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FIRST QUIZ

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. The boundaries of the tho- racic inlet are:

a)

a. Posterior the body of the first thoracic vertebra

b)

b. Anterior the superior border of the manubrium of the sternum

c)

c. Posterior the spinous process of the first thoracic vertebra

d)

d. Anterior the xifoid process of the sternum

e)

e. Lateral the medial surface of the first rib

2.

2. The boundaries of the tho- racic outlet are:

a)

a. Posterior the body of the sev- enth thoracic vertebra

b)

b. Posterior the body of the twelfth thoracic vertebra

c)

c. Anterior the xifoid process of the sternum

d)

d. Anterior and lateral the joined cartilage of the seventh to twelve ribs

e)

e. Lateral the medial surface of the seventh rib

3.

  1. 3.Name the structures located inside the superior mediastinum:

a)

a. Thymus

b)

b. Larynx

c)

c. Trachea

d)

d. Principal bronchi

e)

e. Oesophagus

4.

4.What are the main surface features of the lung?

a)

a. Two borders

b)

b. Two surfaces

c)

c. Three borders

d)

d. An apex and a base

e)

e. Three surfaces

5.

Which organ lies retroperitoneally on the posterior abdominal wall?

a)

Stomach

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Spleen

6.

6.Regarding the descending part of the thoracic aorta

a)

a. It is a component of the middle mediastinum

b)

b. It begins at the level of T3 vertebrae

c)

c. It passes through the diaphragm behind the lateral arc user ligament

d)

d. It begins at the beginning of the arch of aorta

e)

e. It passes to the abdomen at the level of T12

7.

The thoracic duct

a)

Commences at L1

b)

Passes through the Oesophageal opening of the diaphragm (T10)

c)

Does not drain the right arm

d)

Enters the right side of the superior mediastinum

e)

Terminates in the IVC

8.

Which is not found in the posterior mediastinum?

a)

Descending thoracic aorta

b)

Thoracic duct

c)

Phrenic nerves

d)

Azygous vein

e)

Lymph nodes

9.

What passes through the inguinal canal in man:

a)

Spermatic cord

b)

Round ligament

c)

Ilioinguinal nerve

d)

Iliohypogastric nerve

e)

Femoral artery

10.

What impressions can we find on the mediastinal surface of the left lung

a)

groove of the arch of the aorta

b)

Cardiac impression

c)

groove for the subclavian artery

d)

Groove for bracheocephalic vein

e)

The groove for the common carotid

11.

In which component does glycolysis occur

a)

mitochondria

b)

Nucleus

c)

Rough ER.

d)

Cytosol

12.

One of the irreversible reaction of glycolysis is catalyzed by?

a)

Phosphohexose Isomerase

b)

Phosphofructokinase 2

c)

Phosphofructokinase 1

d)

Aldolase

13.

Glucokinase

a)

Is found in muscle

b)

Has low affinity to glucose

c)

Allosterically inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate

d)

Catalyzes a reversible reaction

e)

It’s synthesis is induced by glucagon

14.

Activation of fatty acid requires?

a)

ATP

b)

dATP

c)

GTP

d)

UTP

e)

CTP

15.

Acetyl coA carboxylase;

a)

Requires pyridoxal phosphate for the carboxylation of acetyl coA

b)

Utilizes citrate as a substrate

c)

Produces malonyl CoA, which is subsequently decarboxylated

d)

Is located mainly in the mitochondria

e)

Is essentially key enzyme of fatty acid oxidation

16.

Beta oxidation of fatty acids is dependent on the presence of all of the following enzymes except:

a)

Acyl CoA dehydrogenase

b)

Beta hydroxyacyl CoA dehydrogenase

c)

EnoylCoA hydratase

d)

Acyl CoA Acyl transferase

e)

Acetyl CoA carboxylase

17.

Complete oxidation of one molecule of stearic acid produces:

a)

20ATP

b)

96ATP

c)

129ATP

d)

146ATP

18.

Which of the following enzymes of glycolysis is utilized in Gluconeogenesis

a)

Glucokinase

b)

Phosphofructokinase

c)

Pyruvate kinase

d)

Aldolase

19.

All the following substrate can be used to give glucose by Gluconeogenesis except

a)

Aspartate

b)

Glutamate

c)

Succinyl CoA

d)

Leucine

e)

Glycerol

20.

Fluoride is an inhibitor of which of the following enzymes of glycolysis

a)

Hexokinase

b)

Aldolase

c)

Pyruvate kinase

d)

Enolase

e)

Phosphohexose isomerase

21.

The activity of PFK-1 can be decreased by all Except

a)

ATP

b)

Citrate

c)

Glucagon

d)

F2,6BP

22.

The normal threshold for renal glucose is 180mg/100ml

a)

True

b)

False

c)

I don’t know

d)

Maybe

23.

The enzyme which is lacking in muscles but present in normal liver is

a)

Glycogen phosphorylase

b)

Phosphoglucomutase

c)

Glucokinase

d)

G6Phosphatase

e)

Creative kinase isoenzyme MM

24.

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the first pharyngeal arch?

a)

Malleus

b)

Mandibular process

c)

Sphenomandibular ligament

d)

Stylohyoid ligament

e)

Maxillary process

25.

Which of the following are associated with the 2nd pharyngeal arch?

a)

Malleus bone

b)

Facial nerve

c)

Glossopharyngeal muscle

d)

Lower portion of hyoid bone

e)

Anterior belly of digastric

26.

The heart is derived from;

a)

Splanchnic mesoderm

b)

Somatic mesoderm

c)

Septum transversum

d)

Intermediate mesoderm

e)

Paraxial mesoderm

27.

The following are true statements with regard to the fetal circulation except:

a)

Since the fetal liver is a hemopoietic organ, it is large and well supplied with oxygenated blood

b)

Fetal brain receives relatively pure arterial blood

c)

Fetal and maternal blood vessels anastomose in the placenta

d)

In early development stages, one pulmonary vein buds from the LT atrium of the heart

e)

Foramen primum of the interatrial septum closes after the formation of the foramen secundum

28.

Each of the following ligaments in the adult are derived from blood vessels except

a)

Medial umbilical ligament

b)

Median umbilical ligament

c)

Ligamentum teres hepatis

d)

Ligamentum venosum

e)

Ligamentum arteriosum

29.

The tracheosophageal septum separates the:

a)

Laryngotracheal tube and nasopharynx

b)

Oesophagus and nasopharynx

c)

Laryngotracheal tube and oesophagus

d)

Laryngotracheal tube and oropharynx

e)

Oesophagus and oropharynx

30.

Which duct is not associated with urinary system development?

a)

Ureteric bud

b)

Paramesonephric duct

c)

Wolffian duct

d)

Pronephric duct

e)

Mesonephric duct

31.

The structure dividing the cloaca into two parts is the:

a)

Distal retention band

b)

Transverse septum

c)

Urogenital sinus

d)

Urorectal septum

e)

Cloacal membrane

32.

All the following are related posteriorly to the heart except;

a)

Oblique sinus

b)

Rt bronchus

c)

Thoracic aorta

d)

Lt vagus

e)

Oesophagus

33.

The tunica media of an artery primarily contains:

a)

Endothelium

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Elastic fibers

d)

Collagen

34.

The type of epithelium lining the trachea is

a)

Simple squamous

b)

Stratified squamous

c)

Pseudostratified columnar ciliated

d)

Simple columnar

35.

The glands of Bruner are found in the

a)

Stomach

b)

Jejunum

c)

Duodenum

d)

Ileum

36.

The epithelium of urinary bladder

a)

Simple cuboidal

b)

Stratified squamous

c)

Transitional

d)

Simple columnar

37.

the end product of beta oxidation of fatty acid is:

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Glycerol

c)

Acetyl CoA

d)

Citrate

38.

Which hormone stimulate lipolysis in adipose tissue?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Oestrogen

d)

Thyroxine

39.

Carnitine is required for:

a)

Cholesterol synthesis

b)

Ketone body synthesis

c)

Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria

d)

Lipogenesis

40.

Beta oxidation take place in:

a)

Cytosol

b)

Peroxisome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

ER

41.

The first step of beta oxidation involves:

a)

Dehydrogenation

b)

Hydration

c)

Cleavage

d)

Oxidation

42.

Which enzyme is required in the first step of beta oxidation?

a)

NAD+

b)

FAD

c)

CoA

d)

Biotin

43.

The lesser omentum connects the liver to the:

a)

Colon

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Stomach and duodenum

d)

Pancreas

44.

The greater sac communicates with the lesser sac via:

a)

Epiploic foramen

b)

Aortic hiatus

c)

Inguinal canal

d)

Rectus sheath

45.

The cardiac notch of the stomach is located:

a)

Between the fundus and body

b)

Between Oesophagus and fundus

c)

Between pylorus and antrum

d)

Near greater curvature

46.

Taeniae coli are found in:

a)

Small intestine

b)

Stomach

c)

Appendix

d)

Colon

47.

The pancreas is a

a)

Completely intraperitoneal organ

b)

Retroperitoneal organ

c)

Pelvic organ

d)

Foregut diverticulum

48.

The renal pyramid are located in the

a)

Cortex

b)

Medulla

c)

Renal pelvis

d)

Ureter

49.

The left kidney is higher than the right because of:

a)

Shape

b)

Liver position

c)

Splenic attachment

d)

Adrenal gland

50.

The bare area of the liver is in contact with:

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Gallbladder

c)

Kidney

d)

Colon

51.

The majority of the pancreas is composed of

a)

Exocrine acinar cells

b)

Islets of Langerhans

c)

Ductal epithelium

d)

Adipose tissue

52.

The endocrine pancreas is organized into:

a)

Islets of Langerhans

b)

Acini

c)

Centroacinar clusters

d)

Zymogen bodies

53.

The islets of Langerhans are most numerous in which region of the pancreas?

a)

Neck

b)

Uncinate process

c)

Head

d)

Tail

54.

Alpha cells are mostly located:

a)

Center of islets

b)

In acini

c)

At the periphery of islets

d)

Around ducts

55.

The stomach is primarily located in which abdominal regions?

a)

Right lumbar and umbilical

b)

Left hypochondriac and epigastric

c)

Left iliac and hypogastric

d)

Right hypochondriac and epigastric

56.

The Auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus lies between:

a)

Circular and longitudinal muscle layers

b)

Mucosa and submucosa

c)

Serosa and mucosa

d)

Lamina propria and mucosa

57.

The nerve fibers of Meissner’s plexus are found in the:

a)

Muscularis externa

b)

Submucosa

c)

Mucosa

d)

Serosa

58.

The oblique layer of muscle is found:

a)

Innermost in the muscularis externa

b)

In the serosa

c)

In the submucosa

d)

Outer to circular muscle

59.

  • The stomach bed includes all EXCEPT:



a)

Right lobe of liver

b)

Left kidney

c)

Pancreas

d)

Spleen

60.

The anterior surface of the stomach is related to the:

a)

Right kidney and adrenal

b)

Inferior vena cava

c)

Cecum and ileum

d)

Left lobe of liver and diaphragm

61.

The ureter is approximately how long?

a)

25–30 cm

b)

40–45 cm

c)

10 cm

d)

15 cm

62.

The fetal liver is largely bypassed by the:

a)

Ductus arteriosus

b)

Ductus venosus

c)

Umbilical artery

d)

Foramen ovale

63.

Blood from the IVC is directed toward the:

a)

Foramen ovale

b)

Pulmonary trunk

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Aortic arch

64.

Which fetal vessel has the lowest oxygen saturation?

a)

Umbilical vein

b)

Umbilical arteries

c)

Inferior vena cava

d)

Foramen ovale

65.

The ductus venosus primarily shunts blood away from:

a)

Liver sinusoids

b)

Lungs

c)

Aorta

d)

Brain

66.

The first layer of skin to develop is:

a)

Stratum basale

b)

Stratum corneum

c)

Mesenchyme

d)

Periderm

67.

The dermis of the limbs and body wall arises from:

a)

Paraxial mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Lateral plate mesoderm

d)

Intermediate mesoderm

68.

Albinism is due to:

a)

Absence of melanocytes

b)

Defective tyrosinase activity

c)

Lack of surface ectoderm

d)

Absence of periderm

69.

The urinary system develops primarily from:

a)

Paraxial mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Lateral plate mesoderm

d)

Intermediate mesoderm

70.

The functional fetal kidney is the:

a)

Metanephros

b)

Pronephros

c)

Cloaca

d)

Mesonephros

71.

The urachus connects the bladder to:

a)

Rectum

b)

Umbilicus

c)

Kidney

d)

Genital ridge

72.

The laryngotracheal groove first appears during:

a)

4th week

b)

6th week

c)

3rd week

d)

8th week

73.

Alveolar development continues until 8 years of age

a)

True

b)

False

74.

The lung bud arises from Pharyngeal pouch

a)

True

b)

False

75.

The metanephric blastema forms the:

a)

Ureter

b)

Renal pelvis

c)

Collecting ducts

d)

Nephrons

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