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BS7671 AMD3 Mock 3

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The scope of BS7671 applies to

a)

Systems for distribution of electricity to the public

b)

Railway traction equipment

c)

Equipment on board ships

d)

Onshore units of electrical shore connections for inland navigation vessels

2.

The scope of BS7671 does not apply to

a)

Residential premises

b)

Fixed offshore installations

c)

Commercial premises

d)

Photovoltaic systems

3.

When designers address the nature of the demand, which one of the following needs to be considered

a)

Frequency

b)

Prospective fault current

c)

Location of points of power demand

d)

External earth supply

4.

During the initial verification process, which of the following shall make a recommendation for the interval to the first periodic inspection and test:

a)

Test engineer

b)

Installer

c)

Inspector

d)

Designer

5.

An extraneous-conductive-part is defined as

a)

a conductive part of equipment which may be touched and which is not normally live, but which can become live when basic insulation fails

b)

a conductive part liable to introduce a potential, generally Earth potential, and not forming part of the electrical installation

c)

equipment designed to be fastened to a support or otherwise secured in a specific location

d)

a room or location in which air is heated, in service, to high temperatures

6.

Protection against electric shock under single fault conditions is

a)

Basic protection

b)

Fault protection

c)

Additional protection

d)

Supplementary protection

7.

A system which provides neutral and protective functions combined in a single conductor (PEN) in a part of a single-source system is a:

a)

TN-C-S System

b)

TT System

c)

TN-S System

d)

IT System

8.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the supply or supplies?

a)

The nature of the current and frequency

b)

The division of the circuits

c)

The nominal voltage(s)

d)

The type and rating of the overcurrent protective device(s) acting at the origin

9.

A concise list of external influences is located in

a)

Appendix 6

b)

Part 7

c)

Appendix 5

d)

Definitions

10.

Compatibility of characteristics requires an assessment to be made of any characteristics of equipment likely to have

a)

an effect on the frequency and quality of maintenance

b)

an effect on indirect energizing of a circuit intended to be isolated

c)

harmful effects upon other electrical equipment or other services

d)

an effect on the external influences

11.

The conductor arrangement shown in the exhibit below is:

a)

Three-phase 3-wire

b)

Three-phase 4-wire

c)

Two-phase 3-wire

d)

Single-phase 3-wire

12.

For a new installation, which of the following items of information might need to be given to the DNO?

a)

Prospective short-circuit current

b)

Maximum demand

c)

Nominal voltage

d)

Earth fault loop impedance

13.

A readily accessible horizontal top of an enclosure should have a minimum degree of protection of

a)

IPXXD or IP4X

b)

IPXXB or IP2X

c)

IP1X

d)

IP3X

14.

A 6A BS EN 60898 circuit breaker is used to protect a circuit with a maximum earth fault loop impedance (Zs) of 3.64Ω would be type

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.

Additional protection by means of an RCD with a rated residual operating current not exceeding 30 mA shall be provided for

a)

socket outlets with electrical separation

b)

socket-outlets with a rated current not exceeding 63 A

c)

all socket outlets

d)

socket-outlets with a rated current not exceeding 32 A

16.

Where there is a danger of fire due to the nature of the stored material, a 100W spotlight shall be installed at a minimum distance from combustible materials of

a)

0.5 m

b)

0.8 m

c)

1 m

d)

2 m

17.

Suitable precautions against undervoltage should be taken where either a reduction in voltage or a loss and subsequent restoration of voltage

a)

is a routine event

b)

could cause danger

c)

occurs infrequently

d)

will not cause danger

18.

In the event of failure of the provision for basic protection, additional protection may be provided by

a)

supplementary bonding

b)

the use of a time delayed 100mA RCD

c)

use of a RCD not exceeding IΔn of 30mA

d)

electrical separation

19.

The maximum permitted value of earth electrode and earthing conductor (RA) for a circuit protected by a 300 mA RCD and forming part of a 230 V AC TT system is

a)

500 Ω

b)

100 Ω

c)

167 Ω

d)

1667 Ω

20.

Which one of the following would be used to determine the rating of an overcurrent device?

a)

Cable size

b)

Grouping factor

c)

Design current

d)

Overload current

21.

Fault protection may be provided by

a)

Barriers and enclosures to IPXXB or IP2X

b)

Insulation of live parts

c)

Protective earthing and protective equipotential bonding

d)

Placing out of reach

22.

Where an RCD is used in a circuit, the product of IΔn and the Zs in a TT installation should not be greater than

a)

2 V

b)

10 V

c)

40 V

d)

50 V

23.

Which of the following methods should be adopted where fixed equipment having a high surface temperature is likely to have an adverse effect on adjacent materials?

a)

Erection of warning notices advising high temperatures

b)

Be mounted so as to allow safe dissipation of heat

c)

The use of non-combustible wiring materials

d)

The provision of suitable fire extinguishers

24.

An overload current could occur

a)

During an earth fault

b)

During a short-circuit fault

c)

When a motor becomes jammed

d)

When a shower is switched off

25.

In an IT system, which of the following monitoring devices and protective devices is not listed as appropriate:

a)

RCMs

b)

IMDs

c)

IFLS

d)

AFDDs

26.

The earth fault loop impedance (Zs) for a consumer's circuit is determined by

a)

R1 + R2 - Ze

b)

R1 + R2 + Ze

c)

R1 + R2 + Rn

d)

R1 + R2 + Ze

27.

A copper earthing conductor not mechanically protected and not protected against corrosion is buried in soil. The minimum size of earthing conductor is

a)

4 mm²

b)

16 mm²

c)

25 mm²

d)

50 mm²

28.

In the event of crossing or proximity of underground telecommunication cables and underground power cables, the required minimum clearance

a)

200 mm

b)

300 mm

c)

50 mm

d)

100 mm

29.

A suitable supply for safety services is a

a)

Primary cells

b)

Standard mains supply

c)

Non-earthed transformer

d)

Mains operated generator

30.

Non-sheathed cables for fixed wiring installations should be

a)

thermosetting

b)

thermoplastic

c)

enclosed in conduit, ducting or trunking

d)

a minimum of 4 mm² cross-sectional area

31.

A permanent label with the words 'Safety Electrical Connection – Do Not Remove' shall be permanently fixed

a)

at the point of connection of every earthing conductor to an earth electrode

b)

at every socket outlet connection

c)

at the point of connection between the earthing and PEN conductor of a TN-C-S system

d)

at the point of connection of to an exposed-conductive-part

32.

A conduit or cable trunking system classified as non-flame propagating need not be internally sealed providing its maximum cross-sectional area does not exceed

a)

625 mm²

b)

710 mm²

c)

1250 mm²

d)

2500 mm²

33.

Where practical, the main protective equipotential bonding to the gas service in a building should be made, where practicable, within

a)

3 m of the meter on the supply side

b)

3 m of the meter on the consumer side

c)

600 mm of the meter on the supply side

d)

600 mm of the meter outlet union

34.

Every firefighter’s switch should be

a)

not more than 2.75 m from the ground

b)

coloured red with the off position at the bottom

c)

installed in the high-voltage circuit

d)

mounted at a minimum height of 3 m

35.

An RCD that is installed for protection against the risk of fire must be

a)

Integral to and socket-outlet

b)

Installed at the origin of the circuit to be protected

c)

Rated at 500 mA

d)

Arranged to switch line conductors only

36.

Where foundation earthing earth electrodes are installed, the materials and dimensions of the earth electrodes shall be selected to withstand

a)

heat

b)

voltage

c)

current

d)

corrosion

37.

It is recommended that Type 3 SPDs should not be installed

a)

at distribution circuits

b)

at consumer units

c)

close to sensitive equipment

d)

at the origin

38.

What is the maximum value of earth resistance R_A for an RCD with a rated residual operating current of 3 Amps

a)

17 Ω

b)

1.7 Ω

c)

167 Ω

d)

1667 Ω

39.

In order to avoid unwanted tripping of an RCD, the accumulation of protective conductor currents should not exceed

a)

25% of the rated operating current

b)

30% of the rated operating current

c)

35% of the rated operating current

d)

40% of the rated operating current

40.

A cable surrounded by thermal insulation for a length of 50 mm has a derating factor (C_I) of

a)

0.63

b)

0.50

c)

0.88

d)

0.78

41.

Which of the following is not allowed for use as a circuit protective conductor?

a)

Galvanised metallic conduit

b)

Lead sheath of cable

c)

Steel wire armouring of cable

d)

Metallic flexible conduit

42.

Which of the following checks are not carried out during inspection of a new installation

a)

Measures against electromagnetic disturbances

b)

Selection and installation of suitable SPD where required

c)

Erection methods

d)

Voltage drop

43.

Which of the following tests will be carried out first during initial verification

a)

Continuity of conductors

b)

Insulation Resistance

c)

Earth Fault Loop Impedance

d)

RCD Testing

44.

Where relevant, the polarity of the supply at the origin of the installation shall be verified

a)

by an ordinary person

b)

before the installation is energized.

c)

Only after the installation has been certified

d)

After the full installation has been checked

45.

The frequency of periodic inspection and testing of an installation shall be determined having regard to

a)

The type of installation and equipment

b)

the age of the building

c)

the contractor who installed it

d)

the person ordering the work

46.

In Marinas, equipment above a jetty must be with a minimum degree of protection for external mechanical impact of at least

a)

IK05

b)

IK06

c)

IK07

d)

IK08

47.

In zone 3 of rooms containing a sauna, the sheaths of cables shall withstand a minimum temperature of

a)

170 °C

b)

125 °C

c)

115 °C

d)

70 °C

48.

Which of the following is not permitted to be installed in zone 1 of a bathroom?

a)

Shower

b)

Towel rail

c)

Shaver socket

d)

Whirlpool unit

49.

A ceiling heating system should incorporate means of limiting the temperature to

a)

50 °C

b)

60 °C

c)

70 °C

d)

80 °C

50.

The height to which zone 1 of a large swimming pool extends above a diving board is

a)

1 m

b)

1.5 m

c)

2 m

d)

2.5 m

51.

Which of the following protective measures can be used on a construction site

a)

ADS

b)

electrical separation for the supply of more than one current-using equipment

c)

earth-free equipotential bonding

d)

non-conducting location

52.

Fire protection in a cattle shed may be achieved by use of a

a)

30 mA RCD

b)

6 A type B CB

c)

300 mA RCD

d)

6 A type C CB

53.

Protection by obstacles in a bathroom is

a)

allowed in all zones

b)

allowed in zones 1 and 2

c)

allowed in zone 2 only

d)

not allowed

54.

The nominal supply voltage for onshore installations dedicated to the supply of inland navigation vessels shall be

a)

400 V three-phase AC

b)

110 V AC

c)

1000V AC

d)

400V AC to earth

55.

The maximum interval between periodic inspection of a touring caravan is

a)

5 years

b)

3 years

c)

2 years

d)

3 months

56.

A 32A BS 88-3 fuse subjected to a fault current of 240 A should operate in

a)

0.2 s

b)

0.4 s

c)

1 s

d)

5 s

57.

BS 7671 gives the classification of external influences. Which one of the following is described as being in the general category of external influences?

a)

Utilisation

b)

Installation

c)

Propagation

d)

Ionisation

58.

The tables listing current-carrying capacities of various cables in Appendix 4 of BS 7671 are based on an ambient temperature of

a)

30 °C

b)

50 °C

c)

70 °C

d)

90 °C

59.

A 230V final circuit is protected by a 20 Amp rated - type B – BS EN 60898 circuit breaker. Under a fault current of 200 Amps, the device will operate within

a)

0.1 s

b)

10 s

c)

20 s

d)

30 s

60.

The external influence having a classification of AE5 indicates

a)

Humidity

b)

Moderate dust

c)

Jets of water

d)

Vibration