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Anaesthesiology Quiz Interns

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a false statement about spinal anaesthesia?

a)

It blocks the transmission of efferent nerve signals from peripheral nociceptors, eliminating pain and allowing for surgical procedures.

b)

PDPH is a complication of spinal anaesthesia

c)

It is contraindicated in intracranial hypertension.

d)

Arachnoid matter is pierced in spinal anaesthesia.

2.

Identify the needle.

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3.

Which is not the correct method for identification of Epidural space:

a)

Hanging Drop Technique

b)

Loss of resistance method.

c)

USG guided technique

d)

Anatomical fixed length.

4.

Which local anaesthetic is metabolized by pseudocholine esterase?

a)

Mepivacaine

b)

Lignocaine

c)

Chloroprocaine

d)

Ropivacaine

5.

A 33 year old multipara patient underwent normal delivery. The obstetrician gave 10 ml of lignocaine 10% for episiotomy. Patient developed seizures followed by coma. What is the cause?

a)

Amniotic fluid embolism

b)

LAST

c)

Fat embolism

d)

Intrapartum eclampsia

6.

Identify the mallampatti grade:

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7.

Identify .

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8.

A 77-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit following emergency repair of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. During the operation, he received a 10-unit blood transfusion and was transferred to ICU intubated and ventilated, initially with minimal oxygen requirements. Twenty-four hours later his oxygen requirement has begun to increase. His P: F ratio is 210 mmHg and his chest X-ray shows new bibasal interstitial shadowing. An echocardiogram demonstrates good right and left ventricular function with an ejection fraction of 55%. His stroke volume variation is 14%. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Acute lung injury (ALI).

b)

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

c)

Ventilator-associated pneumonia.

d)

Transfusion-related acute lung injury.

e)

Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema.

9.

Shock caused by a large tension pneumothorax is categorized as:

a)

Trauma shock

b)

Vasodilatory shock

c)

Cardiogenic shock

d)

Obstructive shock

10.

This drug can trigger an attack of acute porphyria in risk patients.

a)

Halothane

b)

Sevoflurane

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Thiopental

11.

What is the Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of nitrous oxide?

a)

105%

b)

50%

c)

1.15%

d)

6.0%

12.

A 32-year-old patient undergoes induction of general anesthesia for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Shortly after intravenous administration of the anesthetic agent, the patient experiences severe pain at the injection site. Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agents is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?

a)

Midazolam

b)

Propofol

c)

Ketamine

d)

Thiopentone sodium

13.

A 45-year-old male with a history of asthma is scheduled for a minor surgical procedure under general anesthesia. The anesthesiologist is considering intravenous induction agents. Which of the following agents is least likely to trigger bronchospasm in this patient?

a)

Ketamine

b)

Thiopental

c)

Propofol

d)

Etomidate

14.

Identify the rhythm. What is the treatment as per ACLS.

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15.

Cardioversion is done in all except:

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16.

Name the mask? Write one advantage.

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17.

Which of the following inotropic agents primarily acts on beta-1 adrenergic receptors to increase cardiac contractility?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Dobutamine

d)

Dopamine

18.

What is a potential side effect of using positive inotropic drugs during anesthesia?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Increased risk of arrhythmias

c)

Hypotension

d)

Decreased myocardial oxygen demand

19.

Identify the mode.

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20.

Name the maneuver. Write one contraindication.

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