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geography 5.1

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Montreal Protocol, which addresses ozone depletion, was signed in which year?

a)

1985

b)

1987

c)

1990

d)

1992

2.

What is the permissible limit of lead in drinking water as per WHO standards (in mg/L)?

a)

0.01

b)

0.05

c)

0.10

d)

0.50

3.

The concept of 'Ecological Footprint' was developed by:

a)

Rachel Carson

b)

William Rees and Mathis Wackernagel

c)

E.O. Wilson

d)

Paul Ehrlich

4.

Which greenhouse gas has the highest Global Warming Potential (GWP)?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Methane

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Sulfur hexafluoride

5.

The 'Great Pacific Garbage Patch' is located in which ocean?

a)

Atlantic Ocean

b)

Indian Ocean

c)

Pacific Ocean (North Pacific Gyre)

d)

Arctic Ocean

6.

Bio-magnification was first documented through which chemical?

a)

DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)

b)

Mercury

c)

Lead

d)

Arsenic

7.

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under which act?

a)

Environment Protection Act, 1986

b)

National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

c)

Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

d)

Forest Conservation Act, 1980

8.

What is the acceptable noise level for residential areas during daytime as per CPCB (in dB)?

a)

45

b)

55

c)

65

d)

75

9.

The Minamata Convention deals with which pollutant?

a)

Lead

b)

Mercury

c)

Cadmium

d)

Arsenic

10.

Which layer of atmosphere contains maximum ozone concentration?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere (15-35 km altitude)

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

11.

Why is eutrophication considered harmful despite increasing nutrients in water bodies?

a)

It decreases water temperature

b)

It depletes dissolved oxygen through algal bloom decomposition, killing aquatic life

c)

It increases water pH only

d)

It has no harmful effects

12.

How does acid rain affect limestone buildings and monuments?

a)

It strengthens them

b)

It reacts with calcium carbonate forming soluble calcium sulfate, causing erosion

c)

No chemical reaction occurs

d)

It only changes color

13.

Why are CFCs particularly dangerous for the ozone layer?

a)

They are toxic

b)

Chlorine atoms from CFCs catalytically destroy ozone molecules in chain reactions

c)

They absorb sunlight

d)

They are greenhouse gases only

14.

How does thermal pollution from power plants affect aquatic ecosystems?

a)

It improves fish growth

b)

Reduces dissolved oxygen, alters metabolism, and disrupts reproductive cycles

c)

It cools the water

d)

No significant effect

15.

Why is nuclear waste disposal particularly challenging?

a)

It is expensive only

b)

Radioactive decay spans thousands of years requiring long-term isolation

c)

It occupies large space

d)

It smells bad

16.

A factory releases effluent with BOD of 400 mg/L into a river. What immediate effect will this have?

a)

Improved water quality

b)

Severe oxygen depletion threatening aquatic life

c)

No change

d)

Increased fish population

17.

If a city wants to reduce urban heat island effect, which measure would be most effective?

a)

Building more concrete structures

b)

Increasing green cover, reflective roofs, and water bodies

c)

Removing all trees

d)

Building taller buildings

18.

To reduce agricultural runoff pollution, which farming practice is recommended?

a)

Increase fertilizer use

b)

Precision agriculture, buffer strips, and controlled fertilizer application

c)

Remove all vegetation

d)

Continuous flooding

19.

A community wants to manage plastic waste effectively. What integrated approach should they adopt?

a)

Burn all plastic

b)

Reduce usage, segregate, recycle, and use alternatives

c)

Dump in landfills only

d)

Ignore the problem

20.

To prevent groundwater contamination from industrial waste, what measure is essential?

a)

Pour waste directly

b)

Lined landfills, treatment before disposal, monitoring wells

c)

Dilute and discharge

d)

Underground injection

21.

The term 'Sustainable Development' was popularized by which commission's report?

a)

Club of Rome Report

b)

Brundtland Commission Report (Our Common Future, 1987)

c)

Stockholm Conference

d)

Kyoto Protocol

22.

How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by UN in 2015?

a)

8

b)

15

c)

17

d)

20

23.

The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise to:

a)

Below 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels

b)

Below 2°C with efforts toward 1.5°C

c)

Below 3°C

d)

Below 4°C

24.

India's target year for achieving Net Zero carbon emissions is:

a)

2030

b)

2050

c)

2070

d)

2080

25.

The 'Chipko Movement' originated in which Indian state?

a)

Kerala

b)

Uttarakhand (then Uttar Pradesh)

c)

Maharashtra

d)

West Bengal

26.

What percentage of forest cover does India aim to maintain as per National Forest Policy?

a)

25%

b)

33%

c)

40%

d)

50%

27.

The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) includes how many missions?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

10

d)

12

28.

The concept of 'Tragedy of the Commons' was proposed by:

a)

Garrett Hardin

b)

Rachel Carson

c)

E.O. Wilson

d)

Paul Ehrlich

29.

The Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in India in:

a)

1972

b)

1980

c)

1986

d)

1991

30.

What is India's rank in the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2022?

a)

120

b)

140

c)

180

d)

200

31.

Why is the 'circular economy' model considered superior to the linear model?

a)

It is older

b)

It minimizes waste by reusing, recycling, and regenerating materials continuously

c)

It is cheaper always

d)

It requires no technology

32.

How does agroforestry contribute to sustainable development?

a)

It reduces crop yield

b)

Integrates trees with crops providing economic, environmental, and social benefits

c)

It increases soil erosion

d)

It requires more water

33.

Why is community participation crucial for sustainable development?

a)

Government mandate only

b)

Local knowledge, ownership, and context-specific solutions ensure long-term success

c)

It reduces costs only

d)

No particular reason

34.

How do carbon credits promote emission reduction?

a)

They don't work

b)

Create economic incentive by allowing trade of emission reductions

c)

They increase emissions

d)

Only symbolic value

35.

Why is biodiversity important for ecosystem resilience?

4 lines
36.

Why is biodiversity important for ecosystem resilience?

a)

It looks beautiful

b)

Genetic diversity enables adaptation to environmental changes and stress

c)

No relationship

d)

It complicates management

37.

A developing region wants balanced economic growth and environmental protection. Which approach should they prioritize?

a)

Rapid industrialization ignoring environment

b)

Green technology, renewable energy, sustainable practices with phased development

c)

Complete ban on development

d)

Copy developed nations

38.

To restore a degraded watershed, what integrated management strategy is most effective?

a)

Do nothing

b)

Soil conservation, afforestation, water harvesting, and community involvement

c)

Build dams only

d)

Remove all vegetation

39.

A farmer wants to adopt organic farming. What transition strategy would be advisable?

a)

Immediate complete shift

b)

Gradual transition, soil building, learning pest management, market linkage

c)

Continue chemical farming

d)

Abandon farming

40.

To promote renewable energy in rural areas, which policy measure would be most effective?

a)

Ban fossil fuels immediately

b)

Subsidies, awareness, technical support, and grid connectivity

c)

No intervention

d)

Import everything

41.

A city faces severe water scarcity. What sustainable solution should be implemented?

a)

Import water indefinitely

b)

Rainwater harvesting, wastewater treatment, demand management, leak prevention

c)

Reduce population

d)

Pray for rain

42.

The age of Earth is approximately:

a)

3.5 billion years

b)

4.54 billion years

c)

5.5 billion years

d)

6 billion years

43.

Which planet has the shortest day (fastest rotation)?

a)

Earth

b)

Jupiter (approximately 10 hours)

c)

Mars

d)

Saturn

44.

The Kuiper Belt is located beyond which planet?

a)

Mars

b)

Jupiter

c)

Saturn

d)

Neptune

45.

The Great Red Spot is a storm on which planet?

a)

Saturn

b)

Jupiter

c)

Neptune

d)

Uranus

46.

Earth's inner core is primarily composed of:

a)

Silicon and oxygen

b)

Iron and nickel

c)

Carbon

d)

Magnesium

47.

The asteroid belt is located between which two planets?

a)

Earth and Mars

b)

Mars and Jupiter

c)

Jupiter and Saturn

d)

Saturn and Uranus

48.

What is the average distance between Earth and Sun called?

a)

Light year

b)

Astronomical Unit (AU) - approximately 150 million km

c)

Parsec

d)

Solar constant

49.

The Mohorovičić discontinuity (Moho) separates:

a)

Crust and mantle

b)

Mantle and outer core

c)

Outer and inner core

d)

Lithosphere and asthenosphere

50.

Which planet has the most extensive ring system?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Saturn

c)

Uranus

d)

Neptune

51.

The largest volcano in the solar system, Olympus Mons, is located on:

a)

Venus

b)

Mars

c)

Earth

d)

Jupiter's moon Io

52.

Why does Venus have higher surface temperature than Mercury despite being farther from Sun?

a)

It is larger

b)

Runaway greenhouse effect due to thick CO2 atmosphere

c)

Internal heat generation

d)

Closer to Earth

53.

How do scientists determine Earth's internal structure without direct observation?

a)

Guessing

b)

Seismic wave velocity, refraction, and shadow zones analysis

c)

Drilling to core

d)

Satellite imagery

54.

Why do planets orbit Sun in elliptical paths rather than circular?

a)

Random chance

b)

Gravitational dynamics and conservation of angular momentum (Kepler's Laws)

c)

Sun's preference

d)

Solar wind

55.

How does Earth's magnetic field protect life?

a)

It provides electricity

b)

Deflects harmful solar wind and cosmic radiation

c)

Controls climate

d)

No protective function

56.

Why is the ocean floor younger than continental crust?

a)

It is not younger

b)

Continuous creation at mid-ocean ridges and subduction at trenches

c)

Recent formation

d)

Continental preference

57.

If a space mission needs to minimize travel time to Mars, when should it be launched?

a)

Any time

b)

During Hohmann transfer window when Earth-Mars alignment is optimal (every 26 months)

c)

Winter only

d)

Summer only

58.

To establish a permanent lunar base, which location would be most suitable?

a)

Lunar highlands

b)

Polar regions with water ice and continuous sunlight areas

c)

Far side only

d)

Random location

59.

If Earth's rotation suddenly stopped, what immediate consequence would occur?

a)

Nothing

b)

Catastrophic atmospheric and oceanic redistribution, climate disruption

c)

Better weather

d)

Longer days only

60.

To detect exoplanets around distant stars, which method is most commonly used?

a)

Direct imaging

b)

Transit method (brightness dimming) and radial velocity

c)

Listening

d)

Guessing

61.

If a geologist wants to determine the age of a rock, which technique should be used?

a)

Visual inspection

b)

Radiometric dating using isotope decay

c)

Taste test

d)

Color analysis

62.

The Pacific Ring of Fire accounts for what percentage of world's active volcanoes?

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

75%

d)

90%

63.

The deepest part of the ocean, Challenger Deep, is located in which trench?

a)

Peru-Chile Trench

b)

Mariana Trench (approximately 11,000 m)

c)

Java Trench

d)

Puerto Rico Trench

64.

Continental drift theory was proposed by:

a)

Harry Hess

b)

Alfred Wegener

c)

James Hutton

d)

Charles Lyell

65.

What percentage of Earth's water is freshwater?

a)

1%

b)

2.5%

c)

5%

d)

10%

66.

The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is an example of:

a)

Convergent boundary

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Transform boundary

d)

Continental rift

67.

The highest mountain on ocean floor (from base to peak) is:

a)

Mount Everest

b)

Mauna Kea

c)

K2

d)

Kilimanjaro

68.

Seafloor spreading hypothesis was proposed by:

a)

Alfred Wegener

b)

Harry Hess

c)

J. Tuzo Wilson

d)

Arthur Holmes

69.

The temperature gradient in Earth's crust is approximately:

a)

1°C per 10 meters

b)

1°C per 32 meters (3°C per 100m)

c)

10°C per 100 meters

d)

1°C per 100 meters

70.

The phenomenon of ocean water circulation driven by density differences is called:

a)

Surface current

b)

Thermohaline circulation

c)

Tidal current

d)

Wind drift

71.

The boundary between Pacific and Indian tectonic plates passes near:

a)

Hawaii

b)

New Zealand

c)

Madagascar

d)

Iceland

72.

The boundary between Pacific and Indian tectonic plates passes near:

a)

Hawaii

b)

New Zealand

c)

Madagascar

d)

Iceland

73.

Why are mid-ocean ridges sites of volcanic activity?

a)

Random occurrence

b)

Upwelling magma fills gap created by diverging plates

c)

Ocean water pressure

d)

No volcanic activity occurs

74.

How do ocean currents influence regional climate?

a)

They don't

b)

Warm currents increase temperature and moisture; cold currents cool regions

c)

Only local effects

d)

Unpredictable influence

75.

Why is the oceanic crust denser than continental crust?

a)

It is not denser

b)

Basaltic composition (mafic minerals) vs granitic (felsic minerals)

c)

Water pressure

d)

Age difference

76.

How does plate tectonics explain distribution of earthquakes?

a)

Random distribution

b)

Concentrated along plate boundaries where stress accumulates

c)

Uniform distribution

d)

Only in oceans

77.

Why do coral reefs form primarily in shallow tropical waters?

a)

Random preference

b)

Symbiotic algae require sunlight; warm temperatures needed for coral growth

c)

Deep water available

d)

Fish preference

78.

If a new island appears due to volcanic activity, how would you determine if it's along a plate boundary?

a)

Guess

b)

Map seismic activity, determine tectonic setting, analyze magma composition

c)

Visual inspection only

d)

Wait and watch

79.

To predict tsunami arrival time after an undersea earthquake, what information is needed?

a)

Wind speed

b)

Earthquake location, magnitude, water depth, and distance to coast

c)

Tide timing

d)

Moon phase

80.

A coastal region experiences rapid erosion. What integrated management approach should be adopted?

a)

Build walls everywhere

b)

Study wave patterns, sediment transport, implement soft engineering, mangrove restoration

c)

Abandon coast

d)

Do nothing

81.

To locate potential geothermal energy sites, what geological features should be surveyed?

a)

Random drilling

b)

Volcanic regions, hot springs, plate boundaries, subsurface temperature mapping

c)

Coastal areas only

d)

Desert regions

82.

If you discover a rock with marine fossils at 3000m altitude, what does this indicate?

a)

Fish flew there

b)

Tectonic uplift of former ocean floor

c)

Recent flood

d)

Contamination

83.

The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is:

a)

Doddabetta

b)

Anai Mudi (2,695 m in Western Ghats)

c)

Kodaikanal

d)

Javadi Hills

84.

Which river does NOT originate in Tamil Nadu?

a)

Cauvery

b)

Vaigai

c)

Thamirabarani

d)

Palar

85.

The Kallanai (Grand Anicut) was built across Cauvery river during:

a)

Pallava period

b)

Chola period (around 2nd century CE)

c)

Pandya period

d)

British period

86.

Tamil Nadu ranks which position in urbanization among Indian states?

a)

First

b)

Third

c)

Fifth

d)

Tenth

87.

The Mannar Gulf separates Tamil Nadu from:

a)

Andhra Pradesh

b)

Sri Lanka

c)

Kerala

d)

Karnataka

88.

Which agro-climatic zone covers maximum area in Tamil Nadu?

a)

Cauvery Delta Zone

b)

Northwestern Zone

c)

Western Zone

d)

Southern Zone

89.

Tamil Nadu's coastline length is approximately:

a)

906 km

b)

1076 km

c)

1200 km

d)

1500 km

90.

The major soil type in Cauvery delta region is:

a)

Red soil

b)

Alluvial soil

c)

Black soil

d)

Laterite soil

91.

Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary is famous for:

a)

Tigers

b)

Migratory birds

c)

Elephants

d)

Deer

92.

The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established in:

a)

1986

b)

1988

c)

1990

d)

1992

93.

Why does Tamil Nadu face water scarcity despite having several rivers?

a)

Too many rivers

b)

Seasonal rainfall pattern, high evaporation, increasing demand, interstate disputes

c)

No groundwater

d)

Government failure only

94.

How does Western Ghats influence Tamil Nadu's climate?

a)

No influence

b)

Creates rain shadow effect; blocks southwest monsoon causing dry climate in rain shadow areas

c)

Makes it colder

d)

Only aesthetic value

95.

Why is Tamil Nadu a leader in renewable energy despite limited conventional resources?

a)

Government mandate only

b)

High wind and solar potential, proactive policies, industrial demand

c)

No other options

d)

External pressure

96.

How does the Northeast monsoon benefit Tamil Nadu agriculture?

a)

It doesn't

b)

Provides major rainfall (October-December) for Rabi crops and tank irrigation

c)

Only damages crops

d)

Creates floods only

97.

Why are coastal areas of Tamil Nadu vulnerable to cyclones?

a)

Ocean proximity only

b)

Bay of Bengal cyclone path, flat coastal topography, high population density

c)

No particular reason

d)

Government neglect

98.

To improve water availability in drought-prone regions of Tamil Nadu, what integrated approach is needed?

a)

Build dams only

b)

Watershed development, farm ponds, drip irrigation, water budgeting, crop pattern change

c)

Import water

d)

Abandon agriculture

99.

If Chennai wants to become water-secure, what multi-pronged strategy should be implemented?

a)

Depend on rains

b)

Desalination, rainwater harvesting, wastewater recycling, aquifer recharge, demand management

c)

Buy from other states

d)

Reduce population

100.

To promote sustainable tourism in Nilgiris, what measures should be prioritized?

a)

Build more resorts

b)

Carrying capacity limits, eco-friendly practices, community involvement, conservation

c)

Unrestricted development

d)

Ban tourism

101.

A farmer in Coimbatore wants to optimize water use. Which irrigation method should be promoted?

a)

Flood irrigation

b)

Drip or sprinkler irrigation with mulching

c)

Canal irrigation only

d)

No irrigation

102.

To develop Salem district's industrial potential sustainably, what planning approach is required?

a)

Random industrialization

b)

Resource assessment, infrastructure development, environmental safeguards, skill training, balanced growth

c)

Copy other districts

d)

Only agriculture