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GST - New 120 Quiz

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

"Principal supply" under Section 2(90) refers to:

a)

The first supply made in a financial year

b)

The main supply in a composite supply to which other supplies are ancillary

c)

Supply made by the principal manufacturer

d)

Supply of principal raw material

2.

Under Section 2(93), who is considered the "recipient" of supply of goods or services?

a)

The supplier

b)

The person who pays for the supply

c)

The person who receives the goods/services and is liable to pay the consideration

d)

Only registered dealers

3.

In the case of direct taxes, the payer and the sufferer of the tax are:

a)

Different persons

b)

The same person

c)

Only businesses

d)

Only government entities

4.

Which of the following is an example of a direct tax?

a)

Goods and Services Tax (GST)

b)

Income Tax

c)

Value Added Tax (VAT)

d)

Customs Duty

5.

Indirect taxes are primarily based on:

a)

Income

b)

Wealth

c)

Supply of goods and services

d)

Capital gains

6.

Who is responsible for collecting and managing direct taxes in India?

a)

Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)

b)

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

c)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

d)

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

7.

Which of the following statements about indirect taxes is true?

a)

The tax burden is on the individual paying the tax

b)

The payer of the tax is not the ultimate bearer

c)

The entire revenue goes to the Central Government only

d)

Indirect taxes are based on income

8.

What is a key characteristic of direct taxes?

a)

They are paid voluntarily

b)

They are supply-based taxes

c)

They have different rates for different persons

d)

They are collected at the point of sale

9.

Which organization manages indirect taxes in India?

a)

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

b)

Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)

c)

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

d)

National Stock Exchange (NSE)

10.

The revenue from indirect taxes is shared between:

a)

Only the State Governments

b)

Only the Central Government

c)

Both the Central and State Governments

d)

Private companies

11.

Which of the following is NOT a direct tax?

a)

Corporate Tax

b)

Property Tax

c)

Excise Duty

d)

Capital Gains Tax

12.

What is the key difference between direct and indirect taxes?

a)

Direct taxes are levied on consumption, whereas indirect taxes are levied on income

b)

Indirect taxes have different rates for different individuals

c)

Direct taxes are paid by the person who earns the income, whereas indirect taxes are collected from consumers

d)

Indirect taxes are paid directly to the government by individuals

13.

Who has the authority to resolve GST-related disputes between states and the central government?

a)

Supreme Court of India

b)

GST Council

c)

Ministry of Finance

d)

GST Appellate Tribunal

14.

GSTN (Goods and Services Tax Network) is responsible for:

a)

Enforcing tax laws and collecting GST

b)

Providing the IT infrastructure for GST implementation

c)

Auditing businesses for GST compliance

d)

Issuing GST exemptions and refunds

15.

What is the primary function of GSTN in the GST system?

a)

To formulate GST tax policies

b)

To facilitate online registration, return filing, and tax payments

c)

To conduct tax raids and investigations

d)

To settle disputes related to GST

16.

What does GSTN stand for?

a)

Goods and Services Tax Number

b)

Goods and Services Tax Network

c)

General Sales Tax Notification

d)

Government Sales Tax Norms

17.

What does GSTIN stand for?

a)

Goods and Services Tax Identification Number

b)

Government and State Tax Identification Number

c)

General Sales Tax Information Network

d)

Goods and Services Tax Invoice Number

18.

Section 12 of the CGST Act, deals with

a)

Registration

b)

GSTN

c)

GSTIN

d)

Time of Supply

19.

Under Section 22 of the CGST Act, A Service Provider is liable to be registered under GST

a)

If a supplier whose aggregate turnover exceeds 20 lakh rupees

b)

if a supplier who does not make taxable supplies

c)

if a supplier whose aggregate turnover exceeds 40 lakh rupees in a financial year

d)

If a supplier whose turnover is below 40 lakh rupees in a financial year

20.

Which of the following persons are not liable to register under GST, according to Section 23 of the CGST Act?

a)

A person engaged in the supply of taxable goods

b)

A person who only supplies goods that are wholly exempt from tax

c)

A person engaged in inter-State taxable supply

d)

A casual taxable person making taxable supplies

21.

Which of the following categories of persons are required to compulsorily register under GST as per Section 24?

a)

Persons making only intra-State taxable supplies

b)

An agriculturist supplying produce from land cultivation

c)

Casual taxable persons making taxable supply

d)

Persons supplying goods that are exempt from tax

22.

As per Section 23 of the CGST Act, who is not required to obtain registration under GST?

a)

A person supplying both taxable and exempt goods

b)

An agriculturist, to the extent of supplying produce out of land cultivation

c)

A person making inter-State taxable supplies

d)

A person providing taxable services

23.

According to Section 33 of the CGST Act, where should the amount of tax be prominently indicated?

a)

In the tax return only

b)

In the tax invoice and other like documents

c)

On the supplier's website

d)

In the supply order only

24.

Under Section 67 of the CGST Act, who can authorize the inspection of a taxable person's business premises?

a)

Any officer of the GST department

b)

An officer not below the rank of Joint Commissioner

c)

A customs officer

d)

Any senior officer in the tax department

25.

Under Section 67 of the CGST Act, when can the proper officer authorize an inspection of the premises?

a)

Only when the taxable person requests it

b)

When there is a reason to believe that the taxable person has evaded tax or violated provisions of the Act

c)

When the taxable person has paid taxes for all goods

d)

When a tax return has not been filed for two consecutive months

26.

According to Section 117 of the CGST Act, how long does an aggrieved person have to file an appeal to the High Court?

a)

1 Year

b)

180 days

c)

1 Week

d)

15 days

27.

Under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Act, what is the maximum imprisonment period for serious offenses such as tax evasion exceeding ₹5 crore?

a)

1 year

b)

3 years

c)

6 months to 5 years

d)

10 years

28.

Settlement Commission orders are binding on:

a)

Only the taxpayer

b)

Only the tax authorities

c)

Both taxpayer and tax authorities

d)

None of the above

29.

What is the primary difference between tax evasion and tax avoidance?

a)

Tax evasion is legal; tax avoidance is illegal

b)

Tax evasion involves hiding income; tax avoidance involves planning to reduce tax

c)

Tax avoidance involves cash transactions; tax evasion is only online

d)

There is no difference

30.

Which of the following is an example of tax evasion?

a)

Investing in tax-saving instruments under Section 80C

b)

Not reporting rental income in tax returns

c)

Claiming deduction for home loan interest

d)

Setting up a trust to reduce tax liability

31.

Tax avoidance is:

a)

A criminal offence under Indian law

b)

Ethically questionable but legal

c)

Always illegal

d)

A form of tax theft

32.

Under which section of the Income Tax Act, 1961 are penalties for tax evasion imposed?

a)

Section 80C

b)

Section 234A

c)

Section 270A

d)

Section 10

33.

Which of the following best defines tax evasion?

a)

Paying taxes before the due date

b)

Avoiding taxes through lawful means

c)

Illegally not paying or underreporting taxes

d)

Investing in foreign securities

34.

Which case is considered a recent landmark tax case in India?

a)

Vodafone International Holdings v. Union of India

b)

McDowell & Co. Ltd. v. CTO

c)

Union of India v. Azadi Bachao Andolan

d)

CIT v. B.C. Srinivasa Setty

35.

Which governmental body in India investigates serious cases of tax evasion?

a)

NITI Aayog

b)

Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

c)

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

d)

Enforcement Directorate (ED)

36.

Which of the following is an acceptable form of tax planning?

a)

Hiding income to reduce tax

b)

Creating fictitious expenses

c)

Using deductions provided under law

d)

Not filing a tax return

37.

The penalty for misreporting of income under Section 270A can be up to:

a)

0% of the tax payable

b)

10% of the tax payable

c)

200% of the tax payable

d)

5% of the tax payable

38.

Which of the following best defines a sale in legal terms?

a)

Temporary transfer of goods for free

b)

Permanent transfer of ownership in exchange for money

c)

Lease of goods for fixed time

d)

Exchange of goods without money

39.

What does the abbreviation 'OECD' stand for?

a)

Organization for Economic Coordination and Development

b)

Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development

c)

Office of Economic Co-operation and Development

d)

Organization of European Countries for Development

40.

Black money refers to income:

a)

Reported to the government and taxed

b)

Earned through legal means and fully disclosed

c)

Earned through legal or illegal means but not disclosed to tax authorities

d)

Earned only from illegal sources

41.

Under the Section 132(1)(i) of The CGST Act, 2017, what is the maximum imprisonment for committing certain specified offences involving tax evasion exceeding ₹5 crore?

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

7 years

d)

10 years

42.

Under the Income Tax Act, 1961, what is the maximum punishment for wilful attempt to evade tax under Section 276C(1)?

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

7 years

d)

10 years

43.

Under the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) Act, 2015, what is the maximum punishment for wilful failure to disclose foreign assets?

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

7 years

d)

10 years

44.

Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, what is the maximum imprisonment prescribed for the offence of money laundering?

a)

5 years

b)

7 years

c)

10 years

d)

14 years

45.

What does the abbreviation 'SCN' stand for in tax and legal proceedings?

a)

Special Case Notification

b)

Show Cause Notice

c)

Statutory Compliance Notice

d)

Standard Compliance Notice

46.

Under the CGST Act, who is empowered to authorize the arrest of a person for offences under GST?

a)

Income Tax Officer

b)

Central Bureau of Investigation

c)

Commissioner of GST

d)

Enforcement Directorate

47.

In Income Tax, an arrest for willful attempt to evade tax may result in prosecution under which court?

a)

Civil Court

b)

High Court

c)

Magistrate's Court

d)

Special Economic Offences Court

48.

Which of the following agencies does not have power to arrest in tax-related cases?

a)

GST Intelligence Wing

b)

Enforcement Directorate

c)

Income Tax Department (in certain cases)

d)

National Company Law Tribunal

49.

Under GST law, arrest without a warrant is permissible when the offence is classified as:

a)

Compoundable offence

b)

Civil wrong

c)

Cognizable offence

d)

Non-cognizable offence

50.

In case of arrest under the Income Tax Act, who can grant bail to the arrested person?

a)

Income Tax Officer

b)

Civil Court only

c)

Magistrate having jurisdiction

d)

GST Commissioner

51.

Under the Black Money Act, the offence of willfully attempting to evade tax is:

a)

Cognizable and bailable

b)

Non-cognizable and bailable

c)

Cognizable and non-bailable

d)

Non-cognizable and non-bailable

52.

What was one of the major objectives of the 2016 demonetization policy?

a)

Introduce new taxes

b)

Promote cash-based economy

c)

Eliminate black money, counterfeit currency, and curb terrorism financing

d)

Increase interest rates

53.

During a tax raid by authorities under the GST Act, a businessman is arrested for allegedly issuing fake invoices. He is not informed of the grounds of arrest, his family is not informed, and he is denied access to legal counsel. Which Supreme Court case ensures protection of his fundamental rights in such a situation?

a)

D.K. Basu vs State of West Bengal

b)

Vodafone vs Union of India

c)

Puttaswamy vs Union of India

d)

Lalita Kumari vs Govt. of U.P.

54.

A GST officer receives credible information that a trader is issuing fake invoices without actual supply of goods. A surprise inspection is conducted, and incriminating documents are found. What legal action can the officer take?

a)

Only impose penalty

b)

Arrest the trader under Section 69 of CGST Act

c)

Ignore the issue

d)

Send notice only

55.

A businessman conceals ₹5 crore in sales in his GST return. After investigation, it's found he intentionally evaded tax. What is the maximum imprisonment under CGST Act?

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

7 years

d)

1 year

56.

An Income Tax officer finds ₹2 crore unaccounted cash during a search. The assessee fails to explain the source. What is the likely next step?

a)

Confiscation and penalty

b)

Seizure of cash and arrest

c)

Immediate bail

d)

No action required

57.

A person obstructs tax officers during a GST raid and refuses to allow access to business records. What can the officers do legally?

a)

File a civil suit

b)

Arrest under Section 132 of CGST Act

c)

Dismiss the search

d)

Hand over case to SEBI

58.

During an Income Tax raid, officers seize gold jewellery. The taxpayer fails to produce supporting documents. What does this amount to?

a)

Routine audit

b)

Tax evasion and undisclosed asset

c)

Legal transfer

d)

No consequence

59.

A company books fake purchases to claim Input Tax Credit under GST. After inquiry, it is proven false. What is the possible consequence?

a)

Refund of GST

b)

Arrest and penalty under Section 132

c)

Suspension of GSTIN only

d)

Audit notice

60.

A businessman is issued an arrest warrant under the Income Tax Act for willful evasion. Who can issue such a warrant?

a)

Police Inspector

b)

Income Tax Commissioner

c)

GST Superintendent

d)

Finance Minister

61.

A person is found using a fake GST registration number and collecting tax fraudulently. What can be the consequence?

a)

Compulsory registration

b)

Fine only

c)

Arrest and prosecution under Section 132

d)

No action

62.

During a GST investigation, a taxpayer absconds and avoids summons. What can the department do?

a)

Ignore the case

b)

Seek arrest warrant from Magistrate

c)

Summon again only

d)

Cancel PAN

63.

A tax officer arrests someone under GST, but no arrest memo is prepared. Which constitutional principle is violated?

a)

Article 370

b)

Article 14

c)

Article 21

d)

Article 324

64.

Which of the following is an essential condition before conducting a search under Section 67 of CGST Act?

a)

Approval from High Court

b)

Reason to believe that goods or documents are hidden

c)

Newspaper notice

d)

FIR from police

65.

What is the maximum time an arrested person can be detained without being produced before a magistrate?

a)

48 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

72 hours

d)

96 hours

66.

A taxpayer is arrested under GST and demands bail. Which court will hear his bail application if the offence is non-bailable?

a)

Civil Court

b)

Magistrate's Court

c)

CIT

d)

Income Tax Tribunal

67.

What is the fine for failing to deduct TDS as per Section 271C?

a)

₹10,000

b)

100% of the tax not deducted

c)

₹50,000

d)

₹25,000

68.

The Settlement Commission has the power to grant:

a)

Tax refunds

b)

Immunity from penalties and prosecution

c)

Lower tax rates

d)

Advance rulings

69.

Which section deal about Composition Scheme under CGST ACT, 2017?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

35

d)

10

70.

As per the amendment to Section 22 of the CGST Act, what is the threshold turnover for a supplier in special category States to be liable for registration?

a)

20 lakh rupees

b)

10 lakh rupees

c)

40 lakh rupees

d)

50 lakh rupees

71.

What does HSN stand for in the context of GST?

a)

Harmonized System Number

b)

Harmonized Sales Number

c)

Harmonized System of Nomenclature

d)

High Security Number

72.

What does 'Income Escaping Assessment' refer to?

a)

Income that is exempt from tax

b)

Income declared by the taxpayer

c)

Income that has not been assessed earlier by mistake or omission

d)

Refund not claimed

73.

What is meant by 'Best Judgment Assessment'?

a)

Assessment based on court orders

b)

Assessment when a taxpayer hides income

c)

Assessment made by the officer using their judgment when the taxpayer does not cooperate

d)

Final assessment after audit

74.

What does a summary assessment check for?

a)

Fraud

b)

Mathematical errors and mismatches

c)

Investment plans

d)

Physical inspection

75.

What does inspection under tax law refer to?

a)

Filing return

b)

Checking books and premises

c)

Search

d)

Arrest

76.

What is seizure in the context of tax law?

a)

Collecting penalties

b)

Taking possession of undisclosed assets during search

c)

Sending notices

d)

Filing returns

77.

Which section of CGST Act, 2017 allows arrest in GST-related offences?

a)

Section 69

b)

Section 67

c)

Section 147

d)

Section 143

78.

Which mechanism is the default method for collecting GST?

a)

Reverse charge mechanism

b)

Forward charge mechanism

c)

Self-assessment mechanism

d)

Deferred charge mechanism

79.

Who collects and deposits tax in the Forward Charge Mechanism (FCM)?

a)

The buyer

b)

The bank

c)

The supplier

d)

The GST Council

80.

Who collects and deposits tax in the Forward Charge Mechanism (FCM)?

a)

The buyer

b)

The bank

c)

The supplier

d)

The GST Council

81.

Under Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM), who pays the tax?

a)

Supplier

b)

Government

c)

Buyer/Recipient

d)

GST officer

82.

Who needs separate GST registration for each state of operation?

a)

Freelancers

b)

E-commerce customers

c)

Businesses operating in multiple states

d)

Government offices

83.

What happens after successful GST registration?

a)

Tax is refunded

b)

GSTIN is issued

c)

Income tax returns are generated

d)

No change

84.

Under Section 11 of the CGST Act, exemptions are granted based on the recommendation of:

a)

Supreme Court

b)

Parliament

c)

GST Council

d)

RBI

85.

ITC is available only if the recipient has:

a)

PAN

b)

Aadhaar

c)

Valid tax invoice

d)

TDS certificate

86.

PAN is required in GST for:

a)

Invoice

b)

ITC

c)

Registration

d)

Refund

87.

First appellate authority under the Income Tax Act is:

a)

CBDT

b)

Assessing Officer

c)

CIT(A) - Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals)

d)

ITAT

88.

Time limit to file appeal before CIT(A) is:

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

c)

60 days

d)

90 days

89.

Second appeal in income tax lies with:

a)

High Court

b)

CBDT

c)

ITAT

d)

Supreme Court

90.

Appeal against the order of ITAT lies with:

a)

CIT(A)

b)

Supreme Court

c)

High Court

d)

NCLT

91.

Appeal before the Supreme Court in tax matters can be filed only if:

a)

High Court certifies it as fit case

b)

Assessee wishes to appeal

c)

AO permits

d)

ITAT directs

92.

What is the due date for filing Income Tax Return (ITR) for individual taxpayers (non-audit cases) for the Assessment Year 2024-25?

a)

30th June 2024

b)

31st July 2024

c)

31st August 2024

d)

30th September 2024

93.

First appellate authority under GST is:

a)

High Court

b)

Appellate Authority (AA)

c)

Revisional Authority

d)

National Anti-profiteering Authority

94.

Which international organization is primarily responsible for developing the Base Erosion and Profit shifting Action Plan?

a)

World Trade Organization (WTO)

b)

TRIPS

c)

International Monetary Fund (IMF)

d)

Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

95.

An appeal against the Appellate Tribunal's order lies with:

a)

High Court

b)

Supreme Court

c)

GST Council

d)

Central Government

96.

Who is not allowed to file an appeal under GST?

a)

Registered person

b)

Proper officer

c)

Unregistered person

d)

Government

97.

Which Article gives the Supreme Court the power to grant special leave to appeal in any matter including tax disputes?

a)

Article 226

b)

Article 131

c)

Article 136

d)

Article 141

98.

Writ petitions against arbitrary tax assessments can be filed under which Article?

a)

Article 13

b)

Article 32

c)

Article 246A

d)

Article 265

99.

Which constitutional remedy is available for challenging excessive or unjust tax assessments?

a)

SLP under Article 136

b)

Review under Article 137

c)

Writ under Article 226 or 32

d)

Appeal under Income Tax Act only

100.

If a taxpayer misses the deadline to appeal to the High Court under Income Tax Act or GST, the delay may be condoned if:

a)

The delay is less than 10 days

b)

Sufficient cause is shown

c)

The tax amount is paid

d)

AO approves it

101.

What is the primary objective of the Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) project led by the OECD?

a)

To increase tariffs between countries

b)

To help multinational companies avoid double taxation

c)

To prevent tax avoidance by shifting profits to low or no-tax jurisdictions

d)

To abolish income tax for corporations

102.

What does the Arm's Length Principle in international taxation refer to?

a)

The minimum wage to be paid to foreign employees

b)

Charging related parties a special discounted price for tax purposes

c)

Transactions between related entities should be priced as if they were between independent entities

d)

The legal limit of a company's global operations

103.

Can a composition dealer claim input tax credit (ITC)?

a)

Yes, on capital goods

b)

Yes, for inward supply

c)

No, ITC is not available

d)

Yes, if turnover is below ₹20 lakh

104.

What must a composition dealer mention on every bill of supply?

a)

GSTIN only

b)

"Composition taxable person, not eligible to collect tax on supplies"

c)

Input tax credit details

d)

HSN code only

105.

A registered trader purchases raw materials from a GST-registered supplier and uses them to manufacture taxable goods. Can he claim ITC?

a)

No, ITC is not allowed on raw materials

b)

Yes, as it is used for taxable supplies

c)

No, if the raw materials are imported

d)

Yes, but only on half the amount

106.

A person buys office chairs for use in his business. Can he avail ITC on this purchase?

a)

Yes, it's for business use

b)

No, furniture is not eligible

c)

Yes, but only after 6 months

d)

No, ITC is not allowed on capital goods

107.

An IT company purchases a car for its director's personal use. Is ITC allowed?

a)

Yes, all purchases are eligible

b)

No, motor vehicles for personal use are blocked credit

c)

Yes, if registered in the company's name

d)

Yes, if GST is paid

108.

A restaurant under composition scheme avails input services such as pest control and security services. Is ITC available?

a)

Yes, fully

b)

No, restaurants under composition scheme cannot avail ITC

c)

Yes, only on pest control

d)

Yes, on all input services

109.

Rajesh buys stationary items for office use from a GST-registered supplier. Can he claim ITC?

a)

No, stationary is not eligible

b)

Yes, as it is used in course of business

c)

Yes, if used within the same month

d)

No, ITC is only for capital goods

110.

A firm pays GST on canteen services provided to its employees. Is ITC allowed?

a)

No, ITC on food and beverages is blocked

b)

Yes, canteen service is part of welfare

c)

Yes, if it's a factory with more than 250 workers

d)

Yes, for private limited companies

111.

An exporter purchases inputs and uses them to manufacture zero-rated goods. Can he avail ITC?

a)

No, exports are not taxable

b)

Yes, ITC is available on zero-rated supplies

c)

Yes, but not on capital goods

d)

No, if not registered under SEZ

112.

A business uses mobile phones for employees' work purposes. Can ITC be claimed?

a)

No, mobile phones are blocked credit

b)

Yes, if used for business purposes

c)

Yes, only for directors

d)

Yes, on prepaid connections only

113.

Rohit buys air tickets for a business conference. Can he claim ITC on air fare?

a)

No, ITC not allowed on travel

b)

Yes, if for business purposes

c)

Yes, only if outside India

d)

No, if not accompanied by boarding pass

114.

A taxpayer mistakenly claims excess ITC. What is the consequence?

a)

No issue, can adjust later

b)

Interest and penalty may be imposed

c)

Allowed with CA certificate

d)

Allowed if under ₹1,000

115.

Which of the following best defines the term "business" under Section 2(17) of the CGST Act?

a)

Any activity carried on for personal use

b)

Any trade, commerce, manufacture, profession or similar activity, whether or not for profit

c)

Only activities done by companies

d)

Activities only within India

116.

Under Section 2(31), "consideration" in relation to a supply includes:

a)

Only cash received

b)

Any payment made in money or otherwise in respect of supply of goods/services

c)

Payment through banking channels only

d)

Only advance received

117.

Who is classified as an "Electronic Commerce Operator" under Section 2(45) of the CGST Act?

a)

Any trader selling products online

b)

Any person who owns a website

c)

Any person who owns, operates or manages a digital platform for e-commerce

d)

Only Flipkart and Amazon

118.

Which of the following would be classified as "goods" under Section 2(52) of the CGST Act?

a)

Electricity

b)

Actionable claims

c)

Land and buildings

d)

Securities

119.

Who is referred to as a "taxable person" under Section 2(107) of the CGST Act?

a)

Any individual receiving goods

b)

Any person registered or liable to be registered under GST

c)

Only companies and LLPs

d)

Unregistered business entities

120.

Which of the following is a correct definition of "India" under Section 2(56) of the CGST Act?

a)

Only the landmass of Indian states

b)

Includes only the mainland and islands

c)

Includes the territorial waters, seabed, subsoil, continental shelf, and exclusive economic zone

d)

Includes only areas notified by the President