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Worksheets

ZIGLY WIGLU

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many hydrogen bonds link a cytosine to a guanine in a double stranded DNA fragment?

a)

Zero

b)

one

c)

two

d)

three

2.

A hypothesis...

a)

Is based upon observation

b)

Does not need further investigation

c)

Must be testable

d)

Must be falsifiable

3.

The endoplasmic reticulum membranes of cells often appear to have a rough, granular surface. This granularity reflects the interaction of (a)   with the endoplasmic reticulum.

4.

Mutations in DNA

a)

always result in a change in the amino acid sequence

b)

are always deleterious

c)

are always beneficial

d)

are the raw material for evolution and may be beneficial or deleterious

5.

In science, a theory is

a)

A broad explanation for a wide variety of phenomena, supported by many lines of evidence

b)

A generalisation about data; a statement of relationships between variables

c)

An educated guess

d)

A hunch based on observation

6.

If you wanted to use a radioactive or fluorescent tag to label only the RNA in a cell and not the DNA, what compound(s) could you label that is/are specific for RNA?

i. Adenine ii. Thymine iii. Cytosine iv. Guanine

v. Uracil vi. Ribose

vii. Deoxyribose viii. Phosphorus (phosphate)

a)

i,ii,iii and iv only

b)

vii only

c)

v or vi

d)

None of the above

7.

Which of these sentences most accurately describes heterochromatin?

a)

It consists mainly of DNA that is more densely packed and that is actively being repressed (silenced)

b)

It consists mainly of more densely packed DNA

c)

It consists mainly of DNA being actively repressed

d)

It consists mainly of DNA being actively transcribed

8.

Gregor Mendel's experiments laid the basis for our current understanding of

a)

The structure of DNA

b)

The organisation of chromosomes

c)

The existence of heritable factors which are passed between generations

d)

The fact that DNA is the basis of inheritance

9.

What is the enzymatic function of restriction enzymes?

a)

To cleave nucleic acids at specific sites

b)

To repair breaks in sugar-phosphate backbones

c)

To add new nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA

d)

To join nucleotides during replication

10.

What mechanism enables different proteins to be coded for by the same gene?

a)

Alternate splicing

b)

Translation

c)

DNA replication

d)

Elongation

11.

A nucleotide is composed of

a)

A string of amino acids, linked by hydrogen bonds

b)

A double helix consisting of two antiparallel strings

c)

A common central carbon-based ring attached to a side chain (R group)

d)

A sugar and a phosphate molecule attached to a nitrogenous base

12.

Grana, thylakoids, and stroma are all components found in

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Vacuoles

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Lysosomes

13.

tRNAs move through sites within the ribosome in which order?

a)

P-E-A

b)

P-A-E

c)

A-P-E

d)

A-E-P

14.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Eukaryotic chromosomes are single, linear DNA molecules

b)

Eukaryotic cells only have DNA in the nucleus

c)

Eukaryotic chromosomes are often supplemented by plasmids

d)

Prokaryotic chromosomes are single, linear DNA molecules

15.

If proteins were composed of only 12 different kinds of amino acids, what would be the smallest possible codon size in a genetic system with four different nucleotides?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

16.

A nonsense mutation is

a)

when a change in the DNA sequence results in a change in the amino acid sequence

b)

when a change in the DNA sequence does not result in a change in the amino acid

sequence

c)

when the frame of codons that are translated into amino acids changes

d)

when a premature stop codon occurs

17.

What is the complementary DNA strand of the sequence 5’CCGATTACC3’ ?

a)

5’GGCTAATGG3’

b)

5’GGCUAAUGG3’

c)

3’GGCUAAUGG5’

d)

3’GGCTAATGG5’

18.

Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe mRNA?

a)

It has a ribose sugar group

b)

Unlike DNA, mRNA does not contain phosphates

c)

It uses uracil instead of thymine

d)

It is usually single stranded

19.

A frameshift mutation is

a)

when a change in the DNA sequence results in only one change in the amino acid sequence

b)

when a change in the DNA sequence does not result in a change in the amino acid sequence

c)

when a premature stop codon occurs

d)

when the frame of codons that are translated into amino acids changes

20.

Which answer is most correct: Polypeptides are chains of

a)

Amino acids

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Nucleosomes

d)

Polysomes

21.

Paramecium have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water from the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment

a)

Is contaminated with pollutants

b)

Contains a higher concentration of solutes than the Paramecium

c)

Contains a lower concentration of solutes than the Paramecium

d)

Is isotonic to the Paramecium

22.

Eukaryotic cells possess which of the following traits?

a)

A nucleus

b)

Chromosomes that float freely in the cytoplasm

c)

Membrane-bound organelles

d)

circular dna

23.

When you translate from protein back to DNA, what is the outcome?

a)

A piece of messenger RNA with introns

b)

Only one DNA sequence is possible and correct

c)

A number of different DNA sequences are possible and correct

d)

There is no information on the number and length of introns

24.

The technique of determining the concentrations of molecules by measuring the amount of light they absorb is called

a)

Precipitation

b)

Electrophoresis

c)

Restriction fragment length polymorphism

d)

Spectrophotometry

25.

A repressible operon is usually

a)

on and switched off when high levels of the end-product are present

b)

on and switched off when low levels of the end-product are present

c)

off and switched on when high levels of the end-product are present

d)

off and switched on when low levels of the end-product are present

26.

The codon CUU codes for the amino acid leucine. What is the correct anticodon sequence on the tRNA molecule that carries leucine?

a)

5’UUC3’

b)

3’UUC5’

c)

5’GAA3’

d)

3’GAA5’

27.

A change in populations through natural selection is called

a)

Kinship

b)

Regression

c)

Adaptation

d)

Maladaptation

28.

In eukaryotes, cell-specific gene transcription occurs because

a)

all the genes required are present on an operon

b)

activator proteins vary by cell type

c)

specific RNA polymerases occur in each cell type

29.

During transcription, in which direction does RNA polymerase move along the template DNA strand?

a)

Right to left

b)

Left to right

c)

5’to3’

d)

3’to5’

30.

Directional selection occurs when

a)

Individuals are under no selection pressure

b)

Selection is directed by the cell cycle

c)

Individuals with traits at one extreme are favoured over the other

d)

Individuals are not favoured in any way

31.

Genetic drift most likely occurs in populations that are

a)

Large

b)

Medium sized

c)

Small

d)

Not evolved

32.

Totipotent stem cells:

a)

can be recovered from any cell type

b)

can give rise to a completely new individual

c)

are restricted to differentiating into a limited number of cell types

d)

are present in blood

33.

A proto-oncogene is

a)

a gene coding for the ribosome

b)

a gene found in oocytes

c)

the normal version of a gene that through mutation can cause cancer

d)

a gene found in sperm

34.

What is a gene pool?

a)

A transport system for DNA

b)

The entire genetic content of a population, every allele

c)

A re-arrangement of exons, also called exon shuffling

d)

The area in the nucleus for ribosomal RNA transcription

35.

The equation for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium states that at a locus with two alleles (p and q), the three genotypes will appear in the following proportions

a)

2p+2q

b)

p+2pq+q

c)

4 33  p+2pq+4 33  q

d)

p 22  +2pq+q 22  

36.

What is the purpose of a phylogeny?

a)

To show how DNA is replicated in the cell of an organism

b)

To show the different types of mutations that occur in cells

c)

To reveal the evolutionary relationships of organisms

d)

To reveal the flow of biological information in a cell

37.

When adding Coomassie brilliant blue to a sample of protein solution in a cuvette and measuring the sample in a spectrophotometer, what do we measure

a)

The number of stained antibodies

b)

The concentration of protein and fat added together

c)

The concentration of all proteins together

d)

The number of different proteins in the sample

38.

The organism Chlamydomonas reinhardtii has

a)

one flagella

b)

two flagella

c)

one cilia

d)

two cilia

39.

The movement of (a)   enables microtubules to slide and flagella to bend

40.

The enzyme β-galactosidase cleaves

a)

sucrose into glucose and galactose

b)

sucrose into galactose

c)

lactose into glucose

d)

lactose into glucose and galactose

41.

Below is a diagram of a phylogeny (phylogenetic tree) based on mitochondrial DNA sequences. Letters A, B, C and D represent different species. Which two species are the least related to each other?

a)

D and C

b)

D and B

c)

D and A

d)

C and B

42.

Introns are

a)

Non-protein-coding regions in eukaryotic genes

b)

Control sequences for eukaryotic genes

c)

DNA sequences which indicate the end of transcription

d)

Circular DNA structures floating free in a prokaryotic cell

43.

When performing a Gram stain on a mixture of bacteria

a)

gram positive cells stain purple because they have a thick peptidoglycan layer and retain crystal violet

b)

gram positive cells stain red because they have a thick peptidoglycan layer and retain crystal violet

c)

gram positive cells stain purple because they have a thin peptidoglycan layer and retain crystal violet

d)

gram positive cells stain red because they have a thin peptidoglycan layer and retain crystal violet

44.

In an operon

a)

Multiple coding sequences are under the control of a single promoter, and are therefore transcribed together

b)

Multiple coding sequences each have a copy of the same promoter, and are therefore transcribed together

c)

Multiple eukaryotic coding sequences produce the enzymes for a specific pathway

d)

Coding sequences from different organisms are brought together to form a new,

synthetic pathway

45.

Which statement about meiosis or mitosis is true?

a)

Meiosis produces daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell

b)

Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell

c)

Mitosis produces daughter cells with twice the number of chromosomes as the parent

cell

d)

Mitosis produces daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent

cell

46.

Prokaryotes predominantly reproduce via

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

transduction

c)

binary fission

d)

meiosis

47.

The process of meiosis leads to

a)

The production of two identical diploid daughter cells

b)

The repair of a damaged genome within a cell

c)

Large-scale mutations which produce rapid evolution

d)

The production of four, dissimilar haploid cells

48.

In replication, new DNA strands are produced in the following direction

a)

5'to3'

b)

3'to5'

c)

It can occur in any direction

d)

It depends on whether Okazaki fragments are present

49.

A dominant allele is one which

a)

Is expressed whenever there are two copies of it present

b)

May or may not be expressed, depending upon the other allelles present

c)

Is only expressed if carried on the sex chromosomes

d)

Is expressed whenever it is present

50.

If a homozygous dominant plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive plant, what proportion of offspring would be homozygous?

a)

1/4

b)

3/4

c)

1⁄2

d)

one

51.

Which of these is NOT a component of the lac operon?

a)

LacA,Y and Z genes

b)

Promoter

c)

Regulatory gene (LacI)

d)

Operator

52.

Consider the following sentence: "The dog did not eat." Which of the following variations of this sentence is most like a base substitution mutation?

a)

The dog dog did not eat

b)

The doe did not eat

c)

The dog did not

d)

The did dog not eat

53.

After DNA replication is completed

a)

Each new DNA double helix consists of one old DNA strand and one new DNA strand

b)

There are four double helices

c)

Each of the four DNA strands consists of some old strand parts and some new strand

parts

d)

One DNA double helix consists of two old strands and one DNA double helix consists of two new strands

54.

A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is

a)

A zygote

b)

A sperm

c)

A somatic cell of a female

d)

A somatic cell of a male

55.

A man with type A blood marries a woman with type B blood. Their child has type O blood. What is the genotype of the woman?

a)

OO

b)

AO

c)

BO

d)

AB

56.

Which stage of mitosis involves the movement of each sister chromatid to the opposite pole of the cell

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prometaphase

d)

interphase

57.

Individuals that disperse and establish a new population with a subset of alleles from the original population is termed

a)

random genetic drift

b)

natural selection

c)

genome duplication

d)

founder effect

58.

In crossing over during meiosis

a)

homologous portions of two sister chromatids trade places

b)

homologous portions of two non-sister chromatids trade places

c)

non-homologous portions of two non-sister chromatids trade places

d)

non-homologous portions of two sister chromatids trade places

59.

What is the Polymerase Chain Reaction used for?

a)

To quickly express many proteins from a single gene

b)

To create many copies of a fragment of DNA

c)

To link multiple fragments of DNA together

d)

To cleave DNA at a specific sequence

60.

When sequencing DNA, what role do ddNTPs play?

a)

It terminates DNA synthesis

b)

It allows extension of the growing DNA fragment

c)

It is radio labelled so that the DNA sequence can be determined

d)

Both a and c

61.

Pleiotropy is

a)

a cancer-causing gene

b)

a stage in meiosis

c)

when a sperm cell fertilises an egg

d)

when a single gene determines multiple traits

62.

What is the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis?

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

X-linked recessive

c)

Autosomal recessive

d)

Y-linked

63.

Some ethnic groups have higher frequencies of particular disease-causing alleles. This could be explained by:

a)

Bottleneck events in the group’s history

b)

The founder effect

c)

Heterozygote advantage

d)

All of the above

64.

Which of the following is the most fundamental technology which allowed for the synthetic biology approach?

a)

Next-generation DNA sequencing

b)

Sequence-designed DNA synthesis

c)

Gibson Assembly

d)

CRISPR

65.

In synthetic biology, what does modularity refer to?

a)

Having a database of biological parts

b)

Correct ordering of promoter, gene, terminator

c)

A set of standards to make all parts compatible

d)

Training modules used to educate scientists

66.

What would a female on a pedigree be represented by

a)

Circle

b)

square

c)

triange

d)

star

67.

what would a male on a pedigree be represented by

a)

circle

b)

square

c)

triangle

d)

heart

68.

Briefly name/describe three parts of meiosis/sexual reproduction which generally result in offspring of the same parents inheriting different DNA

a)

Crossing over - In prophase I - part of one chromosome is exchanged with another

b)

independent assortment of chromosomes

c)

random fertilisation - where the chromosomes move randomly to separate poles during meiosis

d)

recombination

69.

What are the main differences between cells produced via meiosis and mitosis?

a)

Meiosis produces 4 non identical cells whereas mitosis produces 2 identical cells

b)

meiosis cells are haploid

c)

mitosis cells are diploid

d)

mitosis is first