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Worksheets

Day 10 p. 71-79

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A Carnot operates between two reservoirs. One reservoir is at a higher temperature, TH, and the other is a cooler is a cooler temperature, TC. What is the coefficient of performance, COP, of the refrigerator?

a)

TH / TC

b)

TH – TC/TH

c)

1 – TC/TH

d)

TC / (TH-TC)

2.

All of the following processes strengthen metals, EXCEPT:

a)

Annealing above the recrystallization temperature

b)

Work hardening by mechanical deformation below the recrystallization temperature (cold working)

c)

Heat treatment such as quenching and tempering, for production of a finer microstructure

d)

Precipitation processes, such as age hardening, which produce high strength by formation of sub microscopic phases during low temperature heat treatment

3.

The valence hand model used to explain metallic conduction is based on all the following statements, EXCEPT:

a)

Each valence band may contain up to 2n electrons/n atom: each electron lies at a discretely different level

b)

Fermi energy level, Ef, is essentially temperature independent, and is the energy at which 50% of available energy states are occupied

c)

A conduction bad lies at the next higher set of electronic energy levels above those occupied at the ground state

d)

Conduction occurs when an electron remains in its existent valence band

4.

Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically conductive with electrons as majority carriers, when doped with which of the following?

a)

nothing

b)

antimony

c)

boron

d)

germanium

5.

Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?

a)

0 K and one atmosphere pressure

b)

32 °F and zero pressure

c)

0 °F and zero pressure

d)

0 °C and one atmosphere pressure

6.

When the emitter to base of an npn transistor is forward biased, and base to collector is reverse biased, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

a)

Electrons are majority carries in the n – emitter and n – collector regions

b)

Electrons are minority carries in the p – base region

c)

Holes are majority carries in the p – base region

d)

The emitter is positive with respect to the collector

7.

All of the following statements about solid solution are correct, EXCEPT:

a)

Solid solutions can result when basic structure of the solvent can accommodate solute additions

b)

In solid solution larger solute atoms occupy the interstitial space between solvent atoms that are located at the lattice sites

c)

Solid solutions may result by substitution of one atomic species for another, provided radii and electronic structure are compatible

d)

Order – disorder transitions that occur at elevated temperature in solid solutions involve changes due to thermal agitation from preferred orientation to random occupancy of lattice sites

8.

All of the following statements about ferromagnetism are correct EXCEPT:

a)

Magnetic domains are small volumes existent within a single crystal where atomic magnetic moments are unidirectionally aligned

b)

Domains are randomly oriented when unmagnetized. On magnetization, domains oriented with the external field grow at the expense of unaligned domains

c)

Impurities, inclusions and strain hardening interfere with change of domain boundaries, and add to the permanency of a magnet

d)

High magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic materials disappears below the Curie temperature

9.

All of the following statements about steels are correct, EXCEPT:

a)

Yield strength of commercially available heat treated alloy steels does not exceed 200,000 psi

b)

High temperature alloys used in jet engine turbine blades can withstand 2000°F continuously over extended period

c)

Intergranular corrosion of chromium – nickel stainless steels is reduced when stabilized by addition of columbium (niobium), titanium or tantalum to preferentially form carbides and prevent chromium depletion and chromium carbide precipitation is grain boundary areas

d)

Abrasion resistance of extra strength steels may be obtained by increasing hardness to 225 – 400 Brinell at the expense of some ductility and toughness

10.

Steels can be strengthened by all of the following practices, EXCEPT:

a)

annealing

b)

work hardening

c)

quenching and tempering

d)

grain refinement

11.

All of the following statements about the austenite – martensite – bainite transformation in steel are correct, EXCEPT:

a)

Martensite is fine grained alpha-ferrite, supersaturated with carbon, in a metastable body centered tetragonal structure. It forms by shear (slippage) during the rapid quench of face centered cubic austenite ( - ferrite)

b)

Martensite is strong and hard, but brittle, Tampering toughens it and reduces brittleness

c)

Tempering of martensite is done by judicious reheating to produce, by diffusion, a fine – grained tough, strong microstructures

d)

Bainite and tempered martensite have distinctively different microstructures

12.

All of the following statements about mechanical failure are true, EXCEPT:

a)

Brittle fracture occurs with little plastic deformation and relatively small energy absorption

b)

Ductile fracture is characterized by significant amounts of energy absorption and plastic deformation (evidenced by elongation and reduction in cross-sectional area)

c)

Ductile – brittle transition in failure mode occurs at reduced temperatures for most materials, because fracture strength remains constant with temperature while yield strength increases as temperature is reduced. At high temperatures yield strength is least; at low temperatures fracture strength is least

d)

Fatigue failure due to cyclic stress frequency dependent

13.

All of the following statements about rusting of iron are correct, EXCEPT:

a)

Contact with water, and oxygen are necessary for fursting to occur

b)

Contact with a more electropositive metal reduces rusting

c)

Halides aggravate rusting, a process which involves electrochemical oxidation-reduction reactions

d)

Pitting occurs in oxygen – rich anodic areas, and the rust is deposited nearby

14.

Which statement about area moments of inertia is false?

a)

I = ∫ d^2 (dA)

b)

The area moment of inertia arises whenever the magnitude of the surface forces varies linearly with distance

c)

The moment of inertia of a large area is equal to the summation of the inertia of the smaller areas within the larger area

d)

The area closest to the axis of interest are the most significant

15.

Which of the following affects most of the electrical and thermal properties of materials?

a)

the atomic weight expressed in grams per gram-atom

b)

the electrons, particularly the outermost ones

c)

the magnitude of electrical charge of the protons

d)

the weight of the atoms

16.

Which of the following is not a method of non-destructive testing of steel casting and forgings?

a)

radiography

b)

magnetic particle

c)

ultrasonic

d)

chemical analysis

17.

Compressive strength of fully cured concrete is most directly related to:

a)

sand-gravel

b)

water-cement ratio

c)

aggregate gradation

d)

absolute volume of cement

18.

According to the ACI code, the modular ratio, n, of structural concrete with a 28 – day ultimate compressive strength, fc, of 3000 is nearest to

a)

7

b)

8

c)

9

d)

10

19.

What are valence electrons?

a)

the outershell electrons

b)

electrons with positive charge

c)

the electrons of the complete quantum shells

d)

the K-quantum shell electrons

20.

What is the strong bond between hydrogen atoms known as?

a)

the ionic bond

b)

ionic and metallic bond

c)

the metallic bond

d)

the covalent bond

21.

What are Van der Waals forces?

a)

weak secondary bonds between atoms

b)

primary bonds between atoms

c)

forces between electrons and protons

d)

forces not present in liquids

22.

All of the following statements about air entrained concrete are correct, EXCEPT:

a)

Air entrained is recommended when concrete is exposed to severe frost action

b)

With air entrainment, the quantity of water to produce a given consistency (slump) is reduced

c)

With air entrainment, the quantity of water to produce a specified 28 day compressive strength is reduced

d)

Air entrainment reduces resistance to the freeze – that that occurs when salt is used to melt ice or snow

23.

In the design of a reinforced concrete structure, tensile strength of the concrete is normally

a)

Assumed to be 1/10 of the 28-day compressive strength

b)

Determined by beam tests

c)

Neglected

d)

Assumed to be 200 psi

24.

All of the following groups of plastics are thermoplastic, EXCEPT:

a)

Polyvinylchloride (PVS) and polyvinyl acetate

b)

Polyethylene, polypropylene, and polysterene

c)

Tetrafluorothylene (Teflon) and other fluorocarbons

d)

Phenolics, melamine and epoxy

25.

Compare the metallic iron atom Fe and the ferric ions Fe^3+ and Fe^3+. Which has the smallest atomic radius? (Assume all are at the same temperature)

a)

Fe

b)

Fe^2+

c)

Fe^3+

d)

They have the same radii

26.

Cesium (Cs) and sodium (Na) both have the same valence (+1), yet with chlorine (Cl), cesium has a coordination number of 8 in CsCl, while sodium has a coordination number of only 6 in NaCl. What is the main reason for this difference?

a)

The atomic weight of Cs is larger

b)

Cs contains more electrons than the weight of Na

c)

Cs forms covalent bonds in CaCl

d)

Cs is too large to be coordinated by only 6 chloride ions

27.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

Ceramics are inorganic, nonmetallic solids that are processed or used at high temperature

b)

Metals are chemical elements that form substances that are opaque, lustrous, and good conductors of heat and electricity.

c)

Oxides, carbides, and nitrides are considered to be within the class of materials known as glasses

d)

Most metals are strong, ductile, and malleable. In general, they are heavier than most other substances

28.

Kinematic viscosity may be expressed as:

a)

ft^2 / sec

b)

sec^2 / ft

c)

slug sec^2 / ft

d)

slugs / sec

29.

Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with pressure and temperature and is defined as a function of

a)

Density and angular deformation rate

b)

Density, shear stress and angular deformation rate

c)

Density and shear stress

d)

Shear stress and angular deformation rate

30.

Total energy of a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any section in a pipeline is a function of:

a)

pressure and velocity

b)

pressure, density, and velocity

c)

flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum, and internal energy

d)

pressure density, velocity and height above datum

31.

Which of the following is not a viscoelastic material?

a)

plastic

b)

metal

c)

rubber

d)

glass

32.

In molecules of the same composition, what are the variations of atomic arrangements known as?

a)

polyemers

b)

isomers

c)

monomers

d)

crystal system

33.

Which of the following accurately describes differences between crystalline polymers and simple crystals?

a)

I. Crystalline polymers are made of folded chains of atoms unlike simple crystals

b)

II. Crystal size can be increased by raising the crystallization temperature only in polymers

c)

III. While a simple crystal may be totally crystallized, a polymer can reach only partial crystallization

34.

Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have which of the following?

a)

small side groups

b)

only one repeating unit

c)

an atactic configuration of side groups

d)

small chain lengths

35.

The locus of the elevations to which water will rise in a piezometer tube is termed:

a)

stagnation pressure

b)

the enegy gradient

c)

the hydraulic gradient

d)

friction head

36.

Which of the following statements most nearly approximates condition in turbulent flow?

a)

Fluid particles move along smooth, straight paths

b)

Energy loss varies linearly with velocity

c)

Energy loss varies as the square of the velocity

d)

Newton’s law of viscosity governs the flow

37.

For turbulent flow of a fluid in a pipe, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

a)

The average velocity will be nearly the same as at the pipe center

b)

Energy lost due to turbulence and friction varies with kinetic energy

c)

Pipe toughness affects the friction factor

d)

Reynolds number will be less than 2000

38.

In fluid flow, if the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles do not cross, the flow is said to be:

a)

laminar

b)

turbulent

c)

critical

d)

dynamic

39.

Flow nets are drawn to show all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Streamlines spaced to bound streamtubes of equal volume flow rate, q

b)

Flow and pressure drops in distribution systems

c)

Paths of particles in 2-and 3-dimensional flow

d)

Equipotential lines perpendicular to streamlines

40.

Which of the following constitutes a group of parameters with the dimensions of power?

a)

ρ A V

b)

DV ρ / μ

c)

PAv

d)

ρv^2 / P

41.

Which of the following constitutes a group of parameters with the dimensions of power?

a)

ρ A V

b)

DV ρ / μ

c)

PAv

d)

ρv^2 / P

42.

At or below critical velocity in small pipes or at very low velocities, the loss of head due to friction

a)

varies directly as velocity

b)

can be ignored

c)

is infinitely large

d)

varies as the velocity squared

43.

At constant pressure P all of the following statements about low rate, q in turbulent flow in a pipe are true, EXCEPT:

a)

q varies approximately as (diameter, D)^2

b)

q decreases as pipe surface roughness ratio, ∈/D increases

c)

q varies as (velocity, V)^2

d)

q decreases inversely as (fluid density, ρ)^1/2

44.

What is the atomic packing factor for a simple cubic crystal?

a)

0.48

b)

0.52

c)

1.00

d)

1.05

45.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

Both copper and aluminum have a face-centered crystal structure

b)

Both magnesium and zinc have a hexagonal close-packed crystal structure

c)

Iron can have either a face-centered or a body-centered cubic crystal structure

d)

Both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal close-packed crystal structure

46.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a body-centered cubic unit cell are: 0, 0, 0 and 1/2, 1/2, 1/2.

b)

The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a face-centered cubic unit cell are: 0, 0, 0; 1/2, 1/2, 0, 1/2, 0, 1/2; and 0, 1/2, 1/2.

c)

The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a simple cubic unit cell are 0, 0, 0.

d)

The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a rhombohedral unit cell are 1/2, 1/2, 1/2.

47.

Which crystal structure possesses the highest number of close-packed planes and close-packed direction?

a)

simple cubic

b)

body-centered cubic

c)

face-centered cubic

d)

close-packed hexagonal

48.

What are the most common slip planes for face-centered cubic and body-centered cubic structures, respectively?

a)

face-centered: (111), body-centered: (110)

b)

face-centered: (100), body-centered: (110)

c)

face-centered: (110), body-centered: (111)

d)

face-centered: (111), body-centered: (100)

49.

Entrance losses between tank and pipe, or losses through elbows, fittings and valves are generally expressed as functions of

a)

kinetic energy

b)

pipe diameter

c)

friction factor

d)

volume flow rate

50.

The vena contracta of a sharp hydraulic orifice usually occurs:

a)

At the geometric center of the orifice

b)

At a distance of about 10% of the orifice diameter upstream from the plane of the orifice

c)

At a distance equal to about two orifice diameters downstream from the plane of the office

d)

At a distance equal to about one-half the orifice diameter downstream from the plane of the orifice

51.

Modes of extinguishing obligations when an auditor abandons his right to collect:

a)

condonation

b)

forfeiture

c)

debt cancellation

d)

liquidated damages

52.

With regard to corrosion of metals, passivation is the process that:

a)

intensifies deterioration temporarily

b)

inhibits further deterioration

c)

changes the composition of the metal

d)

alter the grain size of the metal

53.

Cavitation is the result of

a)

static pressure in a fluid becoming less than fluid vapor pressure

b)

rivets under load impact

c)

exposure of concrete to salt water

d)

heat treatment of a low carbon steel

54.

On doubling the speed, N, of a centrifugal pump, all of the following are true, EXCEPT:

a)

Head, H is increased by a factor of 4

b)

Horsepower, P is increased by a factor of 8

c)

Head, horsepower and volume flow rate are independently variable

d)

Volume flow rate, Q is increased by a factor of 2

55.

The first law of thermodynamics states that:

a)

heat energy cannot be completely transformed into work

b)

internal energy is due to molecular motion

c)

heat can only be transferred from a body of higher temperature to one of lower temperature

d)

energy can be neither created nor destroyed

56.

In any non – quasistatic thermodynamics process, the overall entropy of an isolated system will:

a)

increase then decrease

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease and then increase

d)

increase only

57.

Comparing the face-centered cubic lattice with the hexagonal close-packed lattice, which of the following features describes the hexagonal close-packed structure only?

a)

It has the closes packed lattice structure

b)

Its coordination number is 2

c)

Its deformation properties are more directional

d)

Its stacking order is ABCABC

58.

A plane intercepts the coordinate axis at x = 1, y = 1, and z = 2. What are the Miller indices of the plane?

a)

(132)

b)

(123)

c)

(623)

d)

(326)

59.

Entropy is a measure of

a)

the change in enthalpy of a system

b)

the internal energy of a gas

c)

the heat capacity of a substance

d)

randomness or disorder

60.

What is the degree of the polynomial 3x^4y + 2x^3z^3 - 4yz^2?

a)

6th

b)

5th

c)

4th

d)

3rd

61.

For a complex number a + bi, the real number √(a^2 + b^2) is of the complex number.

a)

absolute value

b)

magnitude

c)

modulus

d)

all of the above

62.

In the quadratic equation Ax^2 + Bx + C = 0, when the two roots are multiplied, the result is

a)

C/A

b)

-B/A

c)

-C/A

d)

A/C

63.

What is the discriminant of the quadratic equation Ax^2 + Bx + C = 0?

a)

√(B^2 - 4AC)

b)

B^2 - 4AC

c)

B^2 + 4AC

d)

√(B^2 + 4AC)

64.

What is the multiplicative inverse of a + bi?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

-a - bi

d)

a/(a^2 + b^2) - bi/(a^2 + b^2)

65.

Equations used for checking the solution to a plane triangle using law of sine’s are as follows:

a)

C/A

b)

-B/A

c)

-C/A

d)

A/C

66.

The equation y^2 = (x^2 + 1)^2(2 - x^2)^2 is an equation of

a)

cocked hat

b)

fishmouth

c)

spiral

d)

lemniscate

67.

The equation (x^2 + 2ay - a^2) = y^2(a^2 - x^2) is a

a)

rosette

b)

cocked hat

c)

fishmouth

d)

spiral

68.

The equation x^2 + y^2 = a^2 is a

a)

cocked hat

b)

fishmouth

c)

triscectrix

d)

lames quartic

69.

The equation 푥^2 + 푦^2 = 푎^2 is a

a)

cocked hat

b)

fishmouth

c)

triscectrix

d)

lames quartic

70.

What is the graph of the equation 퐴푥^2 + 퐵푥 + 퐶푦^2 + 퐷푦 + 퐸푥 + 퐹 = 0?

a)

Circle

b)

Ellipse

c)

Parabola

d)

Hyperbola

71.

The semi-conjugate axis of the hyperbola 푥^2 – 푦^2 = 1

a)

3

b)

-3

c)

-2

d)

2

72.

The length of the latus rectum of the parabola 푦 = 4푝푥^2 is

a)

4p

b)

2p

c)

4p

d)

2p

73.

The equation 푎푥^2 = 푦^2(2푎 − 푦) is the equation of

a)

the top

b)

cocked hat

c)

fishmouth

d)

lames quartic

74.

The equation (푥^2 + 푦^2)^2 = 푎푥^2푦 is an equation of

a)

bifolium

b)

cocked hat

c)

spiral

d)

limacon

75.

A line parallel to the y-axis at a directed distance 푥1 has the equation

a)

푦 = 푦1

b)

푥 = 푥1

c)

푦 = 푥1

d)

푥 = 푦1

76.

Let 푚1 and 푚2 be the respective slopes of two perpendicular lines. Then

a)

푚1 + 푚2 = 1

b)

푚1 + 푚2 = 0

c)

(푚1)(푚2) = 1

d)

(푚1)(푚2) = −1

77.

In general equation of a conic section 퐴푥^2 + 퐵푥푦 + 퐶푦^2 + 퐷푥 + 퐸푦 + 퐹 = 0, if A and C have different signs, then the curve is a/an

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78.

What is 1 – 푡푎푛 ℎ^2 푥 equal to?

a)

푠푒푐 ℎ^2 푥

b)

푐표푠 ℎ^2 푥

c)

푐표푡 ℎ^2 푥

d)

푐푠푐 ℎ^2 푥

79.

The integral of 푠푖푛^m 휃 푐표푠^n 휃 푑휃 can easily be determined by using Wallis formula provided the limits are form

a)

0 to π

b)

0 to π/2

c)

0 to π/4

d)

0 to 2π

80.

The derivative of 푎^푢 with respect to x is

a)

푎^푢 ln 푎 d푢/dx

b)

푎^푢 ln 푢 d푢/dx

c)

푢^푎 ln 푎 d푢/dx

d)

푢^푎 ln 푢 d푢/dx

81.

The quantity 2/(푒^푥 – 푒^−푥) is equal to

a)

cosh x

b)

tanh x

c)

csch x

d)

sech x

82.

The value of x in trigonometric substitution with an integrand involving (푎^2 – 푥^2) is

a)

a sec θ

b)

a tan θ

c)

a cos θ

d)

a sin θ

83.

An infinite series in which successive terms are of the form of constant times successive integral power of the variable. It takes the form of 푎0 + 푎1푥 + 푎2푥^2 + 푎3푥^3 + ... .

a)

Fourier series

b)

Taylor’s series

c)

McClaurin series

d)

Power series

84.

How can the differential equation a d^2x/dt^2 + B(t) dx/dt + C = D(t) best described?

a)

linear, homogeneous, and first order

b)

homogeneous and first order

c)

linear, second order, and nonhomogeneous

d)

linear, homogeneous and second order

85.

The differential equation given is correctly described by which one of the following choices?

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86.

In finding the distance, d, between two points, which equation is the appropriate one to use?

a)

Linear, second order, homogeneous

b)

Nonlinear, second order, homogeneous

c)

Linear, second order, non homogeneous

d)

Nonlinear, second order, nonhomogeneous

87.

Energy changes are represented by all EXCEPT which one of the following?

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88.

The expression 3!0! is equal to

a)

b)

2!

c)

120

d)

0

89.

Which of the statements is true concerning the following continuity equation?

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90.

Under certain flow conditions, the expression for the first law of thermodynamics for a control volume reduces to Bernoulli’s equation:

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91.

The compressibility factor, z, is used for predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases. How is the compressibility factor defined relative to an ideal gas?

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92.

Given that a is a lattice constant that h, k, and I are the Miller indices, which of the following equations describes the interplanar distance d in a cubic crystal?

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93.

A homogeneous round bar of diameter D, length L, and total weight W is hung vertically from one end. If E is the modulus of elasticity, what is the total elongation of the bar?

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