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Vascular Final

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What distinguishes venous Doppler signals in the upper extremities from the lower extremities?

a)

Lack of augmentation with distal compression

b)

Continuous waveform is normal

c)

Pulsatility is common in the upper extremeties

d)

Spontaneous signals are not present in the lower extremities

2.

Which vessel is most commonly affected in chronic mesenteric ischemia?

a)

IMA

b)

SMA

c)

Renal artery

d)

Aorta

3.

What is a key symptom of chronic mesenteric ischemia?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Leg pain during walking

c)

Sitophobia

d)

Chest Pain

4.

What defines an acute condition?

a)

Pain over weeks or months

b)

Slow onset with mild symptoms

c)

Sudden pain or bleeding

d)

Minimal symptoms and no urgency

5.

What condition does continuous venous Doppler flow in the lower extremity suggest?

a)

Valvular incompetence

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Proximal DVT

d)

Peripheral arterial disease

6.

As the superficial femoral artery passes through Hunter’s canal, it becomes which artery?

a)

Profunda femoris

b)

Popliteal

c)

Peroneal

d)

Tibial

7.

Which of the following is a deep vein of the lower extremity?

a)

Basilic

b)

Small saphenous

c)

Popliteal

d)

Great saphenous

8.

What is a TIA?

a)

Stroke w/ permanent damage

b)

Neurological dysfunction resolving in <72 hours

c)

Temporary neurological dysfunction resolving within 24 hours

d)

Sudden cardiac death

9.

What Doppler signal is seen at the site of a significant arterial stenosis?

a)

Tardus parvus

b)

Decreased flow velocity

c)

Spectral broadening and high PSV

d)

Reversal of flow

10.

Which of the following is a clinical indication for an abdominal aortic ultrasound?

a)

Pain after eating

b)

Pulmonary edema

c)

Pulsatile abdominal mass

d)

Fever

11.

At what size is the abdominal aorta considered aneurysmal?

a)

>2.0 cm

b)

>2.5 cm

c)

>3.0 cm

d)

>4.5 cm

12.

Surgical repair is required for an abdominal aortic aneurysm when it reaches:

a)

4 cm

b)

4.5 cm

c)

5 cm

d)

6 cm

13.

The most common location for an aortic aneurysm is:

a)

Thoracic

b)

Suprarenal

c)

Infrarenal

d)

Renal

14.

he most common shape of aortic aneurysm is:

a)

Saccular

b)

Fusiform

c)

Dissecting

d)

Irregular

15.

What maneuver is used to evaluate venous insufficiency?

a)

Trendelenburg

b)

Deep inspiration

c)

Valsalva maneuver

d)

Leg elevation

16.

Which vessel has high resistance and extracranial branches?

a)

ICA

b)

ECA

c)

Vertebral

d)

Basilar

17.

A pressure drop of 20 mmHg between segments during segmental pressure testing suggests:

a)

No stenosis

b)

Arterial ulcer

c)

Subclavian stenosis

d)

Venous insufficency

18.

Which is a feature of acute DVT?

a)

Echogenic thrombus

b)

Collateral formation

c)

Loosely attached thrombus

d)

Recanalization

19.

Which feature helps rule out acute DVT?

a)

Collateral veins

b)

Aliasing

c)

Vein compression

d)

Reverse flow

20.

May-Thurner Syndrome is caused by compression of:

a)

Right iliac vein by the left iliac artery

b)

Left iliac vein by the right iliac artery

c)

Femoral artery

d)

IVC

21.

Renal arteries are considered to be:

a)

Low resistance

b)

High resistance

c)

Pulsatile

d)

Triphasic

22.

What happens in subclavian steal syndrome?

a)

Brachial artery reverses flow

b)

Vertebral artery reverses flow

c)

CCA occludes

d)

ICA tap is negative

23.

A PSV greater than 200 cm/s in the aorta suggests:

a)

10% stenosis

b)

30% stenosis

c)

>50% stenosis

d)

Occlusion

24.

Fibromuscular dysplasia appears as:

a)

Fusiform dilation

b)

Atherosclerotic narrowing

c)

String of beads on angiogram

d)

Collateral vessel

25.

What is the first branch of the External Carotid Artery (ECA)?

a)

Opthalmic

b)

Maxillary

c)

Lingual

d)

Superior Thyroid

26.

What muscle action describes the function of the calf muscle pump?

a)

Relaxation of the quads

b)

Soleal and gastrocnemius muscle contraction

c)

Calf flexion and extension

d)

Store blood in the calf

27.

Systolic blood pressure reflects:

a)

Heart relaxation

b)

Diastolic runoff

c)

Heart contraction

d)

Valve closure

28.

The main risk factor for primary varicose veins is:

a)

Pregnancy

b)

Heredity

c)

DVT

d)

Inactivity

29.

What is EVAR?

a)

External vascular artery rotation

b)

Endovenous aneurysm resection

c)

Endovascular aneurysm repair

d)

Emergency vascular aneruysm repair

30.

The most common site for plaque formation in the carotid system is:

a)

Proximal CCA

b)

Mid ICA

c)

Carotid Bifurcation

d)

Vertebral Artery

31.

What is the normal spectral Doppler pattern for the SMA after eating?

a)

High resistance

b)

Bidirectional flow

c)

Low resistance

d)

Pulsatile with reversal

32.

What resistance pattern does the abdominal aorta typically show?

a)

High resistance throughout

b)

Low resistance due to visceral branches

c)

Biphasic flow

d)

Retrograde flow

33.

The external carotid artery ultimately terminates as the:

a)

Facial A.

b)

Maxillary A.

c)

Superficial Temporal A.

d)

Occipital A.

34.

Normal venous Doppler waveform in the lower extremities shows:

a)

Continuous flow

b)

Phasic respiratory variation

c)

High resistance triphasic

d)

Retrograde flow

35.

Which feature distinguishes a venous ulcer from an arterial ulcer?

a)

Regular deep wound

b)

Near toes

c)

Mild pain near medial malleolus

d)

Hairless, shiny skin around the wound

36.

Minimum appropriate vein diameter for AV fistula creation is:

a)

1mm

b)

1.5mm

c)

2mm

d)

2.5-3mm

37.

A renal artery stenosis of 60% or greater shows what findings?

a)

PSV <100 cm/s and RAR >3.5

b)

PSV >100 cm/s and RAR <2.5

c)

PSV > 180 cm/s and RAR >3.5

d)

PSV > 180cm/s and RAR <2.5

38.

What does a continuous waveform suggest in venous doppler?

a)

Proximal DVT

b)

Distal DVT

c)

Superficial Thrombus

d)

Valve insufficency

39.

Select the superficial veins of the upper extremity:

a)

Basilic

b)

Ulnar

c)

Cephalic

d)

Radial

e)

Median Cubital

40.

Select the veins of the lower extremity:

a)

Great saphenous

b)

Iliac Veins

c)

Small saphenous

d)

PTV / ATV

e)

Soleal Sinus

41.

What is observed proximal to a stenosis in the arterial system?

a)

Normal flow

b)

Tardus parvus

c)

Possible increase in resistance, very low diastolic flow

d)

Aliasing

e)

Increased PSV and EDV

42.

What is observed at the stenotic site in the arterial system?

a)

Increase in PSV and EDV

b)

Turbulent flow

c)

Aliasing

d)

Decreased pulsatility

e)

Decrease in PSV and EDV

43.

What is observed distal to a stenosis in the arterial system?

a)

Increased velocity

b)

Turbulent flow

c)

Rounded peak systole

d)

Decreased velocity

e)

Normal flow

44.

Aortic diameter >2cm but <3cm

(a)  

45.

Select the characteristics of Venous ulcers:

a)

Near medial malleolus

b)

Mild pain

c)

Severe pain

d)

Thickened toenails

e)

Near Tibial area, toes and bony areas

46.

"stopcocks" of the vascular system, control contraction and resistance

(a)  

47.

Smallest vessel in the body, primary place of nutrient exchange in the body

(a)  

48.

What is the first branch of the Aortic Arch?

a)

Innominate artery

b)

Left CCA

c)

Right Subclavian

d)

Right CCA

49.

Right renal artery is ___ and ___ than the left

a)

Longer and higher

b)

Shorter and lower

c)

Longer and lower

d)

Shorter and higher

50.

How does the right renal artery course to the IVC

a)

anteriorly

b)

posteriorly

c)

laterally

d)

distally

51.

The Tibial-peroneal trunk bifurcates into the?

a)

Posterior tibial and Peroneal arteries

b)

Anterior tibial artery and Posterior Tibial artery

c)

Peroneal artery

d)

Medial and lateral plantar and doralis pedis

52.

The popliteal artery bifurcates into the ?

a)

Anterior tibial artery and Tibioperoneal trunk

b)

Tibioperoneal trunk

c)

Anterior tibial and Posterior Tibial artery

d)

Peroneal artery

53.

Anterior circulation symptoms:

a)

Aphasia

b)

Amaurosis Fugus

c)

Hemiplegia

d)

Parethesia

e)

Dysphagia

54.

Most common site of thrombus formation in the LEV

a)

Soleal sinus

b)

PTV/ATV

c)

Peroneals

d)

Gastrocnemius

55.

Select the correct phasicity of the upper extremity veins:

a)

Thoracic cavity pressure decreases during inspiration

b)

Thoracic cavity pressure increases during inspiration

c)

Thoracic cavity pressure increases during expiration

d)

Flow in veins increases during inspiration

e)

Flow in veins increases during expiration

56.

How is flow in the lower extremities during inspiration and expiration?

a)

Increased flow during expiration

b)

Decreased flow during expiration

c)

Decreased flow during inspiration

d)

Increased flow during inspiration

57.

Superficial Thrombophlebitis usually causes __ pain than DVT

a)

More

b)

Less

58.

What is the first branch of the abdominal aorta?

a)

Celiac artery

b)

SMA

c)

IMA

d)

Splenic

59.

Where is the celiac artery in relation to the pancreas

a)

Superior

b)

Inferior

c)

Lateral

d)

Proximal

60.

In SAG, how is the Celiac artery identified in comparison to the Aorta and SMA

a)

Superior to the SMA

b)

Inferior to the SMA

c)

Anterior to the Aorta

d)

Posterior to the Aorta

61.

How is the SMA identified in relation to the pancreas

a)

Posterior

b)

Anterior

62.

A

a)

Right Subclavian

b)

Right vertebral

c)

Right ICA

d)

Right ECA

63.

B?

a)

Right Subclavian

b)

Right Vertebral

c)

Right ICA

d)

Superficial Temporal

e)

Right CCA

64.

C

a)

Right ICA

b)

Right ECA

c)

Occipital

d)

Right CCA

e)

Right Vertebral

65.

D

a)

Occipital

b)

Superficial Temporal

c)

ECA

d)

Subclavian

e)

CCA

66.

E

a)

Superficial Temporal

b)

ECA

c)

ICA

d)

CCA

e)

Occipital

67.

F

a)

ECA

b)

ICA

c)

CCA

d)

Vertebral

68.

An ICA occlusion may cause the contralateral ICA velocities to be which one of the following?

a)

Same

b)

Reversed

c)

Increased- compensatory flow

d)

Decreased

69.

The sound heard upon auscultation of a vessel within a stenotic area is called

a)

a bruit

b)

a tick

c)

a thrill

70.

A

a)

Anterior cerebral

b)

Anterior communicating

c)

Posterior communicating

d)

Posterior cerebral

e)

Middle cerebral

71.

Select the Anterior Communicating Artery

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

72.

Select the Middle Cerebral Artery

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

e)

F

73.

Select the Posterior Communicating Artery

a)

A

b)

C

c)

E

d)

H

e)

G

74.

Select the Posterior Cerebral Artery

a)

A

b)

C

c)

F

d)

E

e)

B

75.

Select the Basilar Artery

a)

G

b)

B

c)

A

d)

H

e)

C

76.

Select the Vertebral Artery

a)

A

b)

B

c)

H

d)

G

e)

D

77.

What type of flow would you expect to see in a normal carotid bulb?

a)

Laminar

b)

Disturbed

c)

Turbulent

78.

Right Common Femoral Artery is?

a)

e

b)

f

c)

g

d)

h

e)

i

79.

Right Profunda Femoral Artery

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

I

e)

M

80.

Right Superficial Femoral Artery

a)

G

b)

H

c)

I

d)

M

e)

E

81.

Right Popliteal Artery

a)

H

b)

I

c)

M

d)

F

e)

E

82.

Right Anterior Tibial Artery

a)

I

b)

M

c)

E

d)

F

e)

G

83.

Right Dorsalis Pedis Artery

a)

M

b)

I

c)

H

d)

G

e)

F

84.

The dorsalis pedis artery is the direct continuation of which vessel?

a)

Posterior Tibial

b)

Anterior Tibial

c)

Peroneal

d)

Tibioperoneal Trunk

85.

The two-terminal branches of the internal carotid artery are the:

a)

Middle cerebral and posterior cerebral

b)

Anterior cerebral and middle cerebreal

c)

Middle cerebral and posterior communicating

d)

Anterior cerebral and posterior communicating

86.

The popliteal artery terminates by branching into the:

a)

Posterior tibial and peroneal

b)

Anterior tibial and peroneal

c)

Anterior tibial and Tibiperoneal trunk

d)

DPA and PTA

87.

Flow in a normal, competent perforating vein should flow:

a)

Superficial to deep

b)

Exhibiting reversal

c)

Deep to superficial

d)

In many directions

88.

Right medial malleolus

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

89.

Right Peroneal Veins

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

90.

Right posterior tibial veins

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

91.

right great saphenous

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

92.

right popliteal

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

93.

The small saphenous vein most commonly drains into the:

a)

Popliteal vein

b)

Vein of Giacomini

c)

SFV

d)

GSV

94.

Compressibility of veins is very important in the diagnosis of DVT.  Which of the following veins are impossible to compress due to their location?

a)

Distal femoral veins

b)

Iliac veins

c)

Common femoral veins

d)

Popliteal veins

95.

Lower extremity venous flow is aided in its return to the heart by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT:

a)

Venous valves

b)

Inspiration

c)

Calf muscle contraction

d)

Expiration

96.

The normal flow pattern for the superior mesenteric artery, pre-prandial is:

a)

Low resistance w/ PSV <125 cm/s

b)

High Resistance w/ PSV <125 cm/s

c)

High resistance w/ PSV <110 cm/s

d)

Low resistance w PSV <110 cm/s

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