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Exam 3 Review!!

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many chromosomes are in this cell?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

3

d)

12

2.

What is the diploid number of chromosomes in this cell?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

3

d)

12

3.

What phase of mitosis/meiosis is DNA Replicated in?

a)

Prophase

b)

S phase

c)

G1

d)

Telophase

4.

What is the Leading strand

(a)  

5.

What is the Lagging strand

(a)  

6.

D is (a)   prime

7.

What is the enzyme that takes the DNA fragments made by DNA pol 1 and glues them together

a)

gluease

b)

ligase

c)

SSBPs

d)

Topoisomerase

8.

Homologous chromosomes separate during

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis 1

c)

Mitosis 2

d)

Meiosis 1 and Mitosis

9.

Crossing over occurs during...

a)

Prophase 1

b)

Prophase 2

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prophase in mitosis

10.

Two ways that meiosis adds genetic variation are:

(a)  

11.

What are types of genes that stimulate growth and division?

a)

Alleles

b)

Tumor suppressors

c)

Proto-oncogenes

d)

Cancer genes

12.

multiple allelism, codominance, incomplete dominance, pleiotropy, gene interactions, epistasis, quantitative traits are all examples of

a)

chromosome types

b)

sex linked traits

c)

mendelian genetics

d)

exceptions to mendelian genetics

13.

True or false: multiple genes can effect one trait

a)

True: epistasis

b)

False

c)

True: gene interactions

d)

True: mitosis

14.

a form of Gene interaction in which both alleles of a gene at a locus are partially expressed, often resulting in an intermediate or different phenotype.

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

incomplete genes

d)

homozygous dominant

15.

Heterozygous individuals who do not have an inherited disease but carry a recessive allele for it

a)

Fathers

b)

infected people

c)

Carriers

d)

Holders

16.

Blood types are an example of

a)

Epistasis

b)

independent assortment

c)

Co dominance

d)

Incomplete Dominance

17.

Sex chromosomes segregate in (a)   to form X-bearing and Y-bearing gametes

18.

the rearrangement of genetic material, especially by crossing over in chromosomes or by the artificial joining of segments of DNA from different organisms.

a)

gene splicing

b)

independent assortment

c)

Recombination

d)

alleles

19.

How many pairs of homologous chromosomes are in this cell?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

20.

What determines how often genes recombine?

a)

The distance between them

b)

If they have a crush on each other

c)

their electronegativity

d)

their charges

21.

What is the haploid number of chromosomes in this cell?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

3

d)

12

22.

In a monohybrid cross following mendelian genetics:

Rr x Rr

what is the Phenotypic ratio?

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

3:1

c)

4:1

d)

1:1

23.

In mendelian genetics genes are located on _______ chromosomes

a)

The same

b)

small

c)

Different

d)

smelly

24.

Why is DNA Pol1 used predominantly in lagging strand synthesis?  

a)

To remove the DNA fragments and replace them with RNA fragments

b)

To remove the RNA fragments and replace them with ur mom fragments

c)

To glue DNA together

d)

To remove the RNA fragments and replace them with DNA fragments

25.

Why do we need an RNA Primer?  

a)

to provide the free 3’ OH for DNA Polymerase 3 to bind to as it can only find to free 3’ OHs  

b)

to provide the free 3’ OH for DNA Polymerase 1 to bind to as it can only find to free 3’ OHs  

c)

to provide the free 5’ OH for DNA Polymerase 3 to bind to as it can only find to free 5’ OHs  

d)

we dont need it...

26.

What are the genotypic ratios for the following dihybrid cross?

RRyy x RrYY

a)

1:2:1:1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

1:1:1:1:1:1

27.

If a Mother is a carrier for an X linked genetic disorder and a Father has an X-linked genetic disorder, what is NOT a possibility for their offspring?

a)

A daughter that is a carrier

b)

A daughter that displays the disorder

c)

A son that is a carrier

d)

A son that displays the disorder

28.

Chromosomes condense during...

a)

Anaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

S phase

29.

Mendel's principle of Independent assortment occurs during

a)

Mitosis Metaphase

b)

Meiosis 1 Metaphase

c)

Meiosis 2 Metaphase

d)

Meiosis 1 prophase

30.

Even a single cell can begin to divide uncontrollably and form a (a)   – mass of cells

31.

What does not occur during interphase

a)

duplication of centrioles

b)

duplication of organelles

c)

cell growth

d)

dissolving of the nuclear membrane

32.

which of these cells is shown in metaphase 1 of meiosis

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

33.

Which cell cycle check point checks to see if the cell is growing properly, has enough resources, and if (un-replicated) DNA has any mutations?

a)

G2

b)

G1

c)

M

d)

S

34.

What cell cycle check point makes sure that the chromosomes are lined up properly during metaphase and are attached to the spindle fibers?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

35.

The rise and fall of CDK and different kinds of cyclins indicate......

a)

how much DNA the cell has

b)

how big the cell is

c)

What phase of the cell cycle the cell is in

d)

What step of mitosis you are in

36.

If there is a mutation that inhibits p53 what might happen?

a)

Uncontrolled cell division

b)

controlled cell division

c)

no cell division

d)

CDKs wont work

37.

G proteins (like Ras) and Growth factors are examples of ______

a)

proteins

b)

Tumor supressors

c)

Proto-oncogenes

d)

cells

38.

What is the activator of the S-phase?

a)

Rb

b)

p53

c)

E2F

d)

Cyclin

39.

What might happen if there was a mutation that causes E2F to be constantly produced?

a)

mutated cells may pass through the G1 checkpoint without being checked

b)

S phase will continue with mutated cells and create cells with mutated DNA

c)

Uncontrolled Cell division

d)

Cancer

40.

What might happen if there is a mutation that causes Rb to not be able to release E2F?

a)

Uncontrolled cell division

b)

The cell will not be able to pass to s-phase/ divide

c)

Cancer

d)

controlled cell division

41.

If there is a mutation that makes the Ras protein activate without the presence of a growth factor what might happen?

a)

No cell division

b)

Controlled cell division

c)

Uncontrolled cell division

d)

a little bit of cell division ;)

42.

What is NOT a reason why it is so difficult to cure cancer?

a)

New and rare cancers are appearing frequently

b)

Cancer is not one disease, but many

c)

Cancer is a singular disease that never changes

d)

Difficult to target only cancerous cells

43.

Epistasis – one gene alters the expression of another gene

One type: the genotype of one gene can (a)   the expression of another gene

44.

Mutations convert proto-oncogenes to ________ – a mutant allele that promotes cancer development

a)

tumor supresors

b)

oncogenes

c)

growth factors

d)

vampires

45.

p53 is an example of a ______

a)

proto-oncogene

b)

oncogene

c)

tumor suppressor

d)

cyclin

46.

The Principle of _____ states that Alleles separate during gamete formation. Each gamete contains one allele of each gene

a)

Dihybrid

b)

seperation

c)

independent assortment

d)

segregation

47.

Sister chromatids separate from each other during

a)

Meiosis 2 and Mitosis

b)

Meiosis 1 and 2

c)

Mitosis

d)

Meiosis 1 and Mitosis

48.

Looking through a microscope you see a cell dividing forming a cleavage furrow. What type of cell is this and what stage is it in?

a)

plant cell/telophase

b)

animal cell/prophase

c)

animal cell/cytokinesis

d)

plant cell/cytokinesis

49.

a type of inheritance in which two versions (alleles) of the same gene are expressed separately to yield different traits in an individual.

a)

Co-dominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

complete dominance

d)

epistasis

50.

What is the product of meiosis?

a)

2 genetically identical diploid daughter cells

b)

2 genetically different haploid cells

c)

4 genetically different diploid cells

d)

4 genetically different haploid cells

51.

Restrict cell growth and division

a)

Tumor suppressors

b)

Proto-oncogenes

c)

oncogenes

d)

Cancer

52.

What does DNA have that proteins do not?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Sulfur

c)

Phosphorus

d)

Carbon

53.

DNA polymerase can only proceed (a)    

This is because they need a free ‘3 OH to attach the incoming nucleotide to  

54.

A limitation of (a)   is that they need a DNA template to build from 

55.

Types of DNA polymerase used in bacterial DNA synthesis for the Lagging Strand

a)

DNA pol 1

b)

DNA pol 3

c)

DNA pol 1 and DNA pol 3

d)

DNA polymerase is not used

56.

Types of DNA polymerase used in bacterial DNA synthesis for the Leading Strand

a)

DNA pol 1

b)

DNA pol 3

c)

DNA pol 1 and DNA pol 3

d)

DNA polymerase is not used

57.

The energy for DNA synthesis comes from _____  

a)

dNTPs

b)

ATP

c)

GTP

d)

The sun :)

58.

DNA strand run ______

a)

Antiparallel

b)

backwards

c)

parrallel

d)

fast

59.

what enzyme opens double helix

a)

Primase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Helicase

d)

SSBPs

60.

what enzyme keep the separated DNA single stranded.

a)

Primase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Helicase

d)

SSBPs

61.

what enzyme relaxes the supercoiled DNA so that helicase can easily unzip the DNA strands.  

a)

Primase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Helicase

d)

SSBPs

62.

what enzyme synthesizes the RNA Primer.

a)

Primase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Helicase

d)

SSBPs

63.

DNA is always synthesized in this direction

a)

left

b)

5' to 1'

c)

3' to 5'

d)

5' to 3'

64.

RNA primer provides the free 3’OH by putting down a piece of (a)   for DNA polymerase to bind to.

65.

Lagging strand synthesis happens 'backwards' and the DNA is synthesized in (a)  

66.

what does DNA Polymerase 1 do?

a)

removes RNA and replaces it with DNA and gives us a full strand of DNA

b)

removes DNA and replaces it with RNA and gives us a full strand of RNA

c)

breaks the DNA apart and destroys it

d)

a backflip

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