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Year 1 MBChB Physiology crash course

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the name given to invaginations of the sarcolemma that coordinate muscle contractions in the heart?

a)

Plasma membrane

b)

T-Tubules

c)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Striations

e)

Gap junctions

2.

What do cholinergic receptors do when active?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Bronchodiliation

c)

Increase heart rate

d)

Decrease heart rate

e)

Increase force of contraction

3.

What is roughly the heart rate when controlled by the AV Node?

a)

10-50

b)

20-40

c)

40-60

d)

50-80

e)

60-100

4.

What happens during the QT interval of an ECG?

a)

Ventricular depolarization

b)

Atrial depolarization

c)

Electrical activity of the ventricles

d)

Delay by the AV node

e)

Atrial repolarization

5.

"The total pressure exerted by a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of each partial pressures of each individual gas"

Is which law?

a)

Henry's law

b)

Dalton's law

c)

Boyle's law

d)

Bohr effect

6.

An increase in the temperature in the blood would cause what effects?

a)

Right shift on the oxygen dissociation curve

b)

Left shift on the oxygen dissociation curve

c)

Hb higher affinity for oxygen

d)

Hb lower affinity for oxygen

e)

Less unloading of oxygen at tissues

7.

Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors found?

a)

Lungs

b)

Carotid sinuses

c)

Aortic Arch

d)

Brainstem

e)

Left atrium

8.

What does the ventral medullary group control?

a)

Sends signals to inhibit inspiration

b)

Stimulates inspiratory movements

c)

Monitors pH of blood

d)

Stimulates expiratory movements

e)

Sends signals to stimulate inspiration

9.

What does the pneumotaxic centre control?

a)

Rate of respiration

b)

Sends inhibitory signals for inspiration

c)

Depth of breath

d)

Sends stimulatory signals for inspiration

10.

Which of the following lung volumes cannot be measured using simple spirometry?

a)

Expiratory reserve volume

b)

Residual volume

c)

Inspiratory reserve volume

d)

Tidal volume

e)

Vital capacity

11.

Which of the following best describes the effects of a higher rate of metabolism and therefore a higher concentration of CO2 on the blood?

a)

Higher blood pH

b)

Lower bodily temperature

c)

Lower blood pH

d)

Increased oxygen affinity for Hb

e)

No effect

12.

What is the typical tidal volume in a healthy adult?

a)

50ml

b)

200ml

c)

500ml

d)

1000ml

e)

2000ml

13.

What is the typical resting membrane potential of a cardiac myocyte?

a)

-50mv

b)

-70mv

c)

-90mv

d)

+70mv

e)

-120mv

14.

What is the function of CRH?

a)

Stimulates production of growth hormone from the adenohypophysis

b)

Stimulates the release of cortisol from the zona fasciculata of the adrenal gland

c)

Stimulates production of ACTH in the adenohypophysis

d)

Stimulates the hypothalamus to release ACTH

e)

Inhibits the release of cortisol from the adrenal gland

15.

Which of the following hormones stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes and emptying of the gall bladder?

a)

GLP-1

b)

GIP

c)

Secretin

d)

CCK

e)

Histamine

16.

What is the function of Somatostatin (GHIH) in the digestive system?

a)

Inhibits gastrin and histamine secretion

b)

Stimulates contraction and emptying of the gallbladder

c)

Stimulates the release of bicarbonate from the centroacinar cells of the pancrease

d)

Inhibits gastric secretion and motility

e)

Stimulates gastric acid secretion

17.

What stimulates the release of secretin from S cells in the duodenum?

a)

Distension of the duodenum as food bolus passes into it from the stomach

b)

Presence of lipids and carbohydrates

c)

Decreased pH

d)

Peristalsis

e)

Presence of partially digested peptides

18.

Gonadocorticoids are produced and secreted from which layer of the adrenal gland?

a)

Zona glomerulosa

b)

Zona fasciculata

c)

Zona reticularis

d)

Medulla

19.

Which of the following are processes facilitated by PTH?

a)

Uptake of free plasma Ca2+ into cells

b)

Increased reabsorption of Ca2+ in the kidneys

c)

Release of OPG by Osteoblasts to inhibit RANK-RANKL pathway

d)

Increase of secretion of Ca2+ into the small intestine

e)

Inhibiting Osteocyte activity

20.

What stimulates the release of Calcitonin?

a)

Decreased plasma Ca2+ concentration

b)

PTH release

c)

Release of GH from thyroid gland

d)

Increased plasma Ca2+ concentration

21.

Ovulation is triggered by surges in which hormones?

a)

FSH

b)

Progesterone

c)

GnRH

d)

LH

e)

Oestrogen

22.

What cell secretes Inhibin, Activin and ABP's

a)

Granulosa cells

b)

Sertoli cells

c)

Leydig cells

d)

Paneth cells

e)

B cells

23.

What is the function of ependymal cells?

a)

Form the blood-brain barrier

b)

Clean up debris and maintain the chemical microenvironment

c)

Form myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system

d)

Line the cavities and ventricles of the brain and spinal cord

e)

Help move substances from the blood to neurones

24.

Where does Adrenaline/Noradrenaline act on a peripheral nervous system synapse?

a)

Long pre-synaptic fibres

b)

Short pre-synaptic fibres

c)

Post-ganglionic synapse

d)

Pre-ganglionic synapse

e)

Somatic synapse

25.

Where are the muscarinic receptors found?

a)

Post-synaptic surface of post-ganglionic synapses

b)

Post-synaptic membrane of pre-ganglionic synapses

c)

On skeletal muscles

d)

On long presynaptic fibres

e)

On short post-synaptic fibres

26.

Which of the following is a function of alpha 1 (α1) receptors?

a)

Increase heart rate

b)

Mediate vasoconstriction

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Bronchodilation

e)

Decrease heart rate

27.

Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter

a)

GABA

b)

Glycine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Aminobutratic

e)

Dopamine

28.

What is contained within the white matter of the brain?

a)

Nerve cell bodies

b)

Dendrites

c)

Central glial cells

d)

Only axons of neurons

e)

Astrocytes

29.

Merkel's discs are unencapsulated nerve endings found in the upper layer of the skin, which of the following are true about them?

a)

Slow-adapting

b)

Responds to deep touch

c)

Fast-adapting

d)

Responds to light touch

e)

Responds to high frequency vibration

30.

Which of the following best stimulates the release of gastrin?

a)

Decrease of pH in the duodenum

b)

Stomach distension

c)

Presence of partially digested lipids

d)

Vagal inhibition

e)

Release of secretin

31.

What part of the digestive tract is responsible for absorption of Vitamin B12

a)

Stomach

b)

Jejunum

c)

Duodenum

d)

Ileum

e)

Cecum

32.

Which of the following substances are needed for the absorption of fat soluble molecules?

a)

Intrinsic factor

b)

Co-factor A

c)

Micelles

d)

Bile salts

e)

Bicarbonate solution

33.

What is the main function of the myenteric plexus?

(for joju: this is the one located in the muscularis)

a)

Control of motility and peristalsis

b)

Control of gastric secretions

c)

Regulation of mucosal blood flow

d)

Absorption of nutrients

34.

Which of the following best describes peristalsis?

a)

Rhythmic contractions of the pyloric sphincter

b)

Wave like contractions that act between meals to push remnants towards the large intestine as a housekeeping function

c)

Co-ordinated wave like contractions acting between adjacent portions to push food forward

d)

Segmental mixing of food within the small intestine

e)

Retrograde propulsion of contents

35.

Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin by what enzyme?

a)

Amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

Gastric acid

d)

Chymotrypsin

e)

Enterokinase (enteropeptidase)

36.

Which hormone stimulates the migrating motor complex during a fasted state?

a)

Gastrin

b)

CCK

c)

Leptin

d)

Ghrelin

e)

Motiliin

37.

What molecule, stimulated by the PNS relaxes the arteries of the corpus cavernosum of the penis, causing an erection

a)

5-HT

b)

PDE-5

c)

Nitrous Oxide

d)

Acetylcholine

e)

Cyclic GMP

38.

Where is the majority of fluid reabsorbed in the nephron system?

a)

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

b)

Descending limb of Loop of Henle

c)

Ascending limb of Loop of Henle

d)

Distal Convoluted Tubule

e)

Collecting Duct

39.

What section of the loop of henle is permeable to ions/solutes?

a)

Ascending Limb

b)

Descending Limb

c)

Distal Tubule

d)

Collecting duct

40.

What factors influence the GFR?

a)

Sodium plasma concentration

b)

Net filtration pressure

c)

Efferent arteriole hydrostatic pressure

d)

Surface area of proximal convoluted tubules

e)

Filtration co-efficient

41.

How is Na+ absorbed on the apical membrane

a)

Active transport by GLUT2 transporter

b)

Na+/K+ ATPase pump

c)

Active transport by Na+/Glucose symporter

d)

Facilitated diffusion

e)

Diffusion using an Na+

42.

Which cells secrete renin?

a)

Macula cells

b)

Granular cells

c)

Chromaffin cells

d)

Chief cells

e)

Parafollicular cells

43.

What is the result of paracrine signals from the macula densa if GFR increases?

a)

Afferent arterioles constrict

b)

Efferent arterioles dilate

c)

Efferent arterioles constrict

d)

Sodium reabsorption increases

e)

Potassium secretions incerase

44.

How are organic anions (i.e Na+) reabsorbed in the PCT

a)

Direct active transport using an Na+/K+ ATPase

b)

Facilitated diffusion using a carrier protein

c)

Direct diffusion across the membrane

d)

Indirect active transport by dicarboxylate molecule

45.

What is the effect of ADH

a)

Increases number of pores for water reabsorption in the collecting ducts

b)

Increases excretion of water to dilute urine

c)

Increases reabsorption of Ca2+ from the kidneys to balance plasma concentration

d)

Mobilises Osteoclasts in the bones to resorb Ca2+

e)

Decreases the GFR

46.

Aldosterone mainly acts on the DCT and collecting duct to increase sodium retention. What are the target cells of aldosterone?

a)

Chief cells

b)

Principal cells

c)

Enterocytes

d)

Pituicytes

e)

Follicular cells

47.

How is clearance calculated?

a)

Filtration - Reabsorption + Secretion

b)

[X] x GFR

c)

Urine flow x [X](urine)

d)

(Excretion rate of X) / [X]plasma

48.

What is the units of clearance?

a)

mg per ml of urine

b)

Ml plasma cleared of X per minute

c)

ml/mmhg

d)

ml plasma cleared of x per hour

e)

Mg of X per minute

49.

Which of the following proteins bind to calcium to initiate muscle contraction in skeletal muscles?

a)

Myosin

b)

Actin

c)

Tropomyosin

d)

Troponin-C

e)

Titin

50.

Which ion is responsible for initiating depolarisation of a muscle fiber?

a)

Na+

b)

K+

c)

Cl-

d)

Ca2+

e)

Mg2+

51.

During the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction which band shortens?

a)

A Band

b)

I band

c)

H zone

d)

M line

e)

Z Line

52.

Which of the following is true about Type I muscle fibers?

a)

Fatigue quickly

b)

Slow-twitch fibers

c)

Fast twitch fibers

d)

Are entirely anaerobic

e)

Contain large glycogen storages

53.

Calcium is released from storage due to membrane depolarisation from which muscle fiber organelle?

a)

T-Tubules

b)

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Golgi

e)

Sarcolemma

54.

Which of the following best describes the function of tropomyosin

a)

Hydrolyses ATP

b)

Binds to calcium ions to initiate contraction

c)

Forms cross-bridges with actin

d)

Releases calcium ions

e)

Covers myosin binding sites on actin

55.

What is the role of ATP in muscle relaxation?

a)

Detaches myosin heads from actin

b)

Depolarizes the membrane

c)

Calcium ion active transport

d)

ATP hydrolysis provides energy for "Power Stroke"

e)

Cross bridge cycling

56.

What protein inhibits osteoclast function?

a)

OTG

b)

RANK

c)

RANK-L

d)

IL-4

e)

OPG

57.

Which of the following is an example of an energy source for immediate muscle contraction?

a)

Phosphocreatine system

b)

Glyolysis

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

Oxidative phosphorylation

e)

Fatty acid oxidation

58.

What is the name of the process that forms new bone from converting hyaline cartilage to bone tissue?

a)

Intramembranous ossifcation

b)

Endochondral ossification

c)

Bone remodelling

d)

RANK-RANKL pathway

e)

mTOR pathway

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