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QUIZZEZ For EXAM 3 – BIOQUIMICA: QUIZZ 1 (#7)

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which process does NOT require energy?

a)

Active transport

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Primary active transport

d)

Coupled transport

2.

Phospholipids are considered amphipathic because:

a)

They are hydrophobic

b)

They are hydrophilic

c)

They contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions

d)

They dissolve easily in water

3.

What is the main role of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

a)

Increase urine production

b)

Decrease water retention

c)

Increase water retention

d)

Stimulate milk production

4.

Which hormone is primarily synthesized by the adrenal glands during pregnancy?

a)

Androgens

b)

Estradiol

c)

Progesterone

d)

Testosterone

5.

Which condition is caused by cortisol excess?

a)

Addison's disease

b)

Hypothyroidism

c)

Cushing syndrome

d)

Diabetes insipidus

6.

What component of the phospholipid is hydrophilic?

a)

Fatty acid tails

b)

Glycerol

c)

Phosphate head

d)

Hydrocarbon chains

7.

Active transport moves molecules:

a)

Down their concentration gradient

b)

Along their electrochemical gradient

c)

Against their concentration gradient

d)

In random directions

8.

The presence of double bonds in the fatty acid tails of phospholipids results in:

a)

Increased membrane fluidity

b)

Decreased membrane fluidity

c)

More stable membranes

d)

No effect on fluidity

9.

The plasma membrane's selective permeability primarily allows which substances to cross easily?

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Oxygen, nutrients, and waste

d)

Ions

10.

How do small, nonpolar molecules cross the membrane?

a)

Via transport proteins

b)

By active transport

c)

By diffusing through the lipid bilayer

d)

Through protein channels

11.

What type of hormones are epinephrine and norepinephrine classified as?

a)

Steroid hormones

b)

Amino acid-derived hormones

c)

Peptide hormones

d)

Lipid-derived hormones

12.

Steroid hormones are derived from which substance?

a)

A. Amino acids

b)

B. Glucose

c)

C. Cholesterol

d)

D. Nucleotides

13.

What is the function of estradiol in the female body?

4 lines
14.

What is the main function of hormones in the body?

a)

To regulate body temperature

b)

To act as chemical messengers

c)

To produce enzymes

d)

To convert glucose to glycogen

15.

Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for stimulating testosterone production in men?

a)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

b)

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

c)

Prolactin

d)

Cortisol

16.

Which of the following is NOT a steroid hormone?

a)

Estradiol

b)

Testosterone

c)

Cortisol

d)

Epinephrine

17.

Membrane proteins that form water-filled pores for ion passage are called:

a)

Transporters

b)

Channel proteins

c)

Carrier proteins

d)

Receptor proteins

18.

Testosterone plays a role in which of the following in males?

a)

Stimulating ovulation

b)

Regulating body temperature

c)

Stimulating sperm production

d)

Increasing melanin production

19.

Which system is primarily responsible for producing and releasing hormones?

a)

Lymphatic system

b)

Digestive system

c)

Endocrine system

d)

Circulatory system

20.

What is the primary function of the plasma membrane?

a)

Protect the cell from harmful substances

b)

Separate the living cell from its surroundings

c)

Absorb nutrients

d)

Produce energy

21.

What is the primary role of luteinizing hormone (LH) in females?

a)

Control of sperm production

b)

Stimulation of growth hormone

c)

Triggering ovulation and regulating the menstrual cycle

d)

Stimulating milk production

22.

What enzyme converts testosterone into estradiol?

a)

Aromatase

b)

Cytochrome c

c)

Cholesterol desmolase

d)

Glucose-6-phosphatase

23.

What is the basic structure of a plasma membrane?

a)

Single lipid layer

b)

Lipid bilayer

c)

Protein layer

d)

Carbohydrate layer

24.

Which of the following molecules can pass through the membrane without assistance?

a)

Ions

b)

Large polar molecules

c)

Small nonpolar molecules

d)

Glucose

25.

High levels of aldosterone can lead to which condition?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Hypercalcemia

26.

What factor does not affect membrane fluidity?

a)

Cholesterol content

b)

Fatty acid tail length

27.

Which hormone is involved in regulating the sleep-wake cycle?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Insulin

c)

Melatonin

d)

Aldosterone

28.

Which type of ion channel is controlled by mechanical stress?

a)

Ligand-gated channels

b)

Voltage-gated channels

c)

Mechanically gated channels

d)

Ungated channels

29.

Which molecule is the most abundant in the plasma membrane?

a)

Glycolipids

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Proteins

30.

Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins?

a)

Signal transduction

b)

Transport

c)

Nutrient synthesis

d)

Cell-cell recognition

31.

Which of the following vitamins is required for calcium absorption?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin K

32.

Which mineral is primarily involved in oxygen transport in the blood?

a)

Calcium

b)

Sodium

c)

Iron

d)

Potassium

33.

What is the recommended calorie distribution from carbohydrates?

a)

10-15%

b)

20-30%

c)

50-60%

d)

70-80%

34.

Triglycerides consist of glycerol and which other component?

a)

A. Amino acids

b)

B. Fatty acids

c)

C. Glucose

d)

D. Phospholipids

35.

Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin K

36.

What is the primary role of calcium in the body?

a)

Oxygen transport

b)

Blood clotting

c)

Bone and teeth formation

d)

Antioxidant defense

37.

Saturated fats are typically found in which state at room temperature?

a)

Liquid

b)

Gas

c)

Solid

d)

Vapor

38.

Which of the following is the primary function of Vitamin A?

a)

DNA synthesis

b)

Vision and skin health

c)

Bone health

d)

Energy metabolism

39.

What is the primary function of fiber in the diet?

(a)  

40.

Which form of Vitamin D is synthesized by the skin in response to sunlight?

a)

Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3)

b)

Ergocalciferol (Vitamin D2)

c)

Retinoic acid

d)

Beta-carotene

41.

Carbohydrates are primarily converted to which substance for energy?

a)

Protein

b)

Glucose

c)

Fiber

d)

Amino acids

42.

Which fatty acid has no double bonds?

a)

Polyunsaturated

b)

Saturated

c)

Unsaturated

d)

Hydrogenated

43.

Cholesterol is important for synthesizing which of the following?

a)

Blood cells

b)

Steroid hormones

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Protein

44.

What is the main source of Vitamin K1 (Phylloquinone)?

a)

Dairy products

b)

Green leafy vegetables

c)

Fatty fish

d)

Egg yolks

45.

What are the two main forms of Vitamin K?

a)

Retinol and Retinoic acid

b)

Tocopherols and Tocotrienols

c)

Phylloquinone and Menaquinones

d)

Cholecalciferol and Ergocalciferol

46.

Which mineral is vital for oxygen transport in the blood?

a)

Iron

b)

Zinc

c)

Selenium

d)

Magnesium

47.

Which mineral is most important for bone health and muscle contraction?

a)

Potassium

b)

Sodium

c)

Calcium

d)

Iron

48.

Which mineral plays a key role in maintaining proper thyroid function?

a)

Zinc

b)

Iodine

c)

Copper

d)

Magnesium

49.

What is the primary role of macronutrients?

a)

Providing antioxidants

b)

Synthesizing new molecules

c)

Providing fuel for cellular respiration

d)

Absorbing water

50.

What is the role of Vitamin E in the body?

a)

Collagen synthesis

b)

Antioxidant protection

c)

Calcium absorption

d)

DNA synthesis

51.

A vegetarian diet typically lacks which of the following?

a)

Vitamin B12

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin K

52.

Which of the following vitamins must be consumed regularly due to lack of storage in the body?

(a)  

53.

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

a)

Glutamine

b)

Glycine

c)

Leucine

d)

Serine

54.

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

a)

Vitamin B12

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin B6

55.

What type of nutrient are vitamins classified as?

a)

Macronutrients

b)

Micronutrients

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

56.

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

a)

Vitamin B

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin B12

57.

Which of the following is NOT a function of micronutrients?

a)

Supporting the immune system

b)

Providing energy

c)

Producing enzymes and hormones

d)

Promoting overall well-being

58.

Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin E

59.

Which of the following is a macronutrient?

a)

Vitamins

b)

Minerals

c)

Proteins

d)

Water

60.

Which vitamin is crucial for the synthesis of collagen?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin E

61.

Which of the following is true about RNA compared to DNA?

a)

RNA is double-stranded, while DNA is single-stranded.

b)

RNA contains thymine instead of uracil.

c)

RNA contains ribose sugar, while DNA contains deoxyribose.

d)

RNA is more stable than DNA.

62.

The best method for predicting the outcome of a genetic cross involving one gene is the following.

a)

Punnett square monohybrid crossing

b)

Punnett square dihybrid crossing

c)

Forked-Line Method

d)

The probability method

63.

What type of RNA is primarily responsible for carrying the genetic code from DNA to the ribosome?

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

snRNA

64.

In the Punnett square method, what fraction of progeny would show a recessive phenotype if the cross is between Aa and Aa?

a)

1/4

b)

1/2

c)

3/4

d)

1/16

65.

Which of the following clinical features is not commonly associated with Down syndrome?

a)

Large tongue

b)

Short neck

c)

Broad chest

d)

Prominent back of the head

66.

Which of the following forces can disrupt Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium by altering allele frequencies in a population?

a)

Random mating

b)

No migration

c)

Mutation

d)

No mutation

67.

Which chromosomal condition results from an extra Y chromosome in males, leading to a 47 XYY configuration?

a)

Turner syndrome

b)

Jacob syndrome

c)

Patau syndrome

d)

Cri-du-chat syndrome

68.

Which of the following is true about the alleles of a gene?

a)

They are always identical

b)

They are alternate forms of a gene

c)

They do not influence the phenotype

d)

They can only be dominant

69.

What type of bond links nucleotides together in a DNA molecule?

a)

Hydrogen bond

b)

Ionic bond

c)

Phosphodiester bond

d)

Peptide bond

70.

How many hydrogen bonds are formed between adenine and thymine in DNA?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

71.

The following statement is true or false: “Mendel’s research led him to formulate three principles of inheritance: (i) the alleles of a gene are either dominant or recessive, (ii) different alleles of a gene segregate from each other during the formation of gametes and (iii) the alleles of different genes assort dependently”.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which of the following Frequencies represent the probability of forming a Aa heterozygote:

a)

q2

b)

p2

c)

2pq

d)

2pq – 2pqF

73.

Which of the following principles states that in a heterozygote, one allele may conceal the presence of another?

a)

Principle of Segregation

b)

Principle of Independent Assortment

c)

Principle of Dominance

d)

Principle of Recombination

74.

Which of the following is a feature of Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)?

a)

Microcephaly

b)

Clenched fist with overlapping fingers and thumbs

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Large hands and feet

75.

Which of the following is not an example of a structural abnormality?

a)

Deletion

b)

Translocation

c)

Trisomy

d)

Substitution

76.

The estimated prevalence of Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13) in live births is:

a)

1 in 16,000

b)

1 in 5,000

c)

1 in 1,000

d)

1 in 100,000

77.

Which nucleic acid is responsible for directing the synthesis of mRNA?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

78.

Cri-du-chat syndrome results from which type of chromosomal abnormality?

a)

Trisomy

b)

Monosomy

c)

Deletion

d)

Duplication

79.

In a dihybrid cross between plants with yellow round seeds (GGWW), and green wrinkled seeds (ggww), what phenotypic ratio did Mendel observe in the F2 generation?

a)

A. 9:3:3:1

b)

B. 1:2:1

c)

C. 3:1

d)

D. 2:2

80.

If the frequency of the LM allele is 0.54 and the frequency of the LN allele is 0.46 in a population, what is the sum of these frequencies?

a)

0.5

b)

1.0

c)

0.92

d)

0.64

81.

23. Which of the following is an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

No mutation occurs in the population.

b)

Natural selection is actively occurring.

c)

Population size is very small.

d)

Individuals migrate frequently in and out of the population.

82.

What is the monomer unit of DNA?

a)

A. Amino acid

b)

B. Nucleotide

c)

C. Monosaccharide

d)

D. Fatty acid

83.

Mendel's Principle of Segregation suggests that:

a)

Different genes assort independently of each other

b)

Alleles segregate from each other during the formation of gametes

c)

Alleles of a gene are always dominant

d)

Only dominant alleles are passed on to the next generation

84.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

DNA helicase

c)

RNA primase

d)

DNA ligase

85.

In DNA, adenine always pairs with:

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

86.

What type of macromolecule stores, transmits, and helps express hereditary information?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic acids

87.

What is the probability of producing an Aa heterozygote in a randomly mating population, assuming that the allele frequencies of A and a are p and q respectively?

a)

p²

b)

q²

c)

2pq

88.

Fill in the blank: D. ___

a)

pq

b)

qr

c)

rs

d)

st

89.

The structure of DNA described as a double helix was proposed by:

a)

A. Watson and Crick

b)

B. Hershey and Chase

c)

C. Avery and MacLeod

d)

D. Meselson and Stahl

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