wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Medical Knowledge Quiz

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The term intermittent claudication refers to:

a)

Sensory deficit in the legs due to damage to nerves

b)

Dry, cyanotic skin with superficial ulcers

c)

Chest pain related to ischemia

d)

Ischemic muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise

2.

An echocardiogram is used to demonstrate any abnormal:

a)

Movement of the heart valves

b)

Change in central venous pressure

c)

Activity in the conduction system

d)

Blood flow in coronary arteries

3.

The outcome for many aortic aneurysms is:

a)

Pressure on adjacent organs or structures

b)

Early diagnosis and repair

c)

Thrombus formation and pulmonary embolus

d)

Rupture and hemorrhage

4.

The classic early manifestation(s) of left-sided congestive heart failure is/are ____, whereas the early indicator(s) of right-sided failure is/are _______.

a)

Swelling of the ankles and abdomen; chest pain

b)

Shortness of breath on exertion or lying down; swelling of the ankles

c)

Coughing up frothy sputum; hepatomegaly and splenomegaly

d)

Palpitations and periodic chest pain; shortness of breath on exertion

5.

The most common factor predisposing to the development of varicose veins is:

a)

Congenital valve defect in the abdominal veins

b)

Trauma

c)

Infection

d)

Increased venous pressure

6.

The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to:

a)

Degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries

b)

Intermittent vasospasm in coronary arteries

c)

Ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart

d)

Development of atheromas in large arteries

7.

A partial obstruction in a coronary artery will likely cause:

a)

Myocardial infarction

b)

Angina attacks

c)

Hypertension

d)

Pulmonary embolus

8.

Malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes are called:

a)

Lymphedemas

b)

Lymphomas

c)

Lymphocytomas

d)

Myelomas

9.

The atypical cell that serves as a marker for diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma is the:

a)

Hodgkin’s lymphocyte

b)

Monocyte

c)

Reed-Sternberg cell

d)

Ann Arbor cell

10.

One of the reasons non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin’s lymphomas is that they:

a)

Involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases

b)

Are asymptomatic until they reach stage IV

c)

Tend to be much larger than Hodgkin’s lymphomas

d)

Are not affected by the newer drug treatments

11.

Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic disease of unknown etiology occurring in older adults and involving:

a)

T cells

b)

Plasma cells

c)

Monocytes

d)

NK cells

12.

Elephantiasis, caused by the obstruction of lymphatic vessels by parasitic worms, is an example of the condition known as:

a)

Plasma cell myeloma

b)

Diverticulitis

c)

Obstructive vessel disorder

d)

Lymphedema

13.

Which elevated serum marker for systemic inflammation is now considered a major risk factor for atherosclerosis and vascular disease?

a)

Homocysteine

b)

Serum lipoprotein

c)

Leukocytosis

d)

C-reactive protein

14.

Atherosclerotic peripheral vascular disease is symptomatic with at least 50% occlusion. The primary peripheral symptom, due to ischemia, is:

a)

Varicosities

b)

Strong pulse

c)

Calf pain

d)

Edema

15.

A health care provider was asked by a client, “Why do my hands turn blue when I drive my car in the winter without gloves?” Which of the following is the best response?

a)

This sounds like an inflammation in the lining of your veins. You need to take some NSAIDs.

b)

Nothing to worry about. We all develop this as we age.

c)

Your arteries in your hands/fingers are going into spasm, which decreases blood flow and circulating oxygen.

d)

We better order a CT scan. It might be due to a blood clot in your radial artery.

16.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for the development of primary hypertension?

a)

Male gender

b)

African American race

c)

High salt intake

d)

Obesity

17.

A client with persistent, primary hypertension remains apathetic about his high blood pressure, stating “I don't feel sick, and it doesn't seem to be causing me any problems that I can tell.” How could the nurse best respond to this client's statement?

a)

Actually, high blood pressure makes you very susceptible to getting diabetes in the future.

b)

You may not sense any problems, but it really increases your risk of heart disease and stroke.

c)

That's true, but it's an indicator that you're not taking very good care of yourself.

d)

You're right, but it's still worthwhile to monitor it in case you do develop problems.

18.

The client is immobilized following a hip injury and has begun demonstrating lower leg discoloration with edema, pain, tenderness, and increased warmth in the midcalf area. He has many of the manifestations of:

a)

Stasis ulcerations

b)

Deep vein thrombosis

c)

Primary varicose veins

d)

Arterial insufficiency

19.

A client was in car accident while not wearing a seatbelt and has sustained multiple rib fractures. During assessment, the nurse is having a hard time hearing heart sounds, and the client reports chest pain/pressure repeatedly. This client may be experiencing:

a)

Pericarditis

b)

Pericardial effusion

c)

Cardiomyopathy

d)

Pulmonary hypertension

20.

The most common causes of left-sided heart failure include:

a)

Chronic pulmonary disease

b)

Acute myocardial infarction

c)

Impaired renal blood flow

d)

Tricuspid valve regurgitation

21.

Assessment of an elderly female client reveals the presence of bilateral pitting edema of the client's feet and ankles and pedal pulses that are difficult to palpate. Auscultation of the client's lungs reveals clear air entry to bases, and the client's oxygen saturation level is 93%, and vital signs are within reference ranges. What is this client's most likely health problem?

a)

Cor pulmonale

b)

Cardiogenic shock

c)

Pericarditis

d)

Right-sided heart failure

22.

A client who developed a deep vein thrombosis during a prolonged period of bed rest has deteriorated as the clot has dislodged and resulted in a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following types of shock is this client at risk of experiencing?

a)

Distributive shock

b)

Hypovolemic shock

c)

Cardiogenic shock

d)

Obstructive shock

23.

For which of the following types of shock might intravenous antibiotic therapy be indicated?

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Distributive shock

c)

Cardiogenic shock

d)

Obstructive shock

24.

What is the correct explanation for how cardiac tamponade can affect the heart?

a)

It is a delayed inflammatory response to streptococcal infection that results in stenosis or other deformities of the valves, chordae tendineae, or myocardium.

b)

It is a compression of the heart that impairs its pumping action and makes immediate pericardial drainage necessary.

c)

It causes a prolapsed mitral valve, one whose flaps extend back into the left atrium, causing incompetence (leaking) of the valve.

d)

It causes blood to not only eject forward into the aorta but also regurgitate back into the left ventricle because of a leaky aortic semilunar valve.

25.

A cause of a heart murmur may be:

a)

Incomplete closing of a valve

b)

Narrowing of a valve (stenosis)

c)

Incomplete contraction of the atria

d)

Both A and C

26.

Circulatory shock caused by an acute allergic reaction is called _____ shock.

a)

Anaphylactic

b)

Cardiogenic

c)

Hypovolemic

d)

Septic

27.

Circulatory shock caused by the effects of infectious agents is called _____ shock.

a)

Septic

b)

Anaphylactic

c)

Cardiogenic

d)

Hypovolemic

28.

Circulatory shock caused by a drop in the amount of blood in the circulatory system is called _____ shock.

a)

Anaphylactic

b)

Septic

c)

Hypovolemic

d)

Cardiogenic

29.

Adenitis is:

a)

An infected lymph node

b)

An infected adenoid

c)

Tissue swelling

d)

None of the above

30.

What is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysms?

a)

Atherosclerosis

b)

Diabetes

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Heart disease

31.

What is the typical symptom of an unruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?

a)

Pulsating feeling in the abdomen

b)

Blurred vision

c)

Headache

d)

Joint pain

32.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom that an aortic aneurysm has burst?

a)

Sudden, intense and persistent chest or back pain

b)

Loss of appetite

c)

Muscle weakness

d)

Persistent cough

33.

What is arteriosclerosis?

a)

Hardening of arteries and a loss of elasticity in arterial walls

b)

Enlargement of the aorta

c)

Inflammation of the aorta

d)

Hardening of veins

34.

In segmental occlusive disease of the superficial femoral artery, which pulses are reduced?

a)

Superficial femoral and popliteal pulses

b)

Popliteal and pedal pulses

c)

Common femoral and popliteal pulses

d)

Common femoral and pedal pulses

35.

What is the peripheral artery most commonly occluded by atherosclerosis in occlusive disease?

a)

Popliteal artery

b)

Profunda femoris artery

c)

Superficial femoral artery

d)

Common femoral artery

36.

How does pulmonary hypertension affect the right side of the heart over time?

a)

It causes enlargement of the left side of the heart

b)

It weakens the right side of the heart

c)

It has no impact on the right side of the heart

d)

It strengthens the right side of the heart

37.

How does rheumatic fever lead to rheumatic heart disease?

a)

By affecting the kidneys

b)

By causing damage to the liver

c)

By causing inflammation in the joints

d)

By triggering an autoimmune response that damages the heart valves

38.

Rheumatic heart disease is characterized by:

a)

Damage to the heart valves

b)

Weakening of the bones

c)

Inflammation of the pancreas

d)

Enlargement of the spleen

39.

What is the main complication of mitral stenosis?

a)

Coronary artery disease

b)

Heart attack

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

40.

What is the primary symptom associated with aortic stenosis?

a)

Shortness of breath

b)

Swollen ankles and feet

c)

Fatigue

d)

Chest pain