase) and heart rate are examples of physiologic changes. Fluid often results in ______ of the extremities.

a)

edema

b)

atrophy

c)

cyanosis

d)

calcification

38.

What is the main focus of Level 1: Primary Prevention in STI prevention?

a)

Preventing problems before they occur (Immunizations)

b)

Treating existing infections to prevent complications

c)

Providing counseling for those already infected

d)

Monitoring and reporting STI cases

39.

What is the main focus of Level 2: Secondary Prevention in STI prevention?

a)

Early detection (Screening for STIs)

b)

Providing vaccination against STIs

c)

Promoting abstinence and safe sex practices

d)

Offering rehabilitation for STI complications

40.

What is the main focus of Level 3: Tertiary Prevention in STI prevention?

a)

Treatment and prevention of worsening disease (Education on medications for HIV)

b)

Screening and early detection of STIs

c)

Promotion of safe sexual practices to prevent STIs

d)

Vaccination against common STIs

41.

What can happen if you stop taking antibiotics when you feel better?

a)

You will recover faster

b)

It contributes to antibiotic resistance

c)

It has no effect

d)

It prevents yeast infections

42.

Fill in the blank: Antibiotics may cause ______ infections because they can wipe out normal flora in GI and GU tracts.

a)

yeast

b)

viral

c)

parasitic

d)

bacterial

43.

Consuming products with active acidophilus cultures, such as some yogurts, milks, and cheeses, can help prevent what side effect of antibiotics?

a)

Yeast infections

b)

Headaches

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Joint pain

44.

Which of the following is a bacterial STI?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Influenza

c)

HIV

d)

Chickenpox

45.

Which of the following is a bacterial STI?

a)

Gonorrhea

b)

Measles

c)

Herpes

d)

Hepatitis B

46.

Which of the following is a bacterial STI?

a)

Syphilis

b)

Mumps

c)

HPV

d)

Rubella

47.

What is the most frequently reported sexually transmitted infection (STI)?

a)

Gonorrhea

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Syphilis

d)

Herpes

48.

Fill in the blank: Infections caused by Chlamydia are often ______ and highly destructive.

a)

silent

b)

painful

c)

obvious

d)

short-lived

49.

What is the recommended management for Chlamydia during pregnancy?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Azithromycin 1g orally in a single dose

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Amoxicillin

50.

At what week should pregnant women be rescreened for Chlamydia if they tested positive for any STIs at the first visit or are high-risk?

a)

12 weeks

b)

24 weeks

c)

36 weeks

d)

40 weeks

51.

What is the causative agent of Syphilis?

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

Treponema pallidum

c)

Chlamydia trachomatis

d)

Herpes simplex virus

52.

Symptoms of Syphilis differ based on the ______ of the disease.

a)

stage

b)

treatment

c)

location

d)

severity

53.

Which tests are used for the initial screening of Syphilis?

a)

ELISA and Western Blot

b)

VDRL and RPR

c)

PCR and Culture

d)

Rapid Antigen Test

54.

According to ACOG (The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists), every pregnant woman is tested for which of the following early in pregnancy?

a)

Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis

b)

HIV and hepatitis

c)

Diabetes and hypertension

d)

Influenza and measles

55.

Which types of HPV are most commonly associated with the development of cancer?

a)

Types 1 and 2

b)

Types 6 and 11

c)

Types 16 and 18

d)

Types 31 and 33

56.

Which of the following is a symptom of HPV?

a)

Postcoital bleeding

b)

Abdominal pain

c)

Vomiting

d)

Dizziness

57.

What causes macrosomia?

a)
Inadequate prenatal care
b)
Low birth weight
c)
High protein diet during pregnancy
d)

Maternal hyperglycemia

58.

Which is a risk factors for gestational diabetes?

a)
High protein diet
b)

Previous Cesarian

c)
Age under 25
d)
Low blood pressure
e)

Advanced age

59.

What color is a normal cervix at 12 weeks of pregnancy?

a)
Pink
b)
Green
c)
Yellow
d)
Bluish or purplish
60.

When should a pregnant patient be tested for Group B Strep?

a)
Only if symptoms appear.
b)
After delivery.
c)
At the first prenatal visit.
d)
Between 35 and 37 weeks of gestation.
61.

Morning sickness leads to which electrolyte imbalance?

a)
Hyperkalemia (high potassium)
b)
Hypernatremia (high sodium)
c)
Hypocalcemia (low calcium)
d)
Hypokalemia (low potassium) and hyponatremia (low sodium)
62.

A patient is predicted to have a premature delivery, which medication should be given to help with possible respiratory issues in the infant?

a)
Antibiotics (e.g., ampicillin)
b)
Magnesium sulfate
c)
Tocolytics (e.g., terbutaline)
d)
Corticosteroids (e.g., betamethasone)
63.

What is the action of terbutaline in pregnancy?

a)
Terbutaline acts as a tocolytic agent to inhibit uterine contractions in pregnancy.
b)
Terbutaline is a pain reliever for pregnant women.
c)
Terbutaline increases uterine contractions during pregnancy.
d)
Terbutaline is used to induce labor in pregnancy.
64.

What does GTPAL stand for?

a)
Gravida, Term births, Preterm births, Abortions, Living children
b)
Gestational age, Total births, Previous pregnancies, Adopted children
c)
General health, Total deliveries, Previous losses, Current pregnancy
d)
Gestational weeks, Total children, Previous births, Future pregnancies
65.

What is a sentinel event?

a)
A sentinel event is a minor incident that does not require action.
b)
A sentinel event is a routine occurrence in healthcare.
c)
A sentinel event is a planned event in a healthcare setting.
d)
A sentinel event is a significant, unexpected event that results in serious harm or risk of harm.
66.

What is the most common type of yeast infection?

a)
Candida glabrata
b)
Candida tropicalis
c)
Candida albicans
d)
Candida krusei
67.

describe a patient with candidiasis

a)
A patient with candidiasis often shows symptoms of hair loss and skin rashes.
b)
A patient with candidiasis usually presents with a dry cough and chest pain.
c)
A patient with candidiasis typically has a high fever and severe abdominal pain.
d)
A patient with candidiasis may exhibit symptoms like itching, redness, and a thick white discharge, often in areas such as the mouth or genital region.
68.

What is first line treatment for gonorrhea?

a)
Ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
b)
Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
c)
Penicillin and tetracycline
d)
Amoxicillin and doxycycline
69.

What is first line treatment for syphillis?

a)
Benzathine penicillin G
b)
Amoxicillin
c)
Ciprofloxacin
d)
Doxycycline
70.

Which supplement helps with iron absorption?

a)
Vitamin C
b)
Zinc
c)
Vitamin D
d)
Calcium
71.

What is first line treatment for genital herpes?

a)

Acyclovir, Valacyclovir

b)

Acetominophen

c)

Metronidazole

d)
Corticosteroids

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