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Blood Components

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are erythrocytes also known as?

a)

Red blood cells (RBCs)

b)

White blood cells (WBCs)

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

2.

What is the main function of erythrocytes?

a)

Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide through hemoglobin (Hgb)

b)

Produce antibodies to fight infections

c)

Regulate blood pressure by releasing hormones

d)

Initiate blood clotting by forming platelets

3.

What are leukocytes also known as?

a)

White blood cells (WBCs)

b)

Red blood cells (RBCs)

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

4.

What is the main function of leukocytes?

a)

Infection control and immunological reactions

b)

Oxygen transport in the blood

c)

Blood clotting

d)

Production of hormones

5.

Leukocytes can be classified into which two groups?

a)

Granulocytes and agranulocytes

b)

Erythrocytes and thrombocytes

c)

Plasma and serum

d)

Antibodies and antigens

6.

What are thrombocytes also known as?

a)

Platelets

b)

Red blood cells

c)

White blood cells

d)

Plasma

7.

What is the main function of thrombocytes?

a)

Blood clotting

b)

Oxygen transport

c)

Hormone production

d)

Digestion

8.

What is plasma in blood?

a)

Liquid portion

b)

Red blood cells

c)

White blood cells

d)

Platelets

9.

What does plasma contain besides being the liquid portion of blood?

a)

Other coagulation factors

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Bone marrow

10.

Until what age is fetal hemoglobin (Hgb) present in life?

a)

4 to 6 months

b)

1 to 2 years

c)

At birth only

d)

Up to 12 months

11.

What is the normal hemoglobin (g/dL) range for children aged 1–6 months?

a)

13.9–12.6

b)

10.0–11.0

c)

15.0–16.0

d)

8.5–9.5

12.

What is the normal hematocrit (%) for children aged 6 months to 2 years?

a)

36

b)

28

c)

42

d)

50

13.

What is the normal range of white blood cells (×10³/mL) for children aged 2–6 years?

a)

5.0–15.5

b)

3.0–9.0

c)

12.0–20.0

d)

1.0–4.5

14.

What is the normal platelet count (×10³/μL) for all pediatric age groups listed in the table?

a)

150–350

b)

50–100

c)

400–600

d)

90–140

15.

Which age group has the highest normal hemoglobin value according to the table?

a)

12–18 years (14.0–14.5 g/dL)

b)

6–12 years (11.5–15.5 g/dL)

c)

1–6 years (10.5–13.5 g/dL)

d)

Newborn (13.5–20.0 g/dL)

16.

Fill in the blank: One of the steps in hematological assessment is ________ blood count analysis.

a)

complete

b)

partial

c)

random

d)

initial

17.

Which of the following should be assessed for during hematological assessment?

a)

Tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypoxia

b)

Blood glucose levels

c)

Liver enzymes

d)

Renal function

18.

Fill in the blank: Assess the ________ of the complete blood count during hematological assessment.

a)

differential

b)

temperature

c)

pressure

d)

volume

19.

Fill in the blank: Hematological assessment includes coagulation studies and ________ times.

a)

clotting

b)

bleeding

c)

reaction

d)

sedimentation

20.

Which of the following is a nursing intervention to maintain adequate oxygenation in patients with hematological disorders?

a)

Monitor urine output

b)

Administer oxygen if Hgb or oxygen saturation low

c)

Monitor coagulation factors

d)

Adequate circulatory volume

21.

To maintain adequate hydration in patients with hematological disorders, what should be ensured?

a)

WBC alterations

b)

Adequate circulatory volume

c)

Risk for hemorrhage

d)

Monitor coagulation factors

22.

Maintaining adequate tissue perfusion involves monitoring urine output and ________ status.

a)

peripheral vascular

b)

respiratory

c)

neurological

d)

gastrointestinal

23.

Which of the following is important for the prevention or prompt control of infection in hematological disorders?

a)

Monitor coagulation factors

b)

WBC alterations

c)

Adequate circulatory volume

d)

Administer oxygen

24.

Preventing or controlling breathing in hematological disorders includes monitoring coagulation factors and assessing risk for ________.

a)

hemorrhage

b)

infection

c)

dehydration

d)

hypoglycemia

25.

Which of the following should be monitored to prevent or control breathing complications in hematological disorders?

a)

Urine output

b)

Coagulation factors

c)

Oxygen saturation

d)

WBC alterations

26.

Which of the following is a reason to maintain thermoregulation in patients with hematological disorders?

a)

Cold increases metabolic and oxygen demands

b)

Cold decreases metabolic and oxygen demands

c)

Heat increases metabolic and oxygen demands

d)

Heat decreases metabolic and oxygen demands

27.

Educating the patient and family about medication administration is an important nursing intervention for hematological disorders.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What is an important aspect of educating the patient and family for early detection in hematological disorders?

a)

Identifying crises (early detection)

b)

Encouraging excessive physical activity

c)

Avoiding all medications

d)

Ignoring minor symptoms

29.

Providing appropriate developmental care for patients with hematological disorders includes promoting normal growth and development.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Oxygenation effects are considered under which nursing intervention for hematological disorders?

a)

Maintain thermoregulation

b)

Provide psychosocial support

c)

Provide appropriate developmental care

d)

Prevent or control pain

31.

Preventing or controlling pain in hematological disorders is especially important in cases of ________.

a)

Sickle cell ischemia

b)

Iron deficiency anemia

c)

Hemophilia A

d)

Polycythemia vera

32.

Providing psychosocial support for patients with hematological disorders includes addressing the demands of care and ________.

a)

Siblings and finances

b)

Dietary restrictions

c)

Physical therapy

d)

Medication schedules

33.

What is the abnormal hemoglobin gene associated with Sickle Cell Disease?

a)

Hgb S

b)

Hgb A

c)

Hgb F

d)

Hgb C

34.

What shape do red blood cells (RBCs) take in Sickle Cell Disease?

a)

Sickle-shaped

b)

Round

c)

Oval

d)

Star-shaped

35.

Sickle Cell Disease is which type of genetic disorder?

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

Autosomal recessive

c)

X-linked recessive

d)

Mitochondrial

36.

Carriers of the gene for Sickle Cell Disease are usually:

a)

Asymptomatic

b)

Symptomatic with severe pain

c)

Always anemic

d)

Always require blood transfusions

37.

Sickle Cell Disease is ethnically linked to which of the following groups?

a)

African

b)

Mediterranean

c)

Hispanic

d)

Middle Eastern

e)

Asian

38.

Which hemoglobin is protectant for the first 4 to 6 months of life in Sickle Cell Disease?

a)

HgB F

b)

HgB A

c)

HgB S

d)

HgB C

39.

What are two complications of Sickle Cell Disease mentioned in the facts?

a)

Occlusion and hemolysis

b)

Hypertension and diabetes

c)

Asthma and bronchitis

d)

Arthritis and osteoporosis

40.

Premature RBC death in Sickle Cell Disease leads to which two outcomes?

a)

Release free iron

b)

Absorb in spleen and liver

c)

Increase RBC count

d)

None of the above

41.

Refer to the diagram showing genetic transmission of sickle cell anemia: Autosomal recessive inheritance. What is the genotype of a normal male offspring?

a)

NN

b)

Nd

c)

dd

d)

Nn

42.

What is the genotype of an affected female offspring?

a)

NN

b)

Nd

c)

dd

d)

Nn

43.

Refer to the diagram showing genetic transmission of sickle cell anemia: Autosomal recessive inheritance. Fill in the blank: The genotype of a carrier male offspring is ___.

a)

Nd

b)

NN

c)

dd

d)

Nd'

44.

What are the triggers for sickle cell crises?

a)

Hypoxia, acidosis, dehydration, fever, and hypothermia

b)

Hyperglycemia, hypertension, and obesity

c)

Allergies and asthma

d)

None of the above

45.

Which of the following is a symptom of vasoocclusive sickle cell crisis?

a)

Severe pain from ischemia

b)

Increased infections

c)

Pulmonary vessel occlusion

d)

Neuro assessments

46.

Dactylitis is associated with which type of sickle cell crisis?

a)

Vasoocclusive (occluding vascular circulation)

b)

Aplastic crisis

c)

Hemolytic crisis

d)

Sequestration crisis

47.

Splenic sequestration in sickle cell disease can lead to increased infections and may require what surgical procedure?

a)

Splenectomy

b)

Appendectomy

c)

Cholecystectomy

d)

Nephrectomy

48.

Silent cerebral infarct in sickle cell disease requires which type of assessments?

a)

Neuro assessments

b)

Cardiac assessments

c)

Renal assessments

d)

Pulmonary assessments

49.

Stroke or silent cerebral infarct can occur as a complication of sickle cell crises.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease is characterized by:

a)

Pulmonary vessel occlusion

b)

Mimics pneumonia but infarcts and not infiltrations

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

51.

Fill in the blank: One way to address the triggers of sickle cell disease is to use ________ fluid for dehydration.

a)

isotonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

hypertonic

d)

colloid

52.

Fill in the blank: To help address the triggers of sickle cell disease, ________ compresses can be used.

a)

warm

b)

cold

c)

wet

d)

dry

53.

Fill in the blank: Preventing infection in sickle cell disease can be achieved through hand washing, antibiotics, and ________.

a)

vaccinations

b)

exercise

c)

sun exposure

d)

fasting

54.

Fill in the blank: It is important to treat ________ quickly in patients with sickle cell disease.

a)

fevers

b)

headaches

c)

rashes

d)

coughs

55.

Fill in the blank: One nonpharmacological pain management strategy for sickle cell disease is ________ interventions.

a)

nonpharmacological

b)

surgical

c)

pharmacological

d)

nutritional

56.

Fill in the blank: Nonsteroidal ________ medications adjunct can be used for pain management in sickle cell disease.

a)

anti-inflammatory

b)

antibiotic

c)

antiviral

d)

antifungal

57.

Fill in the blank: ________ can be used for pain management in sickle cell disease when necessary.

a)

Opioids

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antivirals

d)

Antifungals

58.

Fill in the blank: Bone marrow transplantation options for sickle cell disease include autologous stem cell therapy with human leukocyte antigen-matched sibling and ________ blood transplants.

a)

cord

b)

arterial

c)

venous

d)

plasma

59.

Hydroxyurea: ________ the level of fetal Hgb.

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Does not change

d)

Destroys

60.

Hydroxyurea: Reduces amount of crises and promotes ________ function.

a)

splenic

b)

renal

c)

hepatic

d)

pulmonary

61.

Hydroxyurea: Can cause ________.

a)

neutropenia

b)

hypertension

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

alopecia

62.

Deferoxamine: Used if hemolysis results in high levels of free ________.

a)

iron

b)

calcium

c)

potassium

d)

magnesium

63.

Deferoxamine: Subcutaneous infusion is a chelating agent to bind which substance?

a)

Iron

b)

Calcium

c)

Potassium

d)

Magnesium

64.

Deferoxamine should be used with which vitamin?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

Vitamin K

65.

Deferoxamine: What should be monitored for?

a)

side effects

b)

blood pressure

c)

heart rate

d)

temperature

66.

Transfusions of packed ________ are a treatment for Sickle Cell Disease.

a)

RBCs

b)

Platelets

c)

Plasma

d)

White Blood Cells

67.

Psychosocial support for Sickle Cell Disease includes support from the ________ Foundation and family.

a)

Sickle Cell

b)

Cancer

c)

Diabetes

d)

Heart

68.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for Sickle Cell Disease?

a)

Hydroxyurea

b)

Deferoxamine

c)

Insulin

d)

Transfusions of packed RBCs

69.

What is hemophilia?

a)

A) A bleeding disorder resulting in deficits of coagulation factors

b)

B) A bone disorder

c)

C) A respiratory disorder

d)

D) A digestive disorder

70.

Hemophilia is typically inherited by sons of mothers who carry the trait.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Hemophilia A is also known as _________.

a)

Classic hemophilia

b)

Christmas disease

c)

Von Willebrand disease

d)

Sickle cell anemia

72.

Which coagulation factor is deficient in Hemophilia A?

a)

Factor V

b)

Factor VIII

c)

Factor IX

d)

Factor X

73.

Hemophilia A is inherited as which type of genetic disorder?

a)

A) Autosomal dominant

b)

B) Autosomal recessive

c)

C) X-linked recessive

d)

D) Y-linked dominant

74.

Which form of hemophilia is the most common?

a)

Hemophilia A

b)

Hemophilia B

c)

Hemophilia C

d)

Hemophilia D

75.

Hemophilia B is also known as _________.

a)

Christmas disease

b)

Von Willebrand disease

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Hemophilia A

76.

Which coagulation factor is affected in Hemophilia B?

a)

Factor V

b)

Factor VIII

c)

Factor IX

d)

Factor X

77.

Which of the following is a manifestation of Hemophilia #2?

a)

Spontaneous or traumatic bleeding

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Frequent headaches

d)

Skin rash

78.

The severity of Hemophilia #2 ranges from ______ to severe.

a)

mild

b)

acute

c)

chronic

d)

moderate

79.

Bleeding in Hemophilia #2 can be:

a)

Only external

b)

Only internal

c)

Both external and internal after injuries

d)

Only in the brain

80.

Hemophilia #2 can cause bleeding within tissues and joints from normal activities such as throwing a ball or running.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for Hemophilia #2?

a)

Monitor clotting times and coagulation studies

b)

Factor replacement

c)

Antibiotic therapy

d)

Desmopressin intranasal

82.

Factor replacement for Hemophilia #2 can be given:

a)

Only after injuries

b)

Prophylactic or on demand

c)

Only to children

d)

Only in hospitals

83.

The dose range for factor replacement in Hemophilia #2 varies by ______.

a)

injury

b)

age

c)

gender

d)

weight

84.

How is factor replacement administered in Hemophilia #2?

a)

Reconstitute and administer IV.

b)

Administer orally with food.

c)

Apply topically to the affected area.

d)

Inject subcutaneously into the abdomen.

85.

RICE stands for Rest, Ice, Compression, and ______.

a)

Elevate

b)

Exercise

c)

Exhale

d)

Energize

86.

Monitoring for signs of internal bleeding, especially intracranial, is important in the treatment of Hemophilia #2.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

What is one expected finding of Iron Deficiency Anemia? Fill in the blank: ________

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Jaundice

88.

What is one expected finding of Iron Deficiency Anemia? Fill in the blank: ________

a)

Pallor

b)

Jaundice

c)

Hypertension

d)

Polycythemia

89.

What is one expected finding of Iron Deficiency Anemia? Fill in the blank: ________

a)

Brittle, Spoon-Shaped Fingernails

b)

Jaundice

c)

Hyperpigmentation of the skin

d)

Clubbing of the fingers

90.

What is one expected finding of Iron Deficiency Anemia? Fill in the blank: ________

a)

Fatigue, irritability, and muscle weakness

b)

Increased appetite and weight gain

c)

Jaundice and dark urine

d)

Bradycardia and hypertension

91.

What is one expected finding of Iron Deficiency Anemia? Fill in the blank: ________

a)

Cravings for non-nutritive substances

b)

Increased hemoglobin levels

c)

Jaundice

d)

Bradycardia

92.

Epistaxis is also known as _________.

a)

Nosebleeds

b)

Headaches

c)

Earaches

d)

Sore throat

93.

Which of the following is a risk factor for epistaxis?

a)

High humidity

b)

Trauma (picking or rubbing the nose)

c)

Excessive exercise

d)

Overeating

94.

Which of the following is a risk factor for epistaxis?

a)

Low humidity

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Sun exposure

d)

Cold weather

95.

Which of the following medications can increase the risk of epistaxis?

a)

Medications that affect clotting

b)

Painkillers

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Vitamins

96.

One underlying disease that can be a risk factor for epistaxis is:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Asthma

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hypothyroidism

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