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Worksheets

Midterm Review

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a generic name for a drug?

a)

A generic name is less complicated and easier to remember. Bioavailability may vary.

b)

A generic name is always the same as the brand name.

c)

A generic name is a code used only by pharmacists.

d)

A generic name is the chemical formula of the drug.

2.

Which pregnancy drug category is considered most important?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

X

3.

What is the study of drug movement throughout the body called?

a)

Pharmacokinetics

b)

Pharmacodynamics

c)

Toxicology

d)

Pharmacy

4.

List the four pharmacokinetics processes.

a)

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion

b)

Inhalation, Circulation, Digestion, Elimination

c)

Filtration, Reabsorption, Secretion, Excretion

d)

Oxidation, Reduction, Hydrolysis, Conjugation

5.

What does a black box warning on antidepressants indicate?

a)

It regulates drugs with 'special problems'.

b)

It indicates the drug is available over the counter.

c)

It means the drug is safe for pregnant women.

d)

It shows the drug is only for pediatric use.

6.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare, life-threatening reaction to what type of drugs?

a)

Antipsychotics

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antivirals

d)

Antihistamines

7.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an adverse effect of the drug Chlorprozamjne and Sertraline.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

What are some symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

a)

Elevated blood sugar, dyspnea (shortness of breath), and high fever.

b)

Bradycardia, hypotension, and dry skin.

c)

Weight loss, insomnia, and blurred vision.

d)

Increased appetite, diarrhea, and rash.

9.

Some antiseizure drugs (e.g., phenytoin, phenobarbital) reduce oral contraceptive effectiveness by what mechanism?

a)

By enzyme induction.

b)

By increasing absorption of contraceptives.

c)

By inhibiting ovulation.

d)

By blocking hormone receptors.

10.

What should patients using antiseizure medications do regarding contraception?

a)

Patients should use alternative forms of contraception.

b)

Patients should stop all contraception.

c)

Patients should avoid discussing contraception with their doctor.

d)

Patients should rely solely on hormonal contraceptives.

11.

What do mixed opioid agonists-antagonists do?

a)

Occupy one receptor and block (or have no effect) on the other

b)

Stimulate all opioid receptors

c)

Only block opioid receptors

d)

Have no effect on any receptor

12.

Give an example of a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist.

a)

pentazocine (Talwin)

b)

morphine

c)

fentanyl

d)

codeine

13.

What tests should be monitored when using statins?

a)

Liver function tests

b)

Renal function tests

c)

Thyroid function tests

d)

Blood glucose tests

14.

Statins should not be used with ______ or ______.

a)

pregnancy or breastfeeding

b)

hypertension or diabetes

c)

asthma or allergies

d)

obesity or smoking

15.

What is a common side effect to watch for when taking statins?

a)

GI upset

b)

Hair growth

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Improved vision

16.

Furosemide treats heart failure and hypertension by removing large amounts of excessive fluid from patients in a short period of time.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

When taking furosemide, what should be monitored to prevent possible dehydration and hypotension?

a)

Fluid loss

b)

Blood sugar levels

c)

Vision changes

d)

Heart murmurs

18.

Spironolactone is classified as a ______ diuretic and an aldosterone antagonist.

a)

potassium sparing

b)

loop

c)

thiazide

d)

osmotic

19.

Spironolactone interacts with which of the following?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

ARBs

c)

Potassium supplements

d)

All of the above

20.

What is the normal range for sodium levels in the blood?

a)

135–145 mEq/L

b)

120–130 mEq/L

c)

150–160 mEq/L

d)

100–110 mEq/L

21.

(High) Hypernatremia is defined as sodium levels above ______ mEq/L.

a)

145 mEq/L

b)

135 mEq/L

c)

120 mEq/L

d)

160 mEq/L

22.

(Low) Hyponatremia is defined as sodium levels below ______ mEq/L.

a)

135 mEq/L

b)

145 mEq/L

c)

125 mEq/L

d)

150 mEq/L

23.

What is osmosis?

a)

Movement of water from area of low osmolality to areas of high osmolality

b)

Movement of water from area of high osmolality to areas of low osmolality

c)

Movement of solute from area of low osmolality to areas of high osmolality

d)

Movement of air from area of low osmolality to areas of high osmolality

24.

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs) are usually given to patients who are unable to tolerate the adverse effects of ______ inhibitors.

a)

ACE

b)

Beta

c)

Calcium channel

d)

Renin

25.

Do ARBs cause cough or significant hyperkalemia?

a)

True

b)

False

26.

What is the function of buffers in maintaining body pH?

a)

Increase acidity

b)

Help maintain a normal body pH (acidity 7.35 - 7.45 alkalinity)

c)

Decrease alkalinity

d)

Cause acidosis

27.

Which substance is used to maintain body pH?

a)

Sodium Chloride

b)

Sodium Bicarbonate

c)

Potassium Chloride

d)

Calcium Carbonate

28.

The body may maintain a balanced pH for _________

a)

homeostasis

b)

digestion

c)

respiration

d)

photosynthesis

29.

Right-sided heart failure is when blood backs up into veins. What does it cause?

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Peripheral edema and organ engorgement

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

30.

Right-sided heart failure is less common than left-sided heart failure.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What is the most serious adverse effect of digoxin?

a)

Nausea

b)

Vomiting

c)

Dysrhythmias, particularly in patients who have hypokalemia or CKD

d)

Visual disturbances

32.

List other side effects of digoxin.

a)

Nausea, vomiting, fatigue, anorexia, and visual disturbances such as seeing halos, a yellow-green tinge, or blurring.

b)

Increased appetite, insomnia, and weight gain.

c)

Hair loss, joint pain, and skin rash.

d)

Frequent urination, dry mouth, and constipation.

33.

Which drug provides quick relief in angina?

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Nitrates

c)

Calcium channel blockers

d)

Digoxin

34.

Beta blockers are used in angina to _________.

a)

prevent it from happening again

b)

increase heart rate

c)

cause angina attacks

d)

raise blood pressure

35.

Nitroglycerin relaxes blood vessels to increase blood flow to the heart and reduce its workload.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Symptoms of anaphylaxis include shortness of breath, swelling, hives, and sudden drop in blood pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Lorazepam IV is used for ________ and ________.

a)

anxiety and seizures

b)

hypertension and diabetes

c)

infection and pain

d)

nausea and vomiting

38.

When administering lorazepam intravenously (IV), how often should respirations be monitored?

a)

Every 1 minute

b)

Every 5 to 15 minutes

c)

Every 30 minutes

d)

Every hour

39.

What is a side effect of lorazepam IV?

a)

Drowsiness and sedation

b)

Hypertension

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Rash

40.

Bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist that interacts with muscarinic receptors to cause actions typical of parasympathetic stimulation. What is the specific antidote for Bethanechol?

a)

Atropine sulfate

b)

Physostigmine

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Naloxone

41.

What is the primary use of Bethanechol?

a)

To treat nonobstructive urinary retention

b)

To treat hypertension

c)

To relieve pain in angina pectoris

d)

To manage asthma

42.

Phenylephrine belongs to which drug class?

a)

Nasal decongestant

b)

Antihistamine

c)

Beta blocker

d)

Antibiotic

43.

Which of the following is a side effect of prolonged use of Phenylephrine?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Rebound congestion

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Constipation

44.

High doses of Phenylephrine can cause reflex bradycardia due to the ________.

a)

elevation of blood pressure caused

b)

direct stimulation of the vagus nerve

c)

decrease in cardiac output

d)

blockade of beta receptors

45.

Phenylephrine should be used with caution in patients with which of the following conditions?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Advanced coronary artery disease

c)

Asthma

d)

Renal failure

46.

Phenylephrine is NOT used in patients with which of the following?

a)

Acute pancreatitis

b)

Heart disease

c)

Hepatitis

d)

Narrow-angle glaucoma

e)

All of the above

47.

Which of the following is a possible abnormal change associated with Zolpidem?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Suicidal thinking

c)

Constipation

d)

Hypertension

48.

What is the Black Box Warning classification for Zolpidem?

a)

Schedule IV

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule V

49.

What is the required washout period for phenelzine before introducing other drugs?

a)

2 to 3 weeks

b)

1 to 2 days

c)

5 to 7 days

d)

1 month

e)

12 hours

50.

Which of the following is NOT an expected side effect of Atropine?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Constipation

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Decreased heart rate

51.

Which receptors are the primary receptors of the sympathetic autonomic nervous system?

a)

Muscarinic cholinergic receptors

b)

Alpha- & Beta-adrenergic receptors

c)

Nicotinic cholinergic receptors

d)

GABA receptors

52.

Which neurotransmitter do parasympathetic muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors bind?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

53.

Lithium is a ________ drug for bipolar disorder.

a)

mood stabilizer

b)

pain reliever

c)

antibiotic

d)

antidepressant

54.

Which of the following are two signs of lithium toxicity?

a)

Tremor and confusion

b)

Bradycardia and hypertension

c)

Weight gain and insomnia

d)

Hyperactivity and euphoria

55.

Adequate ________ intake is required to prevent kidneys from retaining lithium.

a)

sodium

b)

potassium

c)

calcium

d)

magnesium

56.

Tricyclic antidepressants like Desipramine (Norpramin) & Imipramine (Tofranil) are used when stimulants don’t work for which condition?

a)

ADHD

b)

Diabetes

c)

Asthma

d)

Hypertension

57.

The main risk associated with the use of barbiturates is:

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Improved memory

d)

Muscle growth

58.

Bioavailability is the physiologic ability of the drug to ________.

a)

reach targeted cells and produce its effect

b)

be excreted unchanged in urine

c)

bind irreversibly to plasma proteins

d)

cause allergic reactions in all patients

59.

Potency refers to:

a)

How well a drug works

b)

How much drug is needed for effective use

c)

The side effects of a drug

d)

The duration of drug action

60.

Nicotinic receptors are named because ________ binds to these receptors and makes muscles move.

a)

nicotine

b)

acetylcholine

c)

dopamine

d)

serotonin

61.

What are muscarinic receptors named after?

a)

A) A type of bacteria

b)

B) Muscarine from poisonous mushrooms

c)

C) A neurotransmitter

d)

D) A type of hormone

62.

What is the main function of muscarinic receptors?

a)

Stimulates smooth muscle and stimulates gland secretion.

b)

Inhibits skeletal muscle contraction.

c)

Promotes breakdown of glycogen in the liver.

d)

Decreases heart rate and increases blood pressure.

63.

What is a possible side effect of alpha blockade caused by prazosin?

a)

Nasal congestion

b)

Increased blood pressure

c)

Insomnia

d)

Weight gain

64.

Prazosin is a selective ______ antagonist that competes with norepinephrine at its receptors on vascular smooth muscle in arterioles and veins.

a)

alpha1-adrenergic

b)

beta2-adrenergic

c)

muscarinic

d)

dopaminergic

65.

How long does it generally take for the onset of anti-depressants to show improvement?

a)

Less than 1 week

b)

2-4 weeks

c)

1-2 days

d)

1 year

66.

Which of the following is NOT listed as an antidepressant in the worksheet?

a)

A) Sertraline

b)

B) Imipramine

c)

C) Diazepam

d)

D) None of the above

67.

Barbiturates bind with ______ receptor-chloride channel molecules, intensifying effects of GABA.

a)

GABA

b)

NMDA

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

68.

What is the main action of barbiturates on the brain?

a)

Inhibits brain impulses from passing through limbic and reticular activating systems.

b)

Stimulates the production of dopamine in the brain.

c)

Blocks the reuptake of serotonin in the synaptic cleft.

d)

Enhances the release of acetylcholine in the cortex.

69.

True or False: Drugs do not cure mental illness!

a)

True

b)

False

70.

What type of drug is Haloperidol IM?

a)

2nd generation antipsychotic

b)

1st generation antipsychotic & schizophrenia drug

c)

Antidepressant

d)

Mood stabilizer

71.

Haloperidol IM is a ______ receptor antagonist.

a)

dopamine

b)

serotonin

c)

histamine

d)

acetylcholine

72.

How long does Haloperidol IM last following intramuscular or subcutaneous administration for uncooperative patients?

a)

1 week

b)

2 weeks

c)

3 weeks

d)

4 weeks

73.

What is the antidote used to treat benzodiazepine overdose?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Valproic acid

d)

Ethosuximide

74.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of benzodiazepine overdose?

a)

CNS depression

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Respiratory depression

d)

Hypertension

75.

GABA (Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that ______ brain activity and helps prevent seizures.

a)

slows

b)

increases

c)

stimulates

d)

accelerates

76.

Naloxone (Evzio, Narcan) may be used to reverse respiratory depression in cases of ______ overdose.

a)

opioid

b)

acetaminophen

c)

benzodiazepine

d)

alcohol

77.

Which drug is a first-line treatment for many types of epilepsy?

a)

Flumazenil

b)

Valproic acid

c)

Ethosuximide

d)

Haloperidol

78.

Ethosuximide is a preferred drug for managing ______ seizures.

a)

absence

b)

tonic-clonic

c)

myoclonic

d)

partial

79.

What are two symptoms that Donepezil helps to slow?

a)

Memory loss and dementia symptoms

b)

Headache and nausea

c)

Muscle pain and fever

d)

Cough and sore throat

80.

Donepezil is contraindicated in patients with which conditions?

a)

GI bleeding and jaundice

b)

Hypertension and diabetes

c)

Asthma and eczema

d)

Migraine and insomnia

81.

Donepezil is effective in late stages of dementia.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

What is the mechanism of action of Bile-Acid Sequestrants in the body?

a)

Bind with bile acids to increase excretion of cholesterol in stool.

b)

Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase to reduce cholesterol synthesis.

c)

Increase absorption of dietary cholesterol in the intestine.

d)

Stimulate the production of bile acids in the liver.

83.

What is the target LDL-c level for normal patients?

a)

<100 mg/dL

b)

<70 mg/dL

c)

<130 mg/dL

d)

<160 mg/dL

84.

What is the target LDL-c level for people with high risk (e.g., diabetics, heart disease)?

a)

<70 mg/dL

b)

<100 mg/dL

c)

<130 mg/dL

d)

<160 mg/dL

85.

What is the primary use of Loop Diuretics?

a)

To reduce edema associated with heart, hepatic cirrhosis, or renal failure.

b)

To treat bacterial infections.

c)

To increase blood glucose levels.

d)

To manage chronic pain.

86.

What does a loading dose achieve in drug therapy?

a)

A higher amount of drug given to quickly produce a therapeutic response and reach plateau faster.

b)

It prolongs the half-life of the drug in the body.

c)

It reduces the risk of side effects by lowering the initial dose.

d)

It ensures the drug is completely eliminated before the next dose.