Worksheets26 June exam
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the peak factor recommended for a population up to 50,000 as per water demand calculation?
a)
1.5
b)
2.0
c)
2.5
d)
3.0
2.
Which method is most suitable for population forecasting in fast developing cities?
a)
Arithmetic increase method
b)
Geometric increase method
c)
Incremental increase method
d)
Decreasing growth rate method
3.
Calculate the Dry Weather Flow (DWF) for a population of 80,000 with a per capita water supply of 150 LPCD, assuming 80% of water supply becomes sewage.
a)
8,000,000 litres/day
b)
9,600,000 litres/day
c)
12,000,000 litres/day
d)
15,000,000 litres/day
4.
Estimate the maximum hourly flow for a community with DWF of 15 million litres/day.
a)
22.5 million litres/day
b)
30 million litres/day
c)
45 million litres/day
d)
60 million litres/day
5.
Which water treatment process is specifically used for removing colloidal impurities?
a)
Screening
b)
Plain sedimentation
c)
Coagulation
d)
Filtration
6.
Which sewer material is most suitable for resisting sulphide corrosion?
a)
Brick sewer
b)
Vitrified clay sewer
c)
RCC sewer
d)
Cast iron sewer
7.
Which method is used to measure the dissolved oxygen content in water?
a)
Winkler’s method
b)
Mohr’s method
c)
Argentometric method
d)
Colorimetry using zirconium
8.
Which sewer joint is most suitable for connecting asbestos cement pipes in flexible curves?
a)
Spigot and socket joint
b)
Simplex joint
c)
Flanged joint
d)
Collar joint
9.
The primary source of offensive odours in septic sewage is due to:
a)
Presence of aerobic bacteria
b)
High dissolved oxygen levels
c)
Anaerobic decomposition
d)
Presence of sulphates
10.
In which of the following systems is a relief vent pipe provided only for water closets?
a)
Two pipe system
b)
One pipe system
c)
Single stack system
d)
Partially ventilated single stack system
11.
Which sewer cleaning method is used when large quantity of water is not available for testing?
a)
Water test
b)
Air test
c)
Smoke test
d)
Mirror test
12.
What is the minimum internal diameter of sewer pipes recommended by the National Building Organization (NBO)?
a)
10 cm
b)
15 cm
c)
20 cm
d)
30 cm
13.
What is the minimum water seal required for traps in house drainage to prevent sewer gases from entering?
a)
10 mm
b)
25 mm
c)
50 mm
d)
75 mm
14.
Which of the following types of sleepers is most suitable for electrified railway tracks and offers maximum life span?
a)
Wooden sleeper
b)
Steel sleeper
c)
Pre-stressed concrete sleeper
d)
Cast iron sleeper
15.
Which statement correctly describes the purpose of the coning of railway wheels?
a)
It helps distribute load across both rails.
b)
It maintains uniform pressure between rails and sleepers.
c)
It reduces lateral wear and prevents derailment on curves.
d)
It provides drainage pathways along the track.
16.
Which of the following aggregate tests best determines the suitability of stone for wearing surfaces like roads?
a)
Los Angeles Abrasion Test
b)
CBR Test
c)
Soundness Test
d)
Flakiness Index Test
17.
A Dorry abrasion test on a rock specimen resulted in a weight loss of 6 grams. Based on this result, classify the aggregate quality.
a)
Too soft for road work
b)
Medium quality aggregate
c)
Good quality aggregate
d)
None of these
18.
Which component of a railway track ensures proper drainage and distributes load from the sleeper to the formation?
a)
Rails
b)
Ballast
c)
Sleepers
d)
Fish plates
19.
Match the following types of bridges with their characteristics:
A. Cantilever Bridge
B. Arch Bridge
C. Suspension Bridge
D. Bowstring Girder Bridge
1. Moves horizontal thrust to the foundation
2. Uses cables stretched over towers
3. Supported at one end and free at the other
4. Tension carried by the deck structure
a)
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
b)
A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
c)
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
d)
A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
20.
Which of the following soil structures is most commonly found in coarse-grained soils such as gravel and sand?
a)
Honey combed structure
b)
Single grained structure
c)
Flocculated structure
d)
Cohesive matrix
21.
Darcy’s law relates the velocity of flow through soil to which of the following parameters?
a)
Hydraulic gradient
b)
Soil density
c)
Water content
d)
Grain size distribution
22.
In a Standard Proctor Test, the primary objective is to achieve:
a)
Minimum permeability
b)
Maximum dry density
c)
Minimum void ratio
d)
Zero air void condition
23.
Statement 1: Compaction reduces soil air voids. Statement 2: Consolidation reduces soil water content. Select the correct option:
a)
Both statements are correct
b)
Only Statement 1 is correct
c)
Only Statement 2 is correct
d)
Both statements are incorrect
24.
A sample shows a plastic limit of 20% and a liquid limit of 45%. Determine the Plasticity Index.
a)
15%
b)
20%
c)
25%
d)
30%
25.
Which type of soil structure tends to collapse when subjected to vibrations?
a)
Single grained structure
b)
Honey combed structure
c)
Flocculated structure
d)
Cohesive matrix
26.
Which of the following is not a typical method for laboratory determination of permeability?
a)
Constant head test
b)
Falling head test
c)
Proctor compaction test
d)
Pumping out test
27.
Which type of footing is used when the load of a wall needs to be distributed over a larger area?
a)
Isolated footing
b)
Strip footing
c)
Strap footing
d)
Raft foundation
28.
Which soil type is formed by the chemical alteration of volcanic ash?
a)
Loess
b)
Bentonite
c)
Caliche
d)
Till
29.
In which footing type does the strap beam not transfer any load to the soil?
a)
Isolated footing
b)
Combined footing
c)
Strap footing
d)
Raft foundation
30.
Match the following types of soil with their characteristics:
A. Hardpan
B. Black cotton soil
C. Loess
D. Varved clay
a)
A-Impervious to water, B-High volume change, C-Wind blown deposit, D-Alternate silty layers
b)
A-High volume change, B-Wind blown deposit, C-Impervious to water, D-Alternate silty layers
c)
A-Wind blown deposit, B-Impervious to water, C-High volume change, D-Alternate silty layers
d)
A-Alternate silty layers, B-Impervious to water, C-Wind blown deposit, D-High volume change
31.
The minimum edge thickness of a reinforced concrete footing on soil, as per IS code, should not be less than:
a)
100 mm
b)
150 mm
c)
200 mm
d)
250 mm
32.
Which type of canal is aligned along the ridge line and can irrigate fields on both sides without cross drainage works?
a)
Contour Canal
b)
Side Slope Canal
c)
Ridge Canal
d)
Feeder Canal
33.
What is the main purpose of lining canals?
a)
Increase canal depth
b)
Prevent erosion of soil
c)
Prevent seepage
d)
Reduce maintenance only
34.
Which type of cross drainage work involves a canal being carried over a drain where the drain flows at atmospheric pressure?
a)
Aqueduct
b)
Syphon Aqueduct
c)
Super Passage
d)
Canal Syphon
35.
Which type of dam utilizes horizontal arch action to resist water pressure and is economical for remote areas?
a)
Gravity Dam
b)
Arch Dam
c)
Earth Dam
d)
Buttress Dam
36.
Which component of a diversion headwork helps to remove silt in front of the canal head regulator by providing controlled openings in the weir wall?
a)
Fish ladder
b)
Under sluice
c)
Divide wall
d)
Guide bank
37.
Which type of dam can absorb shocks and is preferred in earthquake-prone areas?
a)
Concrete Dam
b)
Rockfill Dam
c)
Earth Dam
d)
Timber Dam
38.
Which type of irrigation method is known for the highest water application efficiency of about 90%?
a)
Surface Irrigation
b)
Drip Irrigation
c)
Flood Irrigation
d)
Sprinkler Irrigation
39.
Which irrigation system uses water applied in the form of spray using pipes and nozzles?
a)
Surface Irrigation
b)
Sprinkler Irrigation
c)
Furrow Irrigation
d)
Drip Irrigation
40.
In cross drainage works, when a canal meets a drain at the same level and both waters intermingle, it is known as what?
a)
Level Crossing
b)
Aqueduct
c)
Canal Syphon
d)
Super Passage
41.
Calculate the area irrigated if the base period is 120 days, total water requirement is 40 cm, and canal discharge is 2 m³/s.
a)
3840 hectares
b)
5184 hectares
c)
3200 hectares
d)
4500 hectares
42.
What is the primary function of fish ladders in diversion headworks?
a)
To regulate silt entry into canal
b)
To provide fish breeding ground
c)
To allow fish to migrate upstream
d)
To remove silt from the river
43.
The process of determining the fair price or value of a property is called:
a)
Estimation
b)
Pricing
c)
Valuation
d)
Costing
44.
Which of the following is NOT included in outgoings in building valuation?
a)
Taxes
b)
Sinking Fund
c)
Scrap Value
d)
Market Value
45.
The annual sinking fund installment for a sinking fund of Rs. 500000 to be accumulated in 20 years at 5% compound interest rate is closest to:
a)
23000
b)
15121
c)
25000
d)
25500
46.
Assertion (A): Depreciation of buildings is caused by wear and tear, structural deterioration, and obsolescence.
Reason (R): Repairs and maintenance reduce the need for depreciation.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true, but R is false
d)
A is false, but R is true
47.
The unit of measurement for RCC work is:
a)
m²
b)
m³
c)
Running meter
d)
Each
48.
In painting, the multiplying factor for flush doors for each side is:
a)
1.0
b)
1.2
c)
2.0
d)
2.5
49.
Calculate the number of bricks required for constructing a 5 m³ brick wall. Assume brick size is 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm.
a)
2000 bricks
b)
2500 bricks
c)
3000 bricks
d)
3500 bricks
50.
Which system of units includes centimetre, gram, and second as fundamental units?
a)
CGS system
b)
MKS system
c)
SI system
d)
FPS system
51.
Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
a)
Velocity
b)
Force
c)
Speed
d)
Acceleration
52.
Which machine is irreversible and self-locking in nature?
a)
Screw Jack
b)
Inclined Plane
c)
Lever
d)
Pulley system
53.
Which type of friction has the smallest magnitude among the following?
a)
Sliding friction
b)
Rolling friction
c)
Limiting friction
d)
Static friction
54.
Assertion (A): Rolling friction is always less than sliding friction.
Reason (R): In rolling friction, contact area deformation is minimal compared to sliding friction.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true, but R is false.
d)
A is false, but R is true.
55.
What does the principle of transmissibility state?
a)
A force can be applied anywhere along its line of action without changing its effect.
b)
A force can be applied only at a specific point on its line of action.
c)
Forces must act concurrently for their resultant to be valid.
d)
A force’s effect changes depending on its point of application.
56.
Which of the following statements is correct for perfectly inelastic collision?
a)
Coefficient of restitution e = 1
b)
Coefficient of restitution e = 0
c)
Velocity is conserved after impact.
d)
Both bodies stick together after collision.
57.
What is the correct expression for centripetal force acting on a body moving in a circular path?
a)
Fc = mv/r
b)
Fc = mv²/r
c)
Fc = mr²/v
d)
Fc = mv²/2r
58.
Calculate the time of flight for a projectile projected at 50 m/s at 45° angle. (Take g = 9.81 m/s²)
a)
6s
b)
7.3 s
c)
9.5s
d)
8.0 s
59.
A screw jack with pitch 5 mm and handle length 0.5 m lifts a 2000 N load. Calculate velocity ratio.
a)
314
b)
628
c)
1256
d)
1570
60.
Which type of motion involves simultaneous translation and rotation of a body?
a)
Pure rolling
b)
Translational motion
c)
Combined rolling and slipping
d)
Only rotational motion
61.
The mass moment of inertia of a uniform rod of length L about one end is:
a)
ML²/12
b)
ML²/3
c)
ML²/2
d)
ML²/4
62.
In a spring mass system, the time period is given by which formula?
a)
T = 2π√(m/k)
b)
T = 2π√(k/m)
c)
T = 2π√(m/k) + c
d)
T = 2π√(k/m) + δ
63.
Which type of sand is best suitable for plastering works?
a)
Fine sand
b)
Coarse sand
c)
River sand
d)
Sea sand
64.
Which material property defines the ability to withstand alternate wet and dry conditions without loss of strength?
a)
Weathering resistance
b)
Durability
c)
Frost resistance
d)
Refractoriness
65.
What is the effect of adding more water to a concrete mix?
a)
Increases workability but reduces strength
b)
Increases both workability and strength
c)
Reduces both workability and strength
d)
Reduces workability but increases strength
66.
The term “Fineness Modulus” is related to which material in concrete technology?
a)
Aggregates
b)
Cement
c)
Water
d)
Admixture
67.
Statement 1: Tricalcium aluminate (C3A) in cement has the highest heat of hydration.
Statement 2: Di-calcium silicate (C2S) contributes to early strength in cement.
a)
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
b)
Only Statement 1 is correct
c)
Only Statement 2 is correct
d)
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect
68.
Which of the following is used as an admixture to increase the workability of concrete without adding extra water?
a)
Plasticizer
b)
Retarder
c)
Air entraining agent
d)
Accelerator
69.
What is the maximum recommended placing height of concrete to avoid segregation?
a)
1.5 m
b)
3.0 m
c)
5.0 m
d)
6.0 m
70.
Which sand type is characterized by the highest bulking due to surface moisture?
a)
Fine sand
b)
Coarse sand
c)
Gravely sand
d)
Sea sand
71.
Which type of pile is used where high friction resistance is required and can be formed with bulbs to improve grip?
a)
Under reamed pile
b)
Franki pile
c)
Simplex pile
d)
Pedestal pile
72.
In concrete curing, which method is suitable for areas with limited water availability?
a)
Membrane curing
b)
Steam curing
c)
Water curing
d)
Electrical curing
73.
Which material is commonly added to concrete to improve fire resistance?
a)
Asbestos fiber
b)
Gypsum
c)
Calcium chloride
d)
Silica fumes
74.
Which aggregate shape provides the best packing and highest concrete strength?
a)
Cubical aggregate
b)
Rounded aggregate
c)
Flaky aggregate
d)
Elongated aggregate
75.
Which of the following is a field test used to check cement quality?
a)
Colour test
b)
Soundness test
c)
Consistency test
d)
Specific gravity test
76.
Which type of sand is not recommended for construction due to its salt content?
a)
Pit sand
b)
Sea sand
c)
Fine sand
d)
Gravely sand
77.
What is the recommended pH value for water used in concrete mixing?
a)
pH 6 to 8
b)
pH 4 to 6
c)
pH 8 to 10
d)
pH 10 to 12
78.
Which test is used to measure the consistency of fresh concrete?
a)
Slump test
b)
Compaction factor test
c)
Flow table test
d)
Kelly ball test
79.
Which type of curing method is used in the manufacturing of precast concrete members?
a)
Steam curing
b)
Water curing
c)
Electrical curing
d)
Membrane curing
80.
Which sand type is commonly obtained from river banks and is rounded in shape?
a)
River sand
b)
Sea sand
c)
Coarse sand
d)
Pit sand
81.
Which is a harmful constituent of cement that can cause cracks when in excess?
a)
Magnesia
b)
Iron oxide
c)
Alumina
d)
Sulphur
82.
Which mineral admixture is used to improve the durability and economy of concrete?
a)
Fly ash
b)
GGBS
c)
Silica fume
d)
Natural pozzolana
83.
What is the ideal maximum air content allowed in concrete to maintain its strength?
a)
3%
b)
5%
c)
7%
d)
10%
84.
What does the fineness test of cement help to determine?
a)
Proper grinding of cement
b)
Proper setting time of cement
c)
Proper strength of cement
d)
Water absorption in cement
85.
What is the main advantage of the repetition method in theodolite survey?
a)
Can replace the need for face changing
b)
Does not require centering of instrument
c)
Minimizes observational errors
d)
Eliminates instrument errors completely
86.
Which segment of GPS includes satellites orbiting the earth?
a)
Control segment
b)
User segment
c)
Satellite segment
d)
Survey segment
87.
In total station, what is the function of the microprocessor?
a)
Stores data only
b)
Displays measurements only
c)
Controls data input only
d)
Applies corrections and computes data
88.
Which theodolite instrument part allows precise centering over the station using an optical device?
a)
Levelling head
b)
Tripod
c)
Plumb bob
d)
Shifting head
89.
Which system is used to store and process geographically referenced data?
a)
GPS
b)
GIS
c)
Remote sensing
d)
Total station
90.
Which type of photograph is intentionally inclined and used for military applications in photogrammetry?
a)
Nadir photograph
b)
Oblique photograph
c)
Tilted photograph
d)
Vertical photograph
91.
Which remote sensing system provides its own energy source for data collection?
a)
Satellite system
b)
Passive system
c)
Active system
d)
Reflective system
92.
In theodolite survey, which error occurs when the vertical circle does not read zero when the line of sight is horizontal?
a)
Index error
b)
Parallax error
c)
Alignment error
d)
Collimation error
93.
Which phenomenon in GPS results in the slowing down of radio waves due to atmospheric layers?
a)
Orbital error
b)
Receiver error
c)
Alignment error
d)
Signal propagation error
94.
What is the principle used by GPS to determine positions on the earth’s surface?
a)
Trilateration
b)
Triangulation
c)
Photogrammetry
d)
Traverse balancing
95.
Which accessory is used to orient the plane table to magnetic north?
a)
Trough compass
b)
Prismatic compass
c)
Surveyor’s compass
d)
Chain compass
96.
Which method is used to determine the plotted position of the station occupied by the plane table by sighting known points?
a)
Resection method
b)
Intersection method
c)
Radiation method
d)
Two-point problem
97.
Match the following survey instruments with their use:
(a) Alidade
(b) Trough Compass
(c) Plumbing fork
(d) Spirit Level
a)
(a) Sight object (b) Magnetic north orientation (c) Centering (d) Leveling
b)
(a) Leveling (b) Orientation (c) Drawing (d) Centering
c)
(a) Drawing (b) Sighting (c) Leveling (d) Orientation
d)
(a) Orientation (b) Leveling (c) Magnetic reading (d) Centering
98.
What is the angle between the lines if the fore bearings of OX and OY are 36°18' and 135°35' respectively?
a)
99° 17'
b)
136° 17'
c)
109° 17'
d)
180°
99.
If the fore bearing of a line is 142°18', what is the back bearing of the line?
a)
322° 18'
b)
232° 18'
c)
142° 18'
d)
322° 42'
100.
Which operation in plane table survey ensures that the plotted positions are directly over the ground positions?
a)
Centering
b)
Levelling
c)
Orientation
d)
Fixing
100 %
