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Econ quiz yr 13

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does GDP measure?

a)

Income inequality

b)

Total value of goods and services produced

c)

Total government spending

d)

Average tax rates

2.

Which of the following is a limitation of using GDP to measure living standards?

a)

It includes inflation

b)

It includes non-market transactions

c)

It does not account for inequality

d)

It uses purchasing power parity

3.

What is CPI used for in the UK?

a)

Calculating GDP

b)

Measuring government budget deficit

c)

Measuring inflation

d)

Tracking employment

4.

Which measure of unemployment uses a survey approach?

a)

Claimant count

b)

Labour force survey

c)

GDP survey

d)

Workforce index

5.

Which is not a component of aggregate demand?

a)

Consumption

b)

Government spending

c)

Imports

d)

Savings

6.

Which of the following causes demand-pull inflation?

a)

Increase in productivity

b)

Fall in oil prices

c)

Increase in consumer spending

d)

Increase in unemployment

7.

What happens in disinflation?

a)

Prices fall

b)

Prices rise at a decreasing rate

c)

Prices rise at an increasing rate

d)

Prices stay constant

8.

What does (X-M) in AD = C + I + G + (X-M) represent?

a)

Imports

b)

Exports minus imports

c)

Investment

d)

Government debt

9.

Which of the following is a supply-side policy?

a)

Increase in interest rates

b)

Exports minus imports

c)

Investment

d)

Government debt

10.

What is the main goal of monetary policy?

a)

Reducing inequality

b)

Managing inflation

c)

Increasing exports

d)

Reducing government debt

11.

The multiplier effect is greater when:

a)

Marginal propensity to consume is low

b)

Marginal propensity to save is high

c)

Marginal propensity to tax is low

d)

Marginal propensity to import is high

12.

What is a budget surplus?

a)

When imports exceed exports

b)

When government spending exceeds revenue

c)

When revenue exceeds government spending

d)

When GDP is negative

13.

What does the Bank of England's Monetary Policy Committee do?

a)

Sets income tax

b)

Regulates stock markets

c)

Sets interest rates

d)

Prints currency

14.

Which of the following would reduce a current account deficit?

a)

Increase in imports

b)

Strong exchange rate

c)

Decrease in export competitiveness

d)

Devaluation of currency

15.

What does a negative output gap imply?

a)

Economy is overheating

b)

Economy is in equilibrium

c)

Economy has spare capacity

d)

High inflation

16.

What is the impact of high interest rates on AD?

a)

Increase investment

b)

Increase consumption

c)

Decrease aggregate demand

d)

Increase exports

17.

Which of the following is a contractionary fiscal policy?

a)

Increase in government spending

b)

Decrease in taxes

c)

Decrease in government spending

d)

Increase in exports

18.

Which of these is NOT a macroeconomic objective?

(a)  

19.

The trade cycle does not include:

a)

Boom

b)

Recession

c)

Innovation

d)

Recovery

20.

Which of the following policies is most likely to reduce structural unemployment?

a)

Lower interest rates

b)

Expansionary fiscal policy

c)

Job training programmes

d)

Income tax cuts

21.

Inflation caused by rising wages is an example of:

a)

Cost-push inflation

b)

Demand-pull inflation

c)

Deflation

d)

Hyperinflation

22.

What is a key assumption of classical long-run aggregate supply?

a)

Prices are sticky

b)

Wages are rigid

c)

All markets clear

d)

There is involuntary unemployment

23.

What does the Phillips Curve illustrate?

a)

Link between interest rates and growth

b)

Trade-off between inflation and unemployment

c)

Government spending and tax revenues

d)

Balance of payments

24.

A decrease in income tax is an example of:

a)

Monetary policy

b)

Supply-side policy

c)

Fiscal policy

d)

Protectionism

25.

What is the effect of an increase in consumer confidence?

a)

Decrease in AD

b)

Increase in imports

c)

Increase in consumption

d)

Decrease in investment

26.

Government borrowing to fund spending is:

a)

Budget surplus

b)

Fiscal expansion

c)

Fiscal contraction

d)

Supply-side

27.

What is the primary aim of supply-side policies?

a)

Control inflation

b)

Reduce budget deficit

c)

Increase aggregate supply

d)

Increase tax revenue

28.

Which of the following would shift the AD curve to the right?

a)

Rise in imports

b)

Increase in government spending

c)

Fall in investment

d)

Higher interest rates

29.

Which measure includes income from abroad?

a)

GDP

b)

GNI

c)

CPI

d)

RPI

30.

What does an increase in MPT (marginal propensity to tax) do to the multiplier?

a)

Increases it

b)

Decreases it

c)

No effect

d)

Causes inflation

31.

What does cyclical unemployment result from?

a)

Structural changes

b)

Technological advancement

c)

Downturn in the business cycle

d)

Seasonal factors

32.

A fall in the exchange rate makes:

a)

Imports cheaper

b)

Exports more expensive

c)

Imports more expensive

d)

Exports fall

33.

What is frictional unemployment?

a)

Caused by lack of skills

b)

Temporary during job search

c)

Due to economic downturn

d)

Due to overseas competition

34.

Which policy is most likely to boost potential growth?

a)

Reducing interest rates

b)

Increasing AD

c)

Improving education

d)

Increasing imports

35.

Which is NOT a reason for government intervention?

a)

Achieve macroeconomic objectives

b)

Redistribute income

c)

Promote monopoly

d)

Stabilise the economy

36.

A classical economist would argue the economy:

a)

Requires constant government intervention

b)

Is always in disequilibrium

c)

Self-adjusts in the long run

d)

Suffers permanent unemployment

37.

What is stagflation?

a)

High growth and low inflation

b)

High unemployment and inflation

c)

Falling prices and rising growth

d)

Low interest and inflation rates

38.

What policy is best to reduce demand-pull inflation?

a)

Cut in interest rates

b)

Increase in government spending

c)

Cut in VAT

d)

Increase in interest rates

39.

What would an increase in productivity do?

a)

Shift AS right

b)

Shift AD right

c)

Shift AS left

d)

Shift AD left

40.

Which is not a type of unemployment?

a)

Frictional

b)

Cost-push

c)

Cyclical

d)

Structural

41.

Which of the following is an injection in the circular flow?

a)

Savings

b)

Imports

c)

Taxes

d)

Investment

42.

What does a rise in the base interest rate do?

a)

Increases borrowing

b)

Reduces saving

c)

Decreases AD

d)

Encourages investment

43.

What is the likely short-run effect of expansionary fiscal policy?

a)

Fall in inflation

b)

Fall in AD

c)

Increase in unemployment

d)

Rise in AD

44.

Which is not a component of national income?

a)

Investment

b)

Tax

c)

Exports

d)

Government spending

45.

What effect does an increase in indirect taxes have?

a)

Increase in AD

b)

Fall in prices

c)

Cost-push inflation

d)

Increase in real income

46.

Which is most likely to reduce the natural rate of unemployment?

a)

Decrease in interest rates

b)

Education and training

c)

Increase in benefits

d)

Increase in imports

47.

A reduction in corporation tax is designed to:

a)

Increase consumption

b)

Reduce inflation

c)

Encourage investment

d)

Reduce imports

48.

A weak pound benefits:

a)

UK importers

b)

UK exporters

c)

Foreign tourists in the UK

d)

UK consumers buying imports

49.

Which of the following is a withdrawal from the circular flow?

a)

Government spending

b)

Investment

c)

Savings

d)

Exports

50.

An increase in the marginal propensity to import will:

a)

Increase the multiplier

b)

Decrease the multiplier

c)

Have no effect

d)

Increase GDP

51.

What is the main objective of studying "Trading blocs and the World Trade Organisation (WTO)" in international economics?

a)

To understand factors influencing trading blocs and the WTO and their effect on economic activity.

b)

To learn about the history of world currencies.

c)

To analyze only the disadvantages of international trade.

d)

To focus solely on domestic economic policies.

52.

How might the growth of trading blocs affect global economic activity?

a)

It can increase regional cooperation and trade, but may also create barriers for non-members.

b)

It always leads to global economic decline.

c)

It has no effect on international trade.

d)

It only benefits non-member countries.

53.

What is one of the objectives of studying trading blocs and the World Trade Organisation (WTO) as stated in the material?

a)

To understand the factors influencing trading blocs and the WTO and their effect on economic activity

b)

To learn about the history of world currencies

c)

To study the impact of technology on trade

d)

To analyze the growth of multinational corporations

54.

Discuss one potential advantage and one disadvantage of being part of a trading bloc.

a)

Advantage: Increased market access; Disadvantage: Loss of economic sovereignty

b)

Advantage: Higher taxes; Disadvantage: More trade opportunities

c)

Advantage: Less competition; Disadvantage: Lower employment

d)

Advantage: Reduced tariffs; Disadvantage: Increased pollution

55.

Which trading bloc includes the United States, Canada, and Mexico?

a)

NAFTA

b)

EU

c)

ASEAN

d)

AU

56.

According to the success criteria, what should students be able to do regarding the impact of being part of a trade bloc?

a)

Discuss impact advantages and disadvantages of being apart of a trade bloc

b)

Only list the countries in a trade bloc

c)

Ignore the disadvantages of trade blocs

d)

Focus only on the economic growth of a single country

57.

What is one of the tasks students are expected to perform related to the growth of trading blocs?

a)

Analyse growth of trading blocs and bilateral trading agreements and the role WTO

b)

Memorize the names of all trading blocs

c)

Write a story about international travel

d)

Draw a map of Europe

58.

What is the main objective of studying Trading blocs and the World Trade Organisation (WTO) as mentioned in the material?

a)

To understand factors influencing trading blocs and the WTO and their effect on economic activity.

b)

To learn about the history of world trade.

c)

To memorize the names of all trading blocs.

d)

To study only the disadvantages of trading blocs.

59.

Which of the following is an example of a trading bloc?

a)

The European Union (EU)

b)

The United Nations (UN)

c)

The World Health Organization (WHO)

d)

The International Monetary Fund (IMF)

60.

What is a key feature of a common market within a trading bloc?

a)

Members agree to the removal of trade barriers and allow freedom of movement of factors of production

b)

Members use a single currency

c)

Members have no economic policies in common

d)

Members only trade goods, not services

61.

Which of the following best describes a monetary union?

a)

A group of countries that only share a common currency

b)

A group of countries with both a customs union and a common market, including common economic policies

c)

A group of countries that only remove tariffs on goods

d)

A group of countries that do not allow movement of labor

62.

Which type of trading bloc aims to eliminate trade barriers among member countries and adopts a common approach to trade barriers with non-members?

a)

Free trade areas

b)

Monetary unions

c)

Common markets

d)

Customs unions

63.

What is one of the main objectives of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?

a)

To influence trading blocs and their effect on economic activity

b)

To set national interest rates

c)

To control immigration policies

d)

To regulate domestic education systems

64.

Which of the following is an advantage of the single European market (SEM)?

a)

Trade creation

b)

Trade diversion

c)

Monopolies

d)

Unemployment

65.

How does the SEM benefit consumers according to the material?

a)

By driving productive and dynamic efficiency through stronger competition

b)

By increasing tariffs on imported goods

c)

By restricting the movement of labor

d)

By reducing the number of available markets

66.

Why might the creation of large monopolies be a disadvantage of the SEM?

a)

They may exploit economies of scale and reduce competition

b)

They always lower prices for consumers

c)

They increase the number of small businesses

d)

They eliminate tariffs on all goods

67.

Which of the following is a potential positive implication of EU enlargement?

a)

Decreased competition for consumers

b)

Increased potential for economies of scale and free trade

c)

Higher production costs for businesses

d)

Reduced geographical area

68.

What is the main objective when studying the impacts of globalisation on economic activity?

a)

To memorize the history of globalisation

b)

To evaluate impacts of globalisation on economic activity

c)

To ignore the effects of globalisation

d)

To focus only on local businesses

69.

Analyse how a sharp drop in overall inflation, as expected in the official figures, could impact consumers and producers.

a)

Consumers may face higher prices, and producers may see increased costs

b)

Consumers may benefit from lower prices, and producers may need to adjust pricing strategies

c)

Consumers will stop buying goods, and producers will stop producing

d)

Consumers and producers will not be affected at all

70.

According to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), what does globalisation involve?

a)

The free flow of ideas, people, goods, services, and capital leading to the integration of economies and societies

b)

The restriction of goods and services between countries

c)

The separation of economies and societies

d)

The elimination of international trade agreements

71.

Which of the following is a characteristic of globalisation?

a)

Growth of international trade

b)

Decrease in cultural exchange

c)

Reduction in outsourcing

d)

Decline in multinational corporations

72.

Which of the following best describes the impact of globalisation on labour?

a)

Enhanced mobility of labour

b)

Decreased opportunities for workers to move internationally

c)

Reduced demand for skilled workers

d)

Elimination of all forms of employment

73.

Which of the following best describes the impact of globalisation on labour?

a)

Enhanced mobility of labour

b)

Decreased opportunities for workers to move internationally

c)

Reduced demand for skilled workers

d)

Elimination of all forms of employment

74.

Which of the following is NOT typically considered a characteristic of globalisation?

a)

Increased international trade

b)

Greater labour mobility

c)

Reduced communication between countries

d)

Growth of multinational corporations (MNCs)

75.

What is a potential negative impact of globalisation on the environment?

a)

Decreased use of natural resources

b)

Increased carbon emissions due to higher production and transportation

c)

Reduction in waste generation

d)

Improved air quality worldwide