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Worksheets

Generated through my notes

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the two main disabilities that diagnostic tests must test for?

a)

Learning Disability and Intellectual Disability

b)

Emotional Disturbance and Deaf/Blind

c)

Occupational Therapy and Speech Impairment

d)

Dyslexia and Dyscalculia

2.

Learning Disability is also known as _________.

a)

Specific learning disability

b)

Generalized anxiety disorder

c)

Attention deficit disorder

d)

Autism spectrum disorder

3.

Intellectual Disability is also known as _________.

a)

Mental retardation

b)

Autism

c)

Dyslexia

d)

Schizophrenia

4.

Which two areas MUST be tested according to standardized diagnostic tests?

a)

Emotional disturbance and Deaf/Blind

b)

Cognitive and Achievement

c)

Occupational Therapy and Speech Impairment

d)

Reading and Math

5.

Which of the following is NOT tested in standardized diagnostic tests?

a)

A) Emotional disturbance

b)

B) Cognitive

c)

C) Achievement

d)

D) Reading Fluency

6.

List the 8 specific learning disabilities mentioned under 'Achievement'.

a)

1. Oral Expression 2. Listening Comprehension 3. (Basic) Reading Skills 4. Reading Fluency 5. Reading Comprehension 6. (Basic) Math Calculation 7. Math Problem Solving 8. Written Expression

b)

1. Visual Perception 2. Auditory Processing 3. Motor Skills 4. Social Skills 5. Attention Deficit 6. Hyperactivity 7. Impulsivity 8. Memory Retention

c)

1. Speech Delay 2. Emotional Disturbance 3. Intellectual Disability 4. Autism Spectrum Disorder 5. Physical Disability 6. Hearing Impairment 7. Visual Impairment 8. Giftedness

d)

1. Language Delay 2. Dysgraphia 3. Dyscalculia 4. Dyslexia 5. ADHD 6. Sensory Processing Disorder 7. Nonverbal Learning Disability 8. Executive Function Disorder

7.

Which specific learning disability is associated with Dyslexia?

a)

Oral Expression

b)

(Basic) Reading Skills

c)

(Basic) Math Calculation

d)

Written Expression

8.

Which specific learning disability is associated with Dyscalculia?

a)

Reading Fluency

b)

(Basic) Math Calculation

c)

Listening Comprehension

d)

Written Expression

9.

Which specific learning disability is associated with Dysgraphia?

a)

Written Expression

b)

Math Problem Solving

c)

Oral Expression

d)

Reading Comprehension

10.

Speech impairment can be classified into which three types?

a)

1. Receptive - hearing 2. Expressive - talking 3. Fluency - stuttering

b)

1. Visual - seeing 2. Motor - moving 3. Cognitive - thinking

c)

1. Sensory - touching 2. Emotional - feeling 3. Logical - reasoning

d)

1. Auditory - listening 2. Verbal - reading 3. Physical - walking

11.

What does 'Fluency' in speech impairment refer to?

a)

Smooth flow of speech

b)

Ability to produce loud sounds

c)

Understanding written language

d)

Correct use of grammar

12.

What does 'Expressive' speech impairment refer to?

a)

Talking (thoughts/ideas/needs)

b)

Hearing and understanding language

c)

Reading comprehension

d)

Writing skills

13.

What does 'Receptive' speech impairment refer to?

a)

Hearing

b)

Speaking

c)

Reading

d)

Writing

14.

What was the original name of the law now known as IDEA?

a)

Individuals with Disabilities Education Act

b)

Education for All Handicapped Children Act

c)

Free Appropriate Public Education

d)

Child Find

15.

In what year was the Education for All Handicapped Children Act (EAHCA) enacted?

a)

1975

b)

1990

c)

2004

d)

1985

16.

The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) was renamed in which year?

a)

1975

b)

1990

c)

2004

d)

1980

17.

Fill in the blank: The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) was further updated to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act (IDEIA) in the year _____

a)

2004

b)

1997

c)

2010

d)

1990

18.

What is the purpose of the 'Child Find' component of IDEA?

a)

To provide free meals

b)

To identify, locate, and evaluate children with disabilities

c)

To standardize tests

d)

To provide transportation

19.

Which of the following is NOT a component of Free Appropriate Public Education (FAPE) under IDEA?

a)

No charge/no cost

b)

Free assessment/appropriate evaluations

c)

Standardized testing only

d)

Procedural safeguards

20.

Under IDEA, a plan must be in place for children with disabilities by the time they are 2 turning 3 years old.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Which of the following is one of the 13 disabilities listed?

a)

Autism (AU)

b)

Asthma

c)

Diabetes

d)

Cancer

22.

What does the abbreviation 'DB' stand for in the list of 13 disabilities?

a)

Deaf/Blindness

b)

Developmental Blindness

c)

Deaf/Behavioral

d)

Disability Blindness

23.

Which disability is associated with the abbreviation 'AI'?

a)

Deaf & Hard of Hearing

b)

Autism Spectrum Disorder

c)

Intellectual Disability

d)

Visual Impairment

24.

What is the abbreviation for Emotional Disability in the list of 13 disabilities?

a)

EB

b)

LD

c)

ID

d)

HI

25.

Developmental Delay (DD) is expected to occur in which age range according to the notes?

a)

Ages 3-9

b)

Ages 10-15

c)

Ages 0-2

d)

Ages 16-21

26.

Which of the following is highlighted as a disability in the list?

a)

Intellectual Disability (ID)

b)

Physical Disability

c)

Learning Delay

d)

Speech Delay

27.

Speech Impairment is abbreviated as:

a)

SI

b)

SP

c)

SM

d)

SR

28.

What does OHI stand for in the context of the 13 disabilities?

a)

Other Health Impairment

b)

Occupational Health Initiative

c)

Office of Health Information

d)

Organizational Health Index

29.

Orthopedic Impairment is abbreviated as:

a)

OI

b)

OD

c)

OM

d)

OP

30.

Multiple Disabilities (MD) means:

a)

One disability

b)

Two or more disabilities

c)

No disabilities

d)

Temporary disability

31.

What is the abbreviation for Specific Learning Disability?

a)

SLD

b)

SPD

c)

ASD

d)

ADHD

32.

Traumatic Brain Injury is abbreviated as:

a)

TBI

b)

TBA

c)

TBR

d)

TBC

33.

Visual Impairment is abbreviated as:

a)

VI

b)

VIP

c)

VIS

d)

VIM

34.

According to the diagram, what is the main focus of 504 anti-discrimination?

a)

Curriculum

b)

Testing

c)

Anti-discrimination

d)

Medical needs

35.

In the diagram, which group receives the same curriculum with accommodations?

a)

504 anti-discrimination

b)

IEP special education

c)

Gifted and Talented

d)

English Language Learners

36.

What are the 4 types of Population Norms?

a)

Age Norms, Grade Norms, Percentile Norms, Standard Score Norms

b)

Age Norms, Gender Norms, Percentile Norms, Standard Score Norms

c)

Age Norms, Grade Norms, Percentile Norms, Raw Score Norms

d)

Age Norms, Grade Norms, Gender Norms, Standard Score Norms

37.

Quiz: Grade Equivalent reflects the examinee's performance in terms of the ________ in the norming sample.

a)

grade level

b)

age group

c)

test duration

d)

subject area

38.

Age Equivalent reflects performance in terms of the ________ in the norming sample.

a)

age level

b)

grade point average

c)

test duration

d)

score percentile

39.

Reliability refers to the extent to which assessments are _________?

a)

consistent

b)

biased

c)

random

d)

subjective

40.

Validity means that the test ________ what it is supposed to ________.

a)

measures, measure

b)

measures, measured

c)

measured, measure

d)

measured, measured

41.

Criterion Referenced means:

a)

Comparing students against their peers

b)

No comparing students against their peers

c)

Standardized by age

d)

None of the above

42.

Which of the following is an example of a criterion-referenced test? Choose the correct answer.

a)

Spelling Test

b)

Norm-Referenced Test

c)

Blood Test

d)

None of the above

43.

Norm-Referenced tests are used to ________ a student with all the other students who take the same test.

a)

compare

b)

teach

c)

ignore

d)

punish

44.

Standardized Test = ________ Based or Decision Based = ________ Based. Fill in the blanks.

a)

Evidence, Evidence

b)

Opinion, Evidence

c)

Evidence, Opinion

d)

Opinion, Opinion

45.

What is a raw score?

a)

The number of correct responses

b)

The average score

c)

The highest possible score

d)

The standard deviation

46.

If a student gets 50 out of 100 questions correct, what is their raw score?

a)

50

b)

25

c)

75

d)

100

47.

What is a W-score used for?

a)

Measuring actual growth in a skill, ability, or knowledge

b)

Calculating the highest score

c)

Determining the number of questions

d)

Finding the average score

48.

Raw scores are converted to ________ to measure actual growth in a skill, ability, or knowledge.

a)

W-scores

b)

percentiles

c)

grades

d)

standard deviations

49.

What does the center of a bell curve represent?

a)

The highest score

b)

The average typical score

c)

The lowest score

d)

The number of questions

50.

In the bell curve diagram, what does the left side (less than average) represent?

a)

Positive deviation

b)

Negative deviation

c)

No deviation

d)

Gifted & Talented

51.

What does ID stand for in the context of the bell curve?

a)

Intellectual Disability

b)

Identity Document

c)

Internal Division

d)

Information Design

52.

What does GT stand for in the context of the bell curve?

a)

Gifted & Talented

b)

General Test

c)

Grade Threshold

d)

Group Theory

53.

What is the typical mean and standard deviation for a standard score?

a)

Mean = 100, SD = 15

b)

Mean = 50, SD = 10

c)

Mean = 10, SD = 3

d)

Mean = 65, SD = 35

54.

Scale scores are used to report subtests scores. What is the typical mean and standard deviation for a scale score?

a)

Mean = 100, SD = 15

b)

Mean = 50, SD = 10

c)

Mean = 10, SD = 3

d)

Mean = 7, SD = 1

55.

T-Scores are a type of standardized score when ____ is the mean with a standard deviation of ____.

a)

50 is the mean with a standard deviation of 10.

b)

100 is the mean with a standard deviation of 15.

c)

0 is the mean with a standard deviation of 1.

d)

10 is the mean with a standard deviation of 50.

56.

In the context of standard scores, what does the 'fat part' of the distribution represent?

a)

The middle of the distribution, where most scores cluster around the mean.

b)

The extreme ends of the distribution, representing outliers.

c)

The lowest possible scores in the distribution.

d)

The highest possible scores in the distribution.

57.

It is our responsibility to always know and check the mean and standard deviation in any assessment given.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Which assessment is associated with the Woodcock Johnson IV (WJ IV)?

a)

WISC

b)

WJ IV of Cognitive Ability

c)

KABC-II

d)

WIAT 4

59.

Which publisher is associated with the Woodcock Johnson IV (WJ IV) assessments?

a)

Pearson

b)

Houghton Mifflin Harcourt

c)

Wechsler

d)

Kauffman

60.

Fill in the blank: The normative range for the Woodcock Johnson IV (WJ IV) is _______.

a)

90-110

b)

80-100

c)

100-120

d)

70-90

61.

Which assessment is associated with the Wechsler family?

a)

KABC-II

b)

WJ IV Achievement

c)

WISC

d)

KTEA-III

62.

What does RPI stand for in the context of psychological assessments?

a)

Relative Proficiency Index

b)

Rapid Personality Inventory

c)

Response Pattern Indicator

d)

Revised Psychological Index

63.

According to the notes, what happens when your average is normal but you cannot learn?

a)

This/That is a disability! (SLD)

b)

You are considered a genius.

c)

You have no issues at all.

d)

It means you are just lazy.

64.

What does cross-battery assessment involve?

a)

A) Cognitive from one family and achievement from the other family

b)

B) Only cognitive from one family

c)

C) Only achievement from one family

d)

D) None of the above

65.

When should you do cross-battery assessment?

a)

When student has been tested prior

b)

When student has never been tested

c)

Only for adults

d)

Only for young children

66.

How often should students be re-evaluated according to the notes?

a)

Every 3 years

b)

Every year

c)

Every 5 years

d)

Every 6 months

67.

Standard scores are used instead of raw scores to compare within the norms. What does this mean?

a)

Comparing groups (population)

b)

Measuring time intervals

c)

Calculating averages only

d)

Recording individual preferences

68.

Give an example of how standards can differ in different places according to the notes.

a)

Standards in the bathrooms or burping in NY / FL / TX

b)

The color of traffic lights in every country is the same

c)

All countries drive on the right side of the road

d)

Everyone uses the same currency worldwide

69.

Percentiles give you a relative standing compared to others.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

If a student scored better than 75% of the population, what percentile did the student score?

a)

75th percentile

b)

50th percentile

c)

25th percentile

d)

90th percentile

71.

What does FIE stand for in the context of assessment and evaluation?

a)

Full Individual Evaluation

b)

Formal Instructional Exercise

c)

Functional Intelligence Exam

d)

Field Investigation Exercise

72.

IQ used to be only one number, but now we have different numbers.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Be realistic: Some can't be able to read or count. Is this ever possible?

a)

Sometimes

b)

Never

c)

Always

74.

Down Syndrome is associated with which of the following?

a)

Heart effects and early death

b)

High IQ

c)

Improved reading skills

d)

None of the above

75.

Relative Proficiency Index (RPI) is used ONLY in which assessment?

a)

WJ IV

b)

IQ Test

c)

SAT

d)

ACT

76.

If a student has an RPI of 85/90, what does the denominator (90) represent?

a)

The score a typical student obtains

b)

The student's age

c)

The number of questions answered correctly

d)

The total number of students in the class

77.

What is a confidence interval? Fill in the blank: A confidence interval is ___ .

a)

the amount of certainty that student's score would fall within a given range

b)

a measure of the average score of all students

c)

the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a dataset

d)

the exact value of a student's score

78.

Which of the following is true about the confidence level (CL)?

a)

The greater/higher the CL, the greater the spread of scores

b)

The greater/higher the CL, the lower the spread of scores

c)

The greater/higher the CL, the spread of scores does not change

d)

The greater/higher the CL, the spread of scores is zero

79.

Which of the following is true about the confidence level (CL)?

a)

The lower the CL, the lower the spread of scores

b)

The lower the CL, the greater the spread of scores

c)

The lower the CL, the spread of scores does not change

d)

The lower the CL, the spread of scores is zero

80.

What percentage of scores fall within -1 and 1 on the scale?

a)

68%

b)

95%

c)

99%

d)

50%

81.

In the paintball example, which scenario represents a higher confidence level?

a)

Hitting anywhere within a 95 ft. circle (further out)

b)

Hitting the center within a 60 ft. circle (closer)

82.

What does the Standard Error of Measurement (SEM) estimate?

a)

It estimates how repeated measures of a person on the same instrument tend to be distributed around his/her 'true' score.

b)

It estimates the average score of a group on a test.

c)

It estimates the reliability coefficient of a test.

d)

It estimates the difference between two test forms.

83.

There is a perfect score in measurement according to SEM.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Fill in the blank: The amount of error in a given assessment is called the ________.

a)

Standard Error of Measurement (SEM)

b)

Reliability Coefficient

c)

Validity Index

d)

Item Difficulty

85.

The smaller the standard error of measurement, the better.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

True or False: The larger the standard error of measurement, the better.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

According to the notes, to qualify for an IQ test/cognitive assessment, a score of ______ or more standard deviations below the mean (70) is required when taken (includes SEM).

a)

2 or more

b)

1 or more

c)

3 or more

d)

0.5 or more

88.

What is the definition of 'Basal' in assessment instructions?

a)

Basal is the start point; it doesn't need to be the 1st item. Depends on the assessment instructions.

b)

Basal is always the last item in the assessment.

c)

Basal refers to the highest score achieved in the test.

d)

Basal is the total number of items in the assessment.

89.

What is the definition of 'Ceiling' in assessment instructions?

a)

Ceiling is the stop point, the highest response obtained. Typically, the last item within a set. Must follow the assessment instructions.

b)

Ceiling is the starting point of the assessment, where the lowest response is recorded.

c)

Ceiling refers to the average score obtained by all participants in the assessment.

d)

Ceiling is the process of skipping all items in the assessment.

90.

What does the symbol '1' represent in assessment scoring?

a)

Correct answer

b)

Incorrect answer

c)

No response

d)

Partial credit

91.

What does the symbol '0' represent in assessment scoring?

a)

Incorrect answer

b)

Correct answer

c)

Partial credit

d)

No response

92.

What does the symbol '+' represent in assessment scoring?

a)

Correct answer

b)

Incorrect answer

c)

No response

d)

Partial credit

93.

What does the symbol '-' represent in assessment scoring?

a)

Incorrect answer

b)

Correct answer

c)

No response

d)

Partial credit

94.

What is the definition of 'Chronological Age'?

a)

Chronological Age is the amount of time that has elapsed from birth to a given date and is the main way of defining age.

b)

Chronological Age is the age determined by physical appearance only.

c)

Chronological Age is the age calculated based on mental development.

d)

Chronological Age is the age measured by the number of years spent in education.