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WorksheetsComprehensive Content (Previously tested content)
Total questions: 98
Worksheet time: 49mins
What does Evidence-Based Practice (EBP) in health assessment involve?
Using the best available research evidence, along with clinical expertise and patient values, to make decisions about patient care.
Relying solely on traditional practices and personal experience to make decisions about patient care.
Making decisions based only on patient preferences, without considering research evidence or clinical expertise.
Implementing care plans based exclusively on hospital policies, regardless of individual patient needs.
Which of the following is an example of a first-level priority problem in patient assessment?
Acute pain
Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) issues
Family coping
Abnormal laboratory values
Second-level priority problems are those that are urgent but not immediately life-threatening.
True
False
Third-level priority problems are important to the patient's health but can be addressed after more urgent problems. These might include health education, activity, rest, or family coping.
True
False
Collaborative problems are those that require multiple disciplines to resolve.
True
False
Which tool is used for screening alcohol use in substance use assessment?
DAST
AUDIT
MRI
CBC
In substance use assessment, what type of questions should be asked to gather health history?
Non-judgmental questions about frequency, quantity, and patterns of substance use, as well as any associated problems.
Only yes/no questions about current substance use.
Questions that assume the patient has a substance use disorder.
Questions focused solely on family history of substance use.
Physical examination findings for substance use may include observing for physical signs such as ________, poor hygiene, nutritional deficiencies, or signs of withdrawal (e.g., tremors, sweating).
track marks, dilated or constricted pupils
bruised knuckles, excessive yawning
swollen ankles, dry cough
frequent nosebleeds, blurred vision
Laboratory tests in substance use assessment may include blood alcohol content, urine drug screens, or ________, if indicated.
liver function tests
thyroid function tests
electrolyte panels
complete blood count
Identifying risk factors in substance use assessment includes family history, mental health disorders, or ________.
history of trauma
regular exercise
balanced diet
good sleep hygiene
What are the steps involved in thyroid assessment?
Inspection, palpation, and understanding associated symptoms
Inspection, auscultation, and surgery
Palpation, medication, and surgery
None of the above
During thyroid inspection, what should you observe for?
Observe the neck for symmetry and any visible enlargement or lumps, especially as the patient swallows water.
Check for the presence of a carotid pulse on both sides of the neck.
Look for signs of facial swelling and discoloration.
Inspect the ears for any discharge or redness.
What is the purpose of palpating the thyroid gland?
To feel for size, shape, consistency, tenderness, and nodules. Also to auscultate if enlargement is noted, listening for bruits.
To check for blood pressure irregularities.
To assess lung capacity and respiratory rate.
To determine the presence of heart murmurs.
Expected findings during thyroid assessment include:
The thyroid gland is often not visible and may be barely palpable, smooth, firm, and non-tender.
The thyroid gland is always enlarged and tender.
The thyroid gland is always visible and nodular.
The thyroid gland is always hard and painful.
Which of the following is a symptom of hyperthyroidism (e.g., Graves' disease)?
Weight gain
Bradycardia
Weight loss
Constipation
Which of the following is a symptom of hypothyroidism (e.g., Hashimoto's thyroiditis)?
Tachycardia
Heat intolerance
Fatigue
Exophthalmos
What is the procedure for using the Snellen chart to assess visual acuity?
The patient stands 20 feet away from the chart and reads the smallest line of letters possible. Each eye is tested individually, then both eyes together.
The patient sits 5 feet away from the chart and reads only the top line with both eyes open.
The patient stands 10 feet away and reads the chart with both eyes closed.
The patient stands 20 feet away and reads the chart while wearing sunglasses.
What does a normal Snellen chart finding of 20/20 mean?
The person can read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
The person can read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 40 feet.
The person can read at 40 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
The person can read at 10 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
A result of 20/40 on the Snellen chart means:
The person has perfect vision
The person reads at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 40 feet
The person reads at 40 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 20 feet
The person is legally blind
Conductive hearing loss involves:
Pathology of the inner ear
Mechanical dysfunction of the external or middle ear
Damage to the auditory cortex
None of the above
Which of the following is a cause of conductive hearing loss?
Presbycusis
Cerumen impaction
Ototoxic drugs
Noise exposure
In conductive hearing loss, sound is:
Effectively transmitted to the inner ear
Not effectively transmitted to the inner ear
Amplified in the inner ear
None of the above
In the Weber test for conductive hearing loss, sound lateralizes to the ______ ear.
bad
good
opposite
same
In the Rinne test for conductive hearing loss, which is heard longer or equal in the affected ear?
Air conduction (AC)
Bone conduction (BC)
Both are equal
Neither
Sensorineural (perceptive) hearing loss involves pathology of:
The external ear
The middle ear
The inner ear, cranial nerve VIII, or the auditory areas of the cerebral cortex
The nose
Which of the following is a cause of sensorineural hearing loss?
Cerumen impaction
Otosclerosis
Presbycusis
Otitis media with effusion
What is the normal desirable value for Total Cholesterol according to the Cholesterol Expected Findings section?
Less than 100 mg/dL
Less than 200 mg/dL
Less than 300 mg/dL
Less than 400 mg/dL
According to the Cholesterol Expected Findings, HDL (High-Density Lipoprotein) is considered protective against heart disease if it is:
Greater than 40 mg/dL
Greater than 60 mg/dL
Less than 60 mg/dL
Less than 40 mg/dL
Fill in the blank: Less than ____ mg/dL is considered a major risk factor for HDL (High-Density Lipoprotein) according to the Cholesterol Expected Findings section.
40
60
100
80
Which of the following is NOT a part of the inspection during cardiac assessment?
A) Observing for pulsations, heaves, or thrills in the precordium
B) Inspecting for jugular venous distention (JVD)
C) Palpating for the apical impulse
D) Looking for color, skin integrity, hair distribution, and swelling in extremities
During auscultation, which area is described as: 'S2 louder than S1'?
Aortic area (2nd R ICS, sternal border)
Mitral area (5th L ICS, midclavicular line)
Tricuspid area (4th/5th L ICS, sternal border)
Pulmonic area (2nd L ICS, sternal border)
According to the assessment findings, what should be noted when palpating pulses during cardiac assessment?
Carotid, brachial, radial, femoral, popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses bilaterally, noting rate, rhythm, and force (0=absent, 1+=weak, 2+=normal, 3+=bounding).
Only the carotid and radial pulses, noting color and temperature of the skin.
Palpate only one side of the body and record the presence or absence of a pulse.
Check pulses only if the patient complains of pain in the limbs.
What is the expected finding for heart sounds during auscultation according to the assessment section?
Clear S1 (closure of AV valves) and S2 (closure of semilunar valves) heart sounds. No murmurs, rubs, or gallops (S3 or S4). Regular rate and rhythm.
Muffled heart sounds with irregular rhythm and presence of a loud S3.
Continuous murmur with splitting of S2 and presence of a pericardial rub.
Absent S1 and S2 with frequent premature ventricular contractions.
Which of the following LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein) cholesterol levels is considered optimal?
Less than 100 mg/dL
100-129 mg/dL
130-159 mg/dL
Greater than 190 mg/dL
Fill in the blank: An LDL cholesterol level of 160-189 mg/dL is considered _______.
high
optimal
borderline low
very low
Which of the following is a sign of decreased perfusion in the extremities?
Dizziness
Numbness and tingling
Decreased urine output
Slurred speech
Which organ/system is associated with decreased urine output (oliguria) as a sign of decreased perfusion?
Kidneys
Liver
Lungs
Pancreas
Which skin color change is associated with arterial insufficiency (PAD)?
Normal, cyanotic, or brownish pigmentation
Pale on elevation, rubor on dependency (red when lowered); shiny skin
Fill in the blank: Edema is _______ or mild in arterial insufficiency (PAD), unless the limb is dependent.
absent
severe
constant
worsening
Which of the following is a characteristic skin change in venous insufficiency (PVD)?
Thin, brittle, shiny skin; hair loss; thick nails; atrophy
Thickened, tough skin; may have scaling, itching
Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial ulcers?
A) Usually on medial malleolus, uneven edges, ruddy base, profuse drainage, moderately painful
B) Usually on toes, feet, lateral malleolus; 'punched out,' pale base, little drainage, very painful
C) Usually on the arms, red base, heavy drainage, not painful
Capillary refill is considered prolonged if it is greater than how many seconds?
3 seconds
1 second
2 seconds
4 seconds
Which of the following describes a 1+ on the Edema Scale?
Deep pitting, indentation remains for a short time, leg looks swollen.
Mild pitting, slight indentation, no perceptible swelling of the leg.
Very deep pitting, indentation lasts a long time, leg is grossly swollen and distorted.
Moderate pitting, indentation subsides rapidly.
Which of the following describes a 2+ on the Edema Scale?
Moderate pitting, indentation subsides rapidly.
Deep pitting, indentation remains for a short time, leg looks swollen.
Very deep pitting, indentation lasts a long time, leg is grossly swollen and distorted.
Mild pitting, slight indentation, no perceptible swelling of the leg.
Which of the following describes a 3+ on the Edema Scale?
Deep pitting, indentation remains for a short time, leg looks swollen.
Very deep pitting, indentation lasts a long time, leg is grossly swollen and distorted.
Mild pitting, slight indentation, no perceptible swelling of the leg.
Moderate pitting, indentation subsides rapidly.
Which of the following describes a 4+ on the Edema Scale?
Very deep pitting, indentation lasts a long time, leg is grossly swollen and distorted.
Deep pitting, indentation remains for a short time, leg looks swollen.
Mild pitting, slight indentation, no perceptible swelling of the leg.
Moderate pitting, indentation subsides rapidly.
During a breast exam, which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom that requires further assessment (red flag)?
New lump or mass (especially hard, irregular, fixed, non-tender)
Skin retraction, dimpling, or puckering
Nipple discharge (especially bloody, spontaneous, or unilateral)
Symmetrical breast shape with no lumps or discharge
What is the purpose of palpating the axillary lymph nodes during a breast exam?
To check for enlarged lymph nodes, which can be a sign of breast cancer.
To assess the temperature of the skin in the area.
To determine the size of the breast tissue.
To check for the presence of a rash.
Which organs are found in the Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen?
Liver (most of it), Gallbladder, Duodenum, Head of Pancreas, Right Kidney and Adrenal Gland, Hepatic Flexure of Colon, Part of Ascending and Transverse Colon
Stomach, Spleen, Left Lobe of Liver, Body of Pancreas, Left Kidney and Adrenal Gland, Splenic Flexure of Colon, Part of Transverse and Descending Colon
Cecum, Appendix, Right Ovary and Fallopian Tube (female), Right Ureter, Right Spermatic Cord (male)
Part of Descending Colon, Sigmoid Colon, Left Ovary and Fallopian Tube (female), Left Ureter, Left Spermatic Cord (male)
Which abdominal quadrant contains the stomach and spleen?
Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)
Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)
Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)
Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)
Which organs are found in the Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ) of the abdomen?
Cecum, Appendix, Right Ovary and Fallopian Tube (female), Right Ureter, Right Spermatic Cord (male)
Stomach, Spleen, Pancreas, Left Kidney, Left Adrenal Gland
Liver, Gallbladder, Duodenum, Head of Pancreas, Right Kidney, Right Adrenal Gland
Sigmoid Colon, Left Ovary and Fallopian Tube (female), Left Ureter, Left Spermatic Cord (male)
What does black, tarry stool (melena) indicate?
Indicates upper GI bleeding (e.g., stomach, duodenum). The blood has been digested.
Indicates lower GI bleeding (e.g., colon, rectum).
Indicates a diet high in iron-rich foods.
Indicates a viral infection of the intestines.
What does red blood in stool (hematochezia) suggest?
Indicates lower GI bleeding (e.g., colon, rectum) or hemorrhoids. Bright red blood suggests bleeding close to the anus.
Indicates upper GI bleeding such as from the esophagus or stomach.
Is always a sign of a viral infection in the intestines.
Suggests a deficiency of iron in the diet.
Which stool color is associated with malabsorption of fat and pancreatic disorders?
Black, tarry stool
Red blood in stool
Yellow, greasy, foul-smelling stool
Green stool
What is the correct order of abdominal assessment?
Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Percussion, Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation
Auscultation, Palpation, Inspection, Percussion
What does pencil-thin stool indicate?
Can indicate an obstruction in the colon, such as a tumor.
Is a sign of increased fiber intake.
Suggests dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
Indicates a healthy digestive system.
During abdominal inspection, what should you observe for from ribs to pubis?
Contour (flat, scaphoid, rounded, protuberant)
Skin turgor and hydration only
Presence of bowel sounds
Palpation for tenderness
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic to look for during abdominal skin inspection?
Smooth, even color
Lesions
Scars
Swelling of joints
What is the normal shape of pubic hair distribution in males during abdominal inspection?
Diamond shape
Triangle shape
Linear shape
Oval shape
Auscultation is always performed before palpation/percussion to avoid altering bowel sounds.
True
False
What is the expected finding for normoactive bowel sounds?
Irregular gurgles and clicks, 5-30 times/minute
Continuous high-pitched sounds
No sounds heard for 5 minutes
Loud, frequent borborygmi
Which of the following describes hypoactive bowel sounds?
Loud, gurgling sounds
Diminished or absent bowel sounds (less than 5/min)
Irregular gurgles and clicks
None of the above
What does the presence of a bruit during vascular sounds auscultation suggest?
Arterial obstruction or aneurysm
Normal blood flow
Venous insufficiency
Heart murmur
During light palpation, what is the expected finding for the abdomen?
No tenderness or muscle guarding. Abdomen should feel soft.
Abdomen should be rigid and painful.
Palpation should elicit severe pain and rebound tenderness.
Abdomen should feel distended and tympanic.
Which organ edge may be palpable at or just below the right costal margin during deep palpation?
Liver edge
Spleen edge
Kidney edge
Pancreas edge
According to the Muscle Strength Testing Scale, what does a score of 0 indicate?
Slight flicker of contraction
No muscular contraction
Full ROM against gravity
Full ROM against gravity, some resistance
According to the Muscle Strength Testing Scale, what does a score of 5 indicate?
A) Full ROM against gravity, some resistance
B) Full ROM against gravity, full resistance (normal strength)
C) Slight flicker of contraction
D) No muscular contraction
What is the first step in the musculoskeletal spine assessment?
Palpation
Inspection
Range of Motion (ROM)
Scoliosis check
Which of the following is a feature of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) but not osteoarthritis (OA)?
Degenerative joint disease
Symmetrical joint involvement
Affects weight-bearing joints
Relieved by rest
Fill in the blank: In the muscle strength testing scale, a score of 3 means _________?
Full ROM against gravity.
No muscle contraction detected.
Full ROM against gravity with some resistance.
Full ROM with gravity eliminated.
Fill in the blank: The exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine is called ___________.
Kyphosis
Lordosis
Scoliosis
Ankylosis
Fill in the blank: The exaggerated lumbar curvature of the spine is called ___________.
Lordosis
Kyphosis
Scoliosis
Osteoporosis
Fill in the blank: Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes and lasting for hours, with 'gelling' after rest, is a symptom of _________
Rheumatoid arthritis
Osteoarthritis
Gout
Fibromyalgia
Fill in the blank: Hard, bony enlargement with little to no warmth is a symptom of _________.
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Gout
Cellulitis
Which of the following is a deformity seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
Heberden's nodes
Swan-neck deformity
Bouchard's nodes
None of the above
Fill in the blank: Fatigue, fever, anorexia, weight loss, and rheumatoid nodules are systemic symptoms of _________
Rheumatoid arthritis
Osteoarthritis
Gout
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Plantar flexion is the movement of the foot where the toes point upward toward the shin.
True
False
Fill in the blank: The ability to point toes downward through full range of motion is an ________ finding for plantar flexion.
Expected
Abnormal
Painful
Limited
Fill in the blank: Limited or absent plantar flexion, pain with movement, or inability to move the foot could indicate ________ or joint pathology.
muscle weakness, nerve damage
skin infection, rash
bone fracture, dislocation
tendonitis, bursitis
What is the movement called when a limb is bent at a joint, decreasing the angle between bones?
Extension
Flexion
Abduction
Rotation
Fill in the blank: Straightening a limb at a joint, increasing the angle between bones, is called _________.
Extension
Flexion
Rotation
Abduction
Fill in the blank: Moving a limb away from the midline of the body is called _________.
Abduction
Adduction
Flexion
Extension
Fill in the blank: Moving a limb toward the midline of the body is called _________.
Adduction
Abduction
Flexion
Extension
Fill in the blank: Moving a body part around its own axis is called _________.
Rotation
Flexion
Extension
Abduction
Fill in the blank: Circular movement of a limb, combining flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction, is called _________.
Circumduction
Rotation
Supination
Pronation
Fill in the blank: Turning the forearm so the palm faces upward is called _________.
Supination
Pronation
Flexion
Abduction
Fill in the blank: Turning the forearm so the palm faces downward is called _________.
Pronation
Supination
Flexion
Extension
Fill in the blank: Turning the sole of the foot inward is called _________.
Inversion
Eversion
Dorsiflexion
Plantarflexion
Fill in the blank: Turning the sole of the foot outward is called _________.
Eversion
Inversion
Dorsiflexion
Plantarflexion
Fill in the blank: Bending the foot upward toward the shin is called _________.
Dorsiflexion
Plantar flexion
Inversion
Eversion
Fill in the blank: Bending the foot downward away from the shin is called _________.
Plantar flexion
Dorsiflexion
Inversion
Eversion
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
CN I: Olfactory
CN II: Optic
CN V: Trigeminal
CN VII: Facial
What is the expected finding when assessing the CN I: Olfactory nerve?
Identifies smell bilaterally.
Visual acuity is intact.
Hears whispered words bilaterally.
Moves tongue side to side.
Which assessment is used for CN II: Optic nerve?
Visual acuity (Snellen chart)
Palpate temporal muscles
Ask patient to smile
Whisper test
What is the expected finding for CN II: Optic nerve assessment?
20/20 vision, full visual fields by confrontation, optic disc with clear margins.
Ptosis, unequal pupils, and impaired extraocular movements.
Facial droop, loss of taste on anterior two-thirds of tongue, and hyperacusis.
Hoarseness, loss of gag reflex, and deviation of the uvula.
Which cranial nerve controls eye movement, pupil constriction, and eyelid elevation?
CN III: Oculomotor
CN IV: Trochlear
CN VI: Abducens
CN VIII: Vestibulocochlear
What is the expected pupil size for CN III: Oculomotor nerve assessment?
Pupils 3-5mm, reactive to light and accommodation, EOMs intact, no ptosis.
Pupils 6-8mm, non-reactive to light, EOMs impaired, ptosis present.
Pupils 1-2mm, sluggish reaction to light, EOMs intact, mild ptosis.
Pupils unequal, non-reactive to accommodation, EOMs impaired, severe ptosis.
Which cranial nerve is assessed by testing EOMs for downward and inward movement?
CN IV: Trochlear
CN VI: Abducens
CN II: Optic
CN V: Trigeminal
