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Microbiology Exam 2 Review

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What term do we use to refer to a naturally occurring chemical substance that kills microbes?

a)

Antimicrobial

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Bactericide

d)

Chemotherapeutic

2.

What is the main goal of an antimicrobial?

a)

To kill the microbe without harming the host

b)

Complements the host’s immune system

c)

Can be easily broken down and excreted by the host

d)

That it is soluble

3.

The scale that guides individuals in determining whether or not an antimicrobial is safe to use?

a)

Minimum inhibitory scale

b)

Fujita scale

c)

Therapeutic index

d)

Toxicity index

4.

Side effects to antimicrobials fall into 3 categories. Which of the following is one of those categories?

a)

Allergic reactions

b)

Drug/Drug interaction

c)

Genetic mutation

d)

All of the above

5.

Penicillin is a cell wall inhibitor. How may it be acting?

a)

Prevent the synthesis of phospholipids

b)

Prevent the synthesis of lipopolysaccharide

c)

Prevent the synthesis of peptidoglycan

d)

All of the above

6.

Of the list below, what would be the most difficult infection to treat with an antimicrobial?

a)

Gram positive bacteria

b)

Virus

c)

Mycobacterium

d)

Fungal

7.

Parasites are difficult to treat because:

a)

They are large

b)

They are eukaryotic

c)

They have multiple life stages

d)

All of the above

8.

Viruses are difficult to treat because:

a)

They are small

b)

They do not have many targets

c)

Their capsid protects them

d)

All of the above

9.

Antimicrobial drug resistance can develop by:

a)

Mutation in the DNA

b)

Horizontal gene transfer

c)

Shutting down a metabolic pathway

d)

All of the above

10.

A common mechanism for drug resistance is:

a)

Make an enzyme to degrade the drug

b)

Change the cell wall from G(+) to G(-)

c)

Stop producing ribosomes

d)

Metabolize the drug to make energy

11.

One antiphagocytic factor is:

a)

Enzymes

b)

Flagella

c)

pili

d)

capsule

12.

What do we call organisms that cause disease when the host’s defense are compromised?

a)

True pathogen

b)

Facultative pathogen

c)

Opportunistic pathogen

d)

Fabricated pathogen

13.

Degree or relative capacity of an organism to infect and damage a host

a)

Pathogenicity

b)

Colonization capacity

c)

Infectivity

d)

Virulence

14.

Attachment of a pathogen to a host is non-specific

a)

true

b)

false

15.

Infectious disease that is only transmitted through a vector and not human to human

a)

Contagious

b)

Communicable

c)

Non-communicable

d)

Zoonotic

16.

Number of new cases over a certain period of time

a)

Incidence

b)

Prevalence

c)

Morbidity rate

d)

Mortality rate

17.

The first and second line of defense are innate and provide nonspecific protection.

a)

true

b)

false

18.

The term lymphocytes refers to:

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

Monocytes

d)

B and T cells

e)

All of the above

19.

Connective tissue fibers between organs and tissues that is a passageway for WBC is called:

a)

The Blood Cell System

b)

The Circulatory System

c)

The Lymphatic system

d)

The Reticuloendothelial system

20.

WBC include

a)

Natural Killer cells

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Dendritic cells

d)

All of the above

21.

WBC find pathogens by:

a)

Deciphering ‘self’ from ‘non-self’ cells

b)

Random selection

c)

Antibodies

d)

Phagocytosis

22.

The skin is a good physical barrier because:

a)

It constantly sloughs off

b)

the outer layer is impervious

c)

the outer layer is water proof

d)

all of the above

23.

The presence of the microbiota can help prevent disease because they take up space and block binding sites that pathogens could take advantage of.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

The first line of defense

a)

Is non-specific

b)

Includes physical response like fever

c)

Is acquired on an individual basis

d)

All of the above

25.

One chemical response is

a)

Vaginal secretions

b)

The mucus membrane

c)

Electrolytes in sweat

d)

All of the above

26.

The purpose of inflammation is to bring more nutrients to the cells that have been damaged.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

What molecule is released that causes white blood cells to move to an area of damage?

a)

antimicrobial peptides

b)

cytokines

c)

granzymes

d)

siderophores

28.

Professional phagocytes include

a)

neutrophils

b)

macrophages

c)

dendritic cells

d)

all of the above

29.

Macrophages and dendritic cells use phagocytosis as a way to extract foreign matter from a pathogen so it can be presented to a T cell.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

How do professional phagocytes recognize a foreign cell?

a)

pattern recognition receptors

b)

epitopes

c)

pathogen-associated molecular patterns

d)

antigens

31.

The movement of WBC to a site of inflammation is called:

a)

swarming

b)

chemostasis

c)

crawling

d)

chemotaxis

32.

This second line defense is a cascade of proteins that poke holes in the membrane of bacterial cells

a)

Antimicrobial peptides

b)

Complement

c)

Inflammation

d)

Phagocytosis

33.

A second line defense protein that prevents viral replication is

a)

Interleukin

b)

Interferon

c)

Tumor necrosis factor

d)

All of the above

34.

The third line defenses are our adaptive immunity and depend on our own exposures to microbes

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Molecules that generate a specific response from T and B cells are:

a)

lymphocytes

b)

antibodies

c)

antigens

d)

PAMPs

36.

T cells mature in the:

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

thymus

c)

Bone marrow

d)

spleen

37.

B cell maturation involves genetic splicing so immunoglobins are unique.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The region of the antibody that binds the antigen and is incredibly diverse.

a)

Fc

b)

Fab

c)

Antigen binding site

d)

Constant region

39.

Markers on a cell that tags the cell as ‘self’

a)

antibodies

b)

CD8

c)

CD4

d)

major histocompatibility complex

40.

The lymphocytes recognizes and responds specifically to the:

a)

Antigen

b)

epitope

c)

PAMP

d)

antibody

41.

list the 5 stages of infection

(a)  

42.

a strip of biochemicals that is used to produce a numeric code to identify a microorganism

a)

MALDI-TOF

b)

Serotyping

c)

Rapid Panel

d)

DNA hybridization w/probes

43.

first professional phagocyte to respond to inflammatory signals

a)

neutrophils

b)

monocytes

c)

dendritic cells

d)

marcophages

44.

bacteria, fungi, and protozoa that live in equilibrium with the human host

a)

parasites

b)

pathogens

c)

normal flora

d)

colonizers

45.

microbes that can cause disease in healthy individuals

a)

opportunistic pathogens

b)

determined pathogens

c)

virulent pathogens

d)

true pathogens

46.

antimicrobials that target a wide variety of microbial types (example: bacteria) are narrow spectrum

a)

true

b)

false

47.

diseases that are highly transmitted from human to human, especially through contact

a)

contagious

b)

communicable

c)

non-communicalbe

d)

nosocomial

48.

pathgocytes use these to bind to pathogen-associated molecular patterns on foreigners

a)

pattern recognition receptors

b)

MHC I

c)

MCH II

d)

antibodies

49.

naïve CD8 cells turn into these after activation and differentiation

a)

T helper cells

b)

T cytotoxic cells

c)

T chemotoxic cells

d)

natural killers

50.

side effects of antimicrobial agents include

a)

autism

b)

organ toxicity

c)

cancer

d)

all of the above

51.

professional phagocytes include:

a)

basophils

b)

neutrophils

c)

T cells

d)

erythrocytes

52.

overgrowth of Candida Albicans due to treatment of an E. coli UTIC is an example of

a)

immunocompetence

b)

immunocompromised

c)

a superinfection

d)

bad luck

53.

an antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis is

a)

erythromycin

b)

penicillin

c)

polymyxin

d)

quinolones

54.

sneezing is considered a

a)

first line physical defense of the respiratory tract

b)

first line chemical defense of the respiratory tract

c)

second line physical defense of the respiratory tract

d)

third line defense of the respiratory tract

55.

biofilms are hard to treat because

a)

antimicrobials cannot penetrate

b)

cells have the same phenotype

c)

cells are rapidly dividing

d)

all of the above

56.

drug resistance can only be acquired by inheriting a plasmid

a)

true

b)

false

57.

T cells mature in the thymus and maturation includes the generation of different receptors

a)

true

b)

false

58.

Why may an antimicrobial fail?

a)

Cannot diffuse to the infected area

b)

Microbial resistance

c)

Mixed pathogen infection

d)

All of the above

59.

The immune system is responsible for

a)

Keeping foreign matter out

b)

Surveillance of the body

c)

Recognition and destruction of foreigners

d)

all of the above

60.

The desired effect of a vaccine is to:

a)

Stimulate passive immunity

b)

Cause an infection

c)

stimuate a secon line response

d)

stimulate active immunity

61.

Normal flora will never cause disease

a)

true

b)

false

62.

the ability of a microbe to establish in a host and cause damage

a)

virulence

b)

pathogenicity

c)

toxicity

d)

infectivity

63.

list the stages of inflammation

(a)  

64.

tumor necrosis factor and interleukins are examples of

a)

pattern recognition receptors

b)

markers

c)

PAMPs

d)

cytokines

65.

naïve B cells presenting an antigen must be activated by:

a)

marcophages

b)

plasma cells

c)

t cytotoxic cells

d)

T helper cells

66.

white blood cells recognize self from nonself through the use of

a)

enzymes

b)

cytokines

c)

markers

d)

PAMPs

67.

number of total deaths in a population due to a certain disease

a)

morbidity

b)

prevalence

c)

incidence

d)

mortality

68.

mechanisms (functions) microbes gain to become drug resistant include:

a)

produce a new enzyme to degrade a drug

b)

turning on receptors

c)

increasing enzyme numbers

d)

all of the above

69.

macrophages use this to travel through tissues

a)

lymph

b)

reticulum

c)

blood

d)

lymph nodes

70.

bean-shaped organs located throughout the body that allow lymphocytes and phagocytes to interact

a)

spleen

b)

lymph nodes

c)

thymus

d)

reticulum

71.

what is the main goal of an antimicrobial

a)

destroy agent without harming host

b)

easy to administer

c)

can be excreted safely

d)

reasonably priced

72.

therapeutic index is

a)

ratio of dose toxicity to humans vs. effective dose to microbe

b)

in vivo concentration of drug

c)

minimum amount of drug to kill a microbe

d)

minimum amount of drug to prevent microbial growth

73.

parasites are difficult to treat because:

a)

multiple stages of life prevent universal drug treatment

b)

size

c)

blocking reproduction may not be effective, particularly for helminths

d)

all of the above

74.

the purpose of inflammation is to:

a)

forcibly eject the microbe from the body

b)

initiate fever

c)

mobilize immune components & repair tissue

d)

bind available iron

75.

CD4 naïve cells recognize antigen presented on:

a)

MHC II

b)

MHC I

c)

immunoglobulins

d)

MHC III

76.

the ability of an antibody to bind to a viral receptor and block adsorption

a)

agglutination

b)

opsonization

c)

neutralization

77.

antimicrobial protein used to inhibit viral replication

a)

interferon

b)

interleukin

c)

complement

d)

tumor necrosis factor

78.

the most specific line defense is the:

a)

first

b)

second

c)

third

79.

molecules that initiate B and T cell activation

a)

epitopes

b)

antibodies

c)

immunogens

d)

PAMPs

80.

a synthetic drug used to treat disease

a)

antibiotic

b)

antimicrobial

c)

chemotherapeutic

d)

bactericidal agent

81.

additive to vaccines that helps precipitate the antigen and hold it in the tissues

a)

conjugate

b)

adjuvant

c)

subunit

d)

attenuate

82.

What is one disadvantage of phenotypic testing?

a)

It can be costly

b)

They can take longer to get results

c)

They are technical

d)

all of the above

83.

Phenotypic tests identify microbes by the media it can grow on, the enzymes it produces, and the biochemical processes it can carry out.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

A rapid panel is a strip that contains a series of biochemical assays that can result in a numerical code that identifies a microbe.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Serological tests are generally depend on this molecule.

a)

Antibodies

b)

Enzymes

c)

Cytokines

d)

Chemokines

86.

Which line of defense are serological tests based upon?

a)

First line

b)

Second line

c)

Third line

87.

Which type of test using the clumping of antigen with antibody to detect infection?

a)

direct ELISA

b)

indirect ELISA

c)

Sandwich ELISA

d)

Agglutination