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WorksheetsSurgery- Trauma
Total questions: 55
Worksheet time: 28mins
What is the leading cause of death in individuals aged 1–45 in the U.S.?
Cardiovascular disease
Trauma
Cancer
Stroke
Trauma causes more deaths than all diseases combined in which group?
Elderly
Infants
Young adults
Middle-aged adults
One-third of traffic-related traumatic mortalities are associated with:
Speeding
Distracted driving
Alcohol use
Mechanical failure
The majority of trauma deaths occur within:
24 hours
12 hours
6 hours
72 hours
What has been shown to reduce trauma-related mortality?
Telemedicine
Trauma systems with evidence-based triage
Paramedic-only response units
Portable X-ray units
Which trauma center designation includes a full spectrum of specialists and 24-hour in-house coverage?
Level I
Level II
Level III
Level IV
Which level provides advanced trauma life support prior to transfer in remote areas?
Level I
Level II
Level III
Level IV
Which of the following differentiates a Level II trauma center from Level I?
No access to neurosurgery
No trauma surgeons
No research or teaching responsibilities
No 24/7 emergency care
Which level center can stabilize and transfer patients but lacks full specialty coverage?
Level II
Level III
Level IV
Level I
What is the main function of trauma system structures?
Minimize diagnostic errors
Shorten ER wait times
Deliver organized care to reduce morbidity and mortality
Provide free trauma education
What is the first step in the trauma primary survey?
Breathing
Circulation
Airway
Exposure
During the "D" step in the trauma survey, what is assessed?
Disability or neurologic function
Diaphoresis
Drug history
Distal pulses
What is the purpose of the secondary survey in trauma?
Immediate airway management
Identify life-threatening injuries
Full head-to-toe exam after stabilization
Provide definitive treatment
Which of the following is a component of the “Exposure” step?
Remove all clothing
Administer naloxone
Start IV fluids
Intubate the patient
Which tool is used during the resuscitation phase to assess internal bleeding?
ECG
Chest X-ray
FAST exam
EGD
What is the most sensitive indicator of moderate hemorrhagic shock?
Hypotension
Diaphoresis
Agitation
Oliguria
What class of hemorrhagic shock involves profound hypotension and anuria?
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
At what class does hypotension typically become apparent in hemorrhagic shock?
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
What fluid is initially used in trauma resuscitation for blood loss?
D5W
Normal saline
Lactated Ringer's
Colloid only
When is transfusion of blood and blood products recommended?
Class I shock
Asymptomatic anemia
Class III–IV hemorrhagic shock
Non-hemorrhagic trauma
Which type of shock presents with warm extremities and hypotension?
Hypovolemic
Neurogenic
Cardiogenic
Septic
Which condition may cause cardiac compressive shock?
Tension pneumothorax
Sepsis
Hypoglycemia
Stroke
What is the treatment of choice for neurogenic shock if hypotension persists after fluids?
Blood transfusion
Atropine
Vasopressors
Mannitol
Which is a sign of cardiac tamponade?
Tachypnea with hyperresonance
Cyanosis and distended neck veins
Flail chest
Absent breath sounds
What is the hallmark of cardiogenic shock in trauma?
Massive hemorrhage
Decreased myocardial contractility
Spinal cord injury
Liver failure
Which of the following injuries is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement with respiration?
Pulmonary contusion
Tension pneumothorax
Flail chest
Open pneumothorax
What is the immediate treatment for a tension pneumothorax?
Intubation
Chest X-ray
Tube thoracostomy
Needle decompression
A patient with decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion after a chest injury likely has:
Pneumothorax
Tension pneumothorax
Hemothorax
Pulmonary embolism
What is the definitive treatment for a sucking chest wound?
100% oxygen and observation
Tube thoracostomy alone
Surgical chest wall closure
Chest X-ray and antibiotics
What percentage of pneumothorax cases are associated with concurrent hemothorax?
20%
40%
60%
80%
What triad is classic for cardiac tamponade?
Hypertension, bradycardia, hypoxia
JVD, hypotension, muffled heart sounds
AMS, tachycardia, diaphoresis
Chest pain, nausea, syncope
What is the initial treatment for pericardial tamponade with hemodynamic instability?
Pericardiocentesis
Chest tube
Needle decompression
IV fluids only
Which imaging tool is most useful for detecting blood in the pericardial space?
CXR
ECG
FAST exam
CT abdomen
What is the preferred emergency treatment for penetrating cardiac injury with tamponade?
Chest X-ray
Pericardial window
Thoracotomy
Pericardiocentesis
Which of the following is most likely in blunt cardiac trauma?
Atrial fibrillation
Ventricular septal rupture
Myocardial contusion
Pericardial effusion
What is the most commonly injured organ in blunt abdominal trauma?
Liver
Pancreas
Kidney
Spleen
What is the diagnostic tool of choice for unstable blunt trauma patients with suspected intra-abdominal bleeding?
CT abdomen
Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
Ultrasound FAST exam
MRI
Which solid organ injury often requires embolization in stable patients with signs of bleeding?
Liver
Pancreas
Spleen
Kidney
A failed Pringle maneuver suggests bleeding from which source?
Portal vein
Hepatic vein or IVC
Gallbladder
Common bile duct
What is the initial test when a FAST exam cannot be performed due to body habitus?
MRI
Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
CT
Exploratory laparotomy
A fracture with >2 fragments and extensive soft tissue damage is best classified as:
Oblique
Comminuted
Greenstick
Spiral
Which injury is an orthopedic emergency requiring fasciotomy?
Greenstick fracture
Compartment syndrome
Hip dislocation
Sprained ankle
What is the classic presentation of fat embolism syndrome?
Dyspnea, petechiae, confusion
Hypotension, bradycardia, syncope
Fever, tachycardia, jaundice
Hematuria, flank pain, hypotension
Which fracture is at high risk for avascular necrosis if not reduced quickly?
Ankle fracture
Posterior hip dislocation
Clavicle fracture
Tibial plateau fracture
What type of fracture involves a partial loss of contact between joint surfaces?
Comminuted
Subluxation
Stress
Transverse
Which of the following is the most critical early sign of compartment syndrome?
Pallor
Pulselessness
Poikilothermia
Pain out of proportion
Femur fractures account for what percentage of fat emboli?
20%
40%
60%
80%
What is the appropriate treatment for a patient with confirmed fat embolism and PaO2 < 60 mmHg?
Anticoagulation
Oxygen or intubation
Bronchoscopy
Diuretics
Which factor increases the risk for venous thromboembolism after trauma?
Asthma
Smoking
Weight-bearing
Age > 40
What is a long-term complication of poor fracture healing resulting in functional impairment?
Malunion
Fat embolism
Avascular necrosis
Osteopenia
A GCS score of 8 indicates what severity of brain injury?
Mild
Moderate
Severe
Normal
Which clinical finding suggests spinal cord injury with spinal shock?
Tachycardia and hypertension
Bradycardia and hypotension
JVD and cyanosis
Raccoon eyes
What is the most effective method to reduce intracranial pressure in the acute setting?
IV steroids
Dexamethasone
Hyperventilation
ACE inhibitors
What is the gold standard for ICP monitoring?
CT head
MRI brain
Intraventricular catheter
Bolt monitor
Which spinal cord injury typically requires immediate surgical intervention?
Stable cervical fracture
Complete SCI
Incomplete SCI
Chronic lumbar stenosis
