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WorksheetsBIOL 2401 Final Exam Review
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins
If a patient has a disorder in which a certain region of heterochromatin is not becoming euchromatin when necessary, what would happen to the affected cells?
Certain genes in the genome normally protected from transcription will no longer be / may be inappropriately expressed.
The cell's DNA will not be able to properly undergo mitosis because of improper chromosome formation.
DNA that needs to be expressed in that region will no longer be accessible for transcription components.
The cell will stall in the interphase state because the euchromatin will stay condensed
Ubiquitin is added to proteins for this purpose:____.
aid in proper folding
send them to cell surface for secretion
send them to a proteasome for degradation
send them to a lysosome for degradation
Which of the following is the best definition of epithelium?
gap junctions and polarized membranes
tight junctions and non-polarized membranes
a wide variety of sizes, shapes, and properties typically found on the outer surfaces of the body
tight junctions and polarized membranes
a single size and shape that is polarized so that there is an apical and basal surface
Integral proteins are located ____.
on the outer surface of the cell membrane
on the inner surface of the cell membrane
solely within the mitochondrial membrane
within the membrane, where they span from one side to another
What are the four major classes of connective tissue?
loose connective, collagen, connective tissue proper, bone
bone, muscle, connective tissue proper, blood
connective tissue proper, bone, cartilage, blood
blood, collagen, muscle, loose connective
How does facilitated diffusion differ from simple diffusion in membrane transport?
Facilitated diffusion requires ATP while simple diffusion does not.
Facilitated diffusion occurs against the concentration gradient, unlike simple diffusion.
Facilitated diffusion utilizes transport proteins, while simple diffusion does not.
Facilitated diffusion only involves movement of water, unlike simple diffusion.
Name the three types of cartilage
articular, hyaline, elastic
elastic, articular, fibrocartilage
fibrocartilage, hyaline, elastic
Which of the following biomolecules is responsible for storing genetic information in living organisms?
Nucleic acids
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?
anterior
lateral
distal
dorsal
What is the organelle that is tasked with cleaning cells of wastes and debris?
peroxisomes
ribosomes
lysosomes
Golgi apparatus
Which of the following is not a characteristic of life?
reproductive capacity
responsiveness to stimuli
adaptation
nucleic acids
Which factor below is important for the cell membrane to function as a semipermeable barrier?
the ability of peripheral membrane proteins to bind to phospholipids
the hydrophobic properties of most proteins and ions
phospholipid modification by other molecules
the reaction between amphipathic molecules
Which of the following would describe the common physical characteristics of the mouth, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine?
systemic anatomy
digestive anatomy
systemic physiology
digestive physiology
Which of the following is not a connective tissue
bone
blood
cartilage
muscle
tendons
in a neuron, where can the nucleus be found?
in the cell body
in the axon
in the synapse
in the dendrites
Anatomy is the study of ____.
how cells carry out processes essential for their survival
the normal structure of the human body
how cells divide
how cells differentiate
how does the conformation of heterochromatin affect gene expression?
it facilitates transcription by providing access to transcription factors.
it induces gene splicing by increasing access to transcription factors
it restricts transcription by being tightly coiled and limiting access to genes
it encourages transcription by relaxing its structure
according to the fluid mosaic model, which factor would DECREASE the fluidity of a biological membrane?
an increase in temperature
an increase in the ratio of unsaturated to saturated phospholipids
a decrease in cholesterol concentration at normal temperatures
a decrease in temperature
which of the following is found in DNA nucleotides but not RNA?
ribose sugar
uracil
pyrimidines
thymine
The study of the microscopic anatomy of cells and tissues is called ___.
anatomy
physiology
cytology
histology
Anatomical areas in the body are described in reference to ___.
the size and width of the body
the sex of the person
the age of the person
the standard anatomical position
What is another term for gross anatomy, the study of large body structures that are visible to the naked eye such as the heart?
microscopic anatomy
developmental anatomy
macroscopic anatomy
systemic anatomy
Which of the following statements regarding epithelium and connective tissue is TRUE?
connective tissue secretes and absorbs solutes, while epithelium provides protection
epithelium provides protection and transport, while connective tissue connects bones together.
they are essentially the exception that epithelium has gap junctions and connective tissue does not
gap junctions hold epithelium together, while connective tissue is held together with tight junctions.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about solutes moving down a concentration gradient?
Homeostasis is attained when the space between molecules is equal to the force they exert.
the molecules are in motion all the time, no matter where in the gradient they are
as molecules move away from their concentration gradient, they bump into each other at the same rate but slower speed.
this is a principle of active transport.
Which of the following best describes a transverse cut?
separation into superior and inferior
separation into 45-degree angles
separation into right and left
separation into front and back
Histology uses a microscope to view the cellular architecture that is comprised within tissues. Which of the following best describes this type of anatomy?
macroscopic
tissue
microscopic
gross
Which part of the cell is not involved in protein trafficking?
cell membrane
Golgi apparatus
nucleus
mitochondria
Which biomolecule consists of monomeric units known as nucleotides and is crucial for genetic information storage in cells?
proteins
carbohydrates
nucleic acids
lipids
the organ system of the body that functions in the secretion of regulatory molecules called hormones is the ___ system.
reproductive
nervous
endocrine
circulatory
the heart is ___ to the arm.
medial
lateral
cephalic
dorsal
The heart is a biological pump that creates pressure to send nutrient- and oxygen-rich blood through circulatory vessels to supply body organs. What is the heart an example of?
a tissue
an organ
a system
an organ system
Which of the following is the best definition of a cell?
the basic structural and functional unit of the body
a collection of organelles within a membrane made up of proteins and sugars
small identically shaped structures within the body
an organelle designed to produce large amounts of proteins
a structure produced only through meiosis
Feed forward mechanisms enable small changes in desired outcomes to further stimulate the physiological response. Which of the following is a good example of a positive feedback mechanism?
body temperature regulation
regulating glucose levels in the blood
enhancement of labor contractions
blood calcium level regulation
In a homeostatic system, the stimulus is commonly____.
something in the external environment
the brain
a muscle
a hormone
Which statement(s) is/are true regarding enzymes?
they undergo induced-fit with their substrate
they slow down the rate of biological reactions
they are consumed in the reaction
they bind to the active site on the substrate
the heart lies in the _____ cavity
superior mediastinal
pleural
dorsal
pericardial (or thoracic)
How is muscle different than connective tissue?
it allows for movement
it generates mechanical force
muscle connects bones to bones, but connective tissue does not
What is an essential component of proper protein formation and conformation?
chaperone proteins to ensure the primary protein structure is correct
the arrangement of R groups that will interact and form a globular structure
helper proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum to ensure protein subunits bind to each other
all of the above
simple cuboidal epithelium is ideal for which of the following functions?
stretching in response to fluid in the lumen
secretion and absorption
exchange of gases and nutrients
protecting the external skin from abrasion
name the structure that is composed of two or more cell types that work together to perform specific functions
tissue
body system
organ
macromolecule
Which statement does not correctly describe the Cell Theory?
all cells come from preexisting cells
eukaryotic organisms are made of a single cell
cells are the fundamental unit of life
all living organisms are comprised of one or more cells
The apical side of epithelial cells______.
is tethered to a basement membrane
is responsible for reinforcing the issue by resisting tears
contains hemidesmosomes, desmosomes, and tight junctions
may have specializations such as microvilli for absorption
what type of transport process moves solutes against their concentration gradients?
passive
active
bulk flow
facilitated
Which of the following is the best definition of physiology
how two organisms interact
how organisms function
the spread of diseases
the structure of the body
the structure of an organ
What kind of feedback loop prevents sudden changes in body temperature?
positive
negative
additive
substractive
What would occur if a cell was placed into a hypotonic solution?
the cell would take on a shriveled shape as water exited into the extracellular space
Nothing; the cell would remain the same
The cell would engorge and possibly lyse as water entered from the extracellular space
None of the above would occur
Which of the following is not one of the major tissue types of the body?
epithelial
muscle
nervous
connective
adipose
ATP energy is required for which of the following processes?
osmosis
simple diffusion
facilitated diffusion
active transport
What gives the distinction between two different cell types, such as skin or blood?
Each cell type contains a different subset of genes
Each cell type expresses different levels of different proteins that will work to perform specific functions
Each cell type receives different signals from the center of the tissue structure
Each cell type is generated from a unique precursor cell that passes down all of the proteins necessary to perform its function
Which of the following describes the plasma membrane
a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
a membrane with numerous open pores for large molecules to easily move into and out of the cell
Which of the following is a function of the skin?
sensory organ for pain, vibration, and changes in temperature
protection against excessive water loss
aids in the synthesis of vitamin D
involved in thermoregulation of the body
What is the most common cell type within the epidermis?
chondroblasts
osteoblasts
keratinocytes
fibroblasts
Which of the following is the middle layer of the integumentary system?
hypodermis
epidermis
dermis
How do melanocytes contribute to the function of the epidermis?
they produce keratin for waterproofing
they act as antigen-presenting cells for immune response
they are found in all layers including the stratum corneum
they produce pigment for UV protection
Which cell type provides immune protection within the epidermis?
Langerhans cells
fibroblasts
keratinocytes
adipocytes
Removal of ____ would block our ability to have goose bumps?
arrector pili muscles
sweat glands
the epidermis
adipocytes
What is the correct sequence of the epidermal layers from the outermost to the innermost layer in thick skin?
Stratum corneum, Stratum lucidum, Stratum granulosum, Stratum spinosum, Stratum basale
Stratum basale, Stratum spinosum, Stratum granulosum, Stratum lucidum, Stratum corneum
Stratum granulosum, Stratum corneum, Stratum spinosum, Stratum basale, Stratum lucidum
Stratum lucidum, Stratum basale, Stratum spinosum, Stratum granulosum, Stratum corneum
Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines the pigmentation of a given person's skin color?
type of melanin molecules produced
the number and size of melanosomes
the abundance of melanin granules in melanosomes prior to transfer
how long melanosomes persist in keratinocytes before being degraded
the thickness of the stratum corneum layer
Vitamin D3 is important for the absorption of what biologically important ion?
potassium
calcium
ion
magnesium
nitrogen
Which of the following statements best describes the primary functions of the dermis?
Supports epidermis and provides sensory functions.
Serves as a major site for keratinocyte production.
Specializes in pigmentation and vitamin D production.
Acts as a protective barrier against pathogens.
What is a primary function of the hypodermis in the integumentary system?
Protection from UV radiation
Energy storage and insulation
Synthesis of vitamin D
keratin production
Ricky just completed a 2-hour cardio session at the gym. To cool the bod down after an intensive workout, his body___.
increases sudoriferous apocrine gland activity
increases sudoriferous eccrine gland activity
decreases sudoriferous apocrine gland activity
decreases sudoriferous eccrine gland activity
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeleton?
protection
support and attachment
blood cell formation
sodium ion homeostasis
movement
The epiphyses of long bones are covered by____.
periosteum
endosteum
cartosteum
hyaline cartilage
canals
Compare the role of collagen and hydroxyapatite in bone physiology
Collagen provides protection against compressive forces, while hydroxyapatite protects against bone flexing
Collagen stores calcium within bone, while hydroxyapatite determines bone length
Hydroxyapatite provides protection against compressive forces, while collagen protects against bone flexing
Both hydroxyapatite and collagen act as a template for bone growth
Select the answer that correctly describes the cells involved in bone remodeling.
Osteoclasts remove old bone, while osteoblasts form new bone
Osteoclast form new bone, osteocytes remodel existing bone, and osteoblasts remove old bone
Osteoclasts remove osteons in the diaphysis, while osteoblasts form new bone on the epiphyses of bone
Osteoclasts decrease bone diameter as a response to mechanical stresses
Which of the following is the best definition of the axial skeleton?
all the bones in the body above the belt
all the bones in the body below the belt
all the bones that make up the limbs
the skull, rib cage, and vertebrae
Which of the following is the basic functional unit of compact bone?
periosteum
trabeculae
lamellae
lacuna
osteon
Predict what would happen if the epiphyseal plate never ossified
Long bones would continue growing in length
Long bones would never grow to full length
Compact bone would not form into long bones
Calcium would be lost from epiphyseal lines
Which statement best distinguishes the difference between concentric lamellae and perforating canals inside bones?
Concentric lamellae are a passageway for nerves and blood vessels to enter osteons; perforating canals directly connect the fluid surrounding osteocytes
Perforating canals are a passageway for nerves and blood vessels to enter osteons; concentric lamellae are small fluid-filled cavities containing osteocytes
Concentric lamellae are small fluid-filled cavities containing osteocytes; perforating canals directly connect the fluid surrounding osteocytes
Concentric lamellae are cylindrical structures within osteons; perforating canals are perpendicular channels that connect neighboring osteons
How does parathyroid hormone (PTH) regulate plasma calcium levels when they are too low?
By increasing activity of osteoblasts to deposit calcium in bones.
By stimulating osteoclast activity to release stored calcium into the blood.
By enhancing calcitonin secretion for promoting calcium absorption.
By promoting increased excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Which of the following best explains the difference between endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification?
Endochondral ossification forms membranous bones from fibrous membranes.
Endochondral ossification involves the replacement of hyaline cartilage to form most of the skeleton.
Intramembranous ossification replaces most of the fetal skeleton with hyaline cartilage.
Intramembranous ossification involves bone formation through hyaline cartilage.
According to the principle highlighted by Wolff’s Law, what happens to bones when subjected to consistent mechanical stress?
Bones remodel to become denser and stronger.
Bones maintain their current density and structure.
Bones become less dense and undergo deterioration.
Bones become more flexible and elastic.
Through which of these structures does the spinal cord pass?
spinous process
vertebral foramen
pedicle
transverse process
intervertebral foramina
Which of the following terms is a type of depression in a bone?
foramen
canal or meatus
fossa
line
fissure
Without the hyoid bone, we could not_____.
chew our food properly
smell odors properly
swallow food properly
hear sounds properly
close our eyes properly
The connection between the pectoral girdle and axial skeleton is made through the ____ and ____.
humerus; sternum
clavicle; sternum
clavicle; acromion
scapula; humerus
humerus; scapula
The prominent knob of the elbow is the ____.
deltoid tuberosity
trochlea line
olecranon process
capitulum fossa
ulnar styloid process
True or False: The superior (i.e., top) edge of the ilium is the iliac crest.
True
False
A lateral projection on the femur's proximal epiphysis is the ___.
major trochanter
gluteal tuberosity
greater trochanter
neck
olecranon conjecture
Identify the bones that make up the elbow joint
humerus, radius, and ulna
radius, ulna, and tarsal bones
radius, ulna, and carpal bones
humerus, scapula, and sternum
The head of the humerus forms a joint with the ____.
acetabulum
acromion
glenoid fossa
ischium
pubic bone
The two pelvic bones articulate with each other directly at the ____.
sacroiliac joint
coxal joint
pubic symphysis
pelvic symphysis
Which of the following is NOT part of the appendicular skeleton?
scapula
tibia
radius
sternum
phalanges
Which of the following statements is correct?
Long bones are equally long as they are wide
Long bones include the vertebrae
Long bones are thin and broad
Long bones have more length than width
Long bones are specialized bones found withing tendons
The radius bone of the forearm is found relative to the thumb side of the hand when anatomically positioned
True
False
The lower leg is formed by two bones, the tibula and the fibia.
True
False
How do joint classifications inform their functionality and potential for movement?
By the presence of a joint capsule only.
By the stability the joint provides.
By the joint's location in the body.
By the type of connective tissue and joint movement allowed.
Uniaxial joints such as the ____ allow the following movements: ____.
elbow; flexion and extension
radioulnar; pronation and supination
both A and B
neither A nor B
What is an example of a symphysis joint?
intercarpal joints, which have slight movement
shoulder, due to the glenoid labrum
joints between vertebral bodies
joints between the tibia and fibula
What is a distinguishing feature of biaxial synovial joints compared to uniaxial joints?
They possess three axes of rotation and allow for circumduction.
They have two axes of rotation, allowing for movements like abduction and circumduction.
They have no identifiable axis of rotation and allow for gliding movements.
They share only one axis of rotation and are limited to hinge-like movements.
What role, if any, does synovial fluid play in joint homeostasis?
Synovial fluid lowers friction between moving parts
Synovial fluid provides nutrients to and removes wastes from chondrocytes
Blood vessels in the joint space release oxygen to the synovial fluid
Synovial fluid does not have a role in homeostasis
True or False: Joints connecting ribs to vertebral column are immovable
True
False
Which of the following is an example of a fibrous joint?
a vertebral body articulating with a neighboring vertebral body
a tooth articulating with its socket in the jaw
the two parietal bones of the skull articulating with each other
an epiphysis articulates with a diaphysis
The axis is another name for the second thoracic vertebrae
True
False
What type of tissue is located between the bones in a symphysis?
fibrocartilage
hyaline cartilage
spongy bone
synovial fluid
What are the two types of biaxial joints?
condyloid and saddle joints
ellipsoid and gliding joints
ball-and-socket and condyloid joints
hinge joints and pivot joints
Stand in anatomical position, and raise your arms forward in the sagittal plane to 90 degrees. Which movement did you just make at the shoulder?
abduction
extension
flexion
circumduction
adduction
Rheumatoid arthritis is typically caused by which of the following?
Bacterial infection
Genetic factors only
An autoimmune response that attack joint tissues
Low levels of calcium in the bones
Osteoarthritis is primarily caused by which of the following causes?
Infection in the joints
Autoimmune disorder
Wear and tear of joint cartilage
Lack of joint fluid
Acetylcholinesterase is an important molecule at the neuromuscular junction because it____.
actively degrades acetylcholine
stimulates muscle cell depolarization
synthesizes acetylcholine from acetic acid and choline
stimulates the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
directly activates acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic membrane
The primary muscles that work together to bring about a movement are called____.
agonist
antagonist
origin
insertion
When a person stands up out of a chair, the agonist muscles involved include the quadriceps, gluteal, and hamstrings, which are contracting in which type of muscle action? Select all that apply
isotonic
isometric
concentric
eccentric
To allow for cross-bridge interactions during muscular contraction, Ca2+ must bind with which of the following?
troponin
tropomyosin
actin
myosin
Which of the following statements is true regarding muscle atrophy?
Muscle atrophy is always a permanent effect
It involves an increase in muscle size, tone, and power.
Atrophy is caused by consistent inactivation of muscle fibers
Physical functioning is unaffected by muscle atrophy
Dying muscle fibers resulting from atrophy can be replaced
What is the resting membrane potential of a typical neuron?
-70mV
-60mV
+61.5mV
+66mV
-89mB
If a person has a greater proportion of type I fibers ______.
they will be able to sprint over great distances
their endurance will be less than that of a sprinter
their muscle physiology is built for speed
it is unlikely that they will be able to jump very high
all of the above are true
A concentric contraction_______.
lengthens a muscle during contraction
shortens a muscle during contraction
generates less force than the load
generates more force than the load
Which of the following is not a physiological property of skeletal muscle?
thermoregulatory
extensibility
contractibility
elasticity
activation by hormones
Which of the following is TRUE regarding compartmentalization?
It is created by the semi-permeable plasma membrane
It results in concentration gradients for substances like ions.
It is defined as having different homeostatic set-points for a substance in two different regions of the body or cell
other substances, including water, glucose, and enzymes can also be compartmentalized
All of the above are true
Which of the following conditions triggers the opening or closing of voltage-gated ion channels in a cell?
Binding with a chemical messenger
Interacting with a neurotransmitter or hormone
Changes in the relative distribution of charges
Binding with amino acid residues
Which of the following statements about muscle is false?
Muscles are attached to bones by connective tissue
Muscles are attached to bones by tendons and other fibrous attachments
Muscles work individually rather than in groups to perform movement
Both ends of the skeletal muscle must be attached to bones by connective tissue
Antagonists are the muscle groups that play supporting roles in muscle movement
Neurotransmitters that cause presynaptic inhibition (inhibition of the cell "sending" a message) would have receptors located on the ____.
postsynaptic membrane
presynaptic membrane
axonal membrane
cell body
Once an action potential excites the sarcolemma, a series of actions take place in order to produce a muscle contraction. This process primarily includes which of the following ions?
Ca2+
ATP
K+
Na+
You are in a microscopic submarine zooming inside the body of an individual running a race. One of the alarms in the submarine goes off, indicating decreasing levels of oxygen in the area. A little while later, you start to notice around you the build-up of some substance. Based on what you know about muscle metabolism, you suspect that this substance is ____.
pyruvic acid
glycogen
fatty acids
lactic acid
Which of the following is true regarding resting membrane potential?
It can be calculated using the Nernst equation
it is the point where net flux is zero across the cell membrane
It is the point where ions have stopped moving across the cell membrane
Resting membrane potential is positive
The equilibrium potential for sodium most strongly impacts the value for resting membrane potential
Joint is to _____ as bone is to _____
lever; fulcrum
fulcrum; lever
lever; lever
fulcrum; fulcrum
none of the above
A muscle's insertion is generally the attachment point that is _______
closest to the center of the body
furthest from the body of muscle's origin
proximal to the origin point
inferior to the origin point
none of the above
Excitable cells _______
are found in all tissue types
only send messages to other cells
have no nucleus
can generate an action potential in response to a graded potential
are also known as astrocytes
When strength is lost as a result of inactivity, the two primary factors responsible for this effect include ____.
decreased muscle fibers/motor unit recruitment and muscle atrophy
hyperplasia and hypertrophy
decreased cross-sectional area of type I fibers
the all-or-nothing principle and atrophy of type I fibers
Which of the following is an example of a third-class lever?
elbow flexion with a biceps curl
plantar flexion of the ankle
neck
none of the above
What important feature typically allows neurons to communicate with each other?
axons
synapses
dendrites
myelin
Nissl bodies
Which of the following are not commonly used as a way to name muscles?
the muscles origin and insertion
the muscle function
the muscle size
the muscle relationship to soft tissues
Which is the concentration gradient for sodium if we have 15mM inside the cell and 150mM outside the cell? (OUT - INSIDE)
165 mM
-135 mM
135 mM
2,250 mM
10 mM
What role does sodium (Na+) play in the process of depolarization in excitable cells?
Sodium flows into the cell during depolarization, altering the membrane potential
Sodium remains outside, maintaining the membrane potential constant
Sodium exits the cell, decreasing the cell's internal charge
Sodium binds to ligand-gated channels ion flow
Which of the following statements regarding skeletal and smooth muscle is FALSE?
Both types of muscle cells contain sarcomeres
Both types of muscle cells contain a sarcoplasmic reticulum
Both types of muscle cells are under voluntary control
Both types of muscle cells require calcium to initiate contraction
Both types of muscle cells form cross bridges
Which phase of the action potential is characterized by the membrane potential becoming more negative than the resting membrane potential?
Depolarization Phase
Peak Phase
Hyperpolarization Phase
Repolarization Phase
Membrane potential is created by_____.
excitable membranes
the equal distribution of ions across the membrane
the movement of only potassium
the uneven distribution of ions across the membrane
mechanisms of conductance
What is a neuromuscular junction?
where the axons of motor nerves meet the muscle
a chemical synapse formed between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber
the process of shuttling lactic acid from the muscle fiber into the blood stream
An eccentric contraction ___________.
lengthens a muscle during contraction
shortens a muscle during contraction
generates less force than the load
generates more force than the load
Which of the following muscle fiber types would be recruited for sitting?
type I
type IIA
type IIB
type III
All of the following are true regarding anaerobic training except _____.
it is characterized by high-intensity, intermittent bouts of exercise
it works in the absence of oxygen
it generates ATP at a faster rate than the oxidative system
it uses the creatine phosphate system
it includes the glycolytic system
Usain Bolt is able to run the 100-emter dash in under 10 seconds. At the tail end of his run, where is ATP being derived from?
creatine phosphate and ADP
aerobic metabolism
fatty acid metabolism
ATP directly present in the muscles fibers
amino acids
Why is skeletal muscle striated and smooth muscle non-striated?
This is due to the organization of sarcomeres
This is due to the type of innervation each muscle receives
This is due to the amount of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
This is due to the tissue each muscle can be found in
This is due to the ability of each muscle to produce a strong contraction
Which ion is responsible for the repolarization of the cell interior after depolarization during an action potential?
calcium
chloride
manganese
potassium
sodium
An excitatory post synaptic potential (EPSP) is ____.
depolarizing
repolarizing
hyperpolarizing
none of the above
The primary functions of skeletal muscle include which of the following? Select all that apply
create movement by contracting and pulling on tendons
communicate by speaking, writing, and making facial expressions
coordinate actions and transmit signal to and from different parts of its body
support organs and shield tissue from injury
Compared to action potentials, graded potential ____.
are produced in the axon
get stronger over time or distance
are a change from resting potential that are maintained at a constant intensity over time and distance
result in weaker changes in membrane potential the further from the point of origin they extend
are produced only at the axon hillock
Which lever is the most common type within the human body?
first class
second class
third class
fourth class
fifth class
Which of the following is an example of a second-class lever in the human body?
tilting back your head
standing on your toes
curling a barbell with your hand
spinning around on ice skates
None of the above is an example of a type II lever
Which muscle is named after the action it performs?
gracilis
adductor longus
sartorius
trapezius
teres major
Which of the following statement(s) regarding the effects of inactivity is/are true?
People who live an active lifestyle maintain physical functioning and muscular fitness
The amount of muscle mass a person has is exclusively determined by their genetics
When muscle fibers are not activated regularly they atrophy
People who spend too much time in sedentary behaviors will lose skeletal muscle mass and tone
In order to create movement (and according to the sliding filament theory), muscles _____.
push
pull
push and pull
What differentiates fast post-synaptic responses from slow post-synaptic responses at chemical synapses?
Fast responses involve a change in gene expression upon neurotransmitter binding.
Fast responses result from neurotransmitter binding to G-protein coupled receptors.
Slow responses involve neurotransmitter binding that causes immediate ion channel opening.
Fast responses are due to neurotransmitter binding to ligand-gated ion channels.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which ligand-gated ion channels operate?
They are gated by a chemical messenger that binds to the channel on the inside or outside of the cell.
They operate based on the relative distribution of charges in their local environment.
They respond only to changes in conformation caused by charged amino acid residues.
They're open or closed based on the depolarization of the cell membrane.
Which statement best demonstrates the role of ATP in skeletal muscle contraction?
ATP causes the myosin head to enter a high-energy state when hydrolyzed
ATP causes Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
ATP phosphorylates actin so that it can form a cross-bridge
ATP slows the rate of Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
ATP directly cause cross-bridges to form
Muscle fibers in a skeletal muscle form bundles called ____
fascicles
myofibrils
sarcomeres
endomysium
Predict what will happen to skeletal muscle over time in inactive people
Skeletal muscle atrophies (shrinks) and eventually disppears
Skeletal muscle fibers multiply
Skeletal muscle fibers turn into fat and connective tissue
Skeletal muscle becomes more sensitive to Ca2+
Which of the following is the correct descriptor of the rhomboid muscle in the following scenario: During a bicep curl, the rhomboid muscles maintain an isometric contraction to stabilize the scapula, while the biceps create movement by pulling on the radius
antagonist
agonist
synergist
mutualist
none of the above
Which of the following is true regarding isometric muscle contraction?
It includes concentric and eccentric muscle actions
Muscle force is generated despite uniform muscle tension
Muscles do not shorten despite changes in muscle tension
Muscles lengthen as the external load exceeds the contractile force
Muscles shorten as the external load becomes les than the contractile force
Which of the following is not a target tissue of the autonomic nervous system?
kidneys
bladder
blood vessels
skeletal muscle
cardiac muscle
Which of the following is a similarity between nicotinic and muscarinic receptors?
They both bind acetylcholine
They are both found on post-ganglionic dendrites
They are both ionotropic
A and C
None of the above
How do dermatomes and myotomes illustrate the relationship between the central nervous system (CNS) and the body's peripheral areas?
They represent connections between sensory adaptations and the brainstem.
They map out blood vessels providing nutrients to the skin and muscles.
They demonstrate the CNS's role in involuntary motor responses.
They show how spinal nerves carry sensory and motor information to specific regions.
If an individual suffers an injury to the right motor cortex, what would most likely be the resulting impairment?
motor dysfunction of the right arm, but not the right leg
motor dysfunction of the left arm and left leg
motor dysfunction of the left arm and right leg
motor dysfunction of the right arm and right leg
What is the sequence of structures that visual information travels through to reach the brain where vision is constructed?
Optic nerve, visual cortex, optic chiasma, lateral geniculate nucleus
Lateral geniculate nucleus, optic chiasma, optic nerve, visual cortex
Optic chiasma, optic nerve, lateral geniculate nucleus, visual cortex
Optic nerve, optic chiasma, lateral geniculate nucleus, visual cortex
Which type of receptor is responsible for visual pathways?
mechanoreceptor
photoreceptor
chemoreceptor
What is the pathway by which pain receptors send information to the brain?
receptor cell --> primary sensory cortex
receptor cell --> thalamus --> primary sensory cortex
receptor cell --> interneuron (spinal cord) --> descending tracts --> thalamus --> primary sensory cortex
receptor cell --> interneuron (spinal cord) --> lateral spinothalamic tract --> thalamus --> primary sensory cortex
receptor cell --> interneuron (spinal cord) --> fasciculus gracilis tracts --> caudate nucleus --> secondary sensory cortex
Which of the following statements best states the function of the blood-brain barrier?
it is a barrier in the brain to keep blood out.
it is a barrier in the brain that only allows small molecules into the CSF.
It is a highly selective semi-permeable membrane in brain that prevents solutes in the general circulation from passing into the CSF and the CNS
Parkinson's disease is characterized by the death of neurons that secrete dopamine. Which area of the basal nuclei is most likely affected?
internal globus pallidus
substantia nigra
subthalamic nuclei
none of these
How does the anatomical structure of the eyeball contribute to the visual conditions of myopia and hyperopia?
Eyeball shape affects light focusing on the retina, with longer eyeballs causing hyperopia and shorter ones causing myopia.
The anterior-posterior depth of the eyeball affects light focusing, with longer eyeballs causing myopia and shorter ones causing hyperopia
irregular corneal surface leads to blurred vision due to uneven light refraction, causing myopia and hyperopia.
the thickness of the lens varies, altering light focus due to lens elasticity changes, resulting in myopia and hyperopia.
What is the role of the optic chiasm in the visual pathway?
It generates action potentials for vision processing
It merges signals from the optic nerve to the visual cortex directly
It facilitates the crossover of visual information to the opposite hemisphere of the brain
It modifies signals from ganglion cells to enhance color perception
Which of the following accurately describes a function of the parasympathetic nervous system?
it decreases heart rate and blood pressure while also enhancing digestive tract motility
it only decreases the activity of bodily tissues, such as lowering blood pressure
it primarily increases heart and respiration rates during stress
it acts by increasing skeletal muscle blood flow during exercise.
What is the primary function of the medulla oblongata in the brainstem?
It acts as the main center for creativity and intuition
it serves as the primary area for sensory information processing
in functions as a relay station to higher brain structures
it plays a key role in homeostasis and controlling basic life functions.
areas of organization involving the motor cortex being responsible for controlling specific areas of the body known as _____.
population vector
somatotopy
homunculus map
layering
Which of the following would least likely trigger a nociceptor?
a chemical
a physical force
hormone activation
a signal from the body
Which of the following is not considered to be an auditory ossicle?
malleus
tympanum
incus
stapes
none of the above
Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for auditory processing and has key structures such as the primary auditory cortex and Wernicke's area?
Temporal lobe
frontal lobe
parietal lobe
occipital lobe
Where is the primary motor cortex located?
parietal lobe
occipital lobe
temporal lobe
frontal lobe
Which of the following correctly describes the dura mater within the meninges?
it is the innermost delicate layer of the meninges
it consists of a single layer surrounding the brain
it is the outermost tough fibrous layer with two layers in the brain
it is a thin membrane involved in cerebrospinal fluid production
Which of the following statements best describes "dynamic antagonism" in the autonomic nervous system?
It refers to the cooperative effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic control.
It indicates that both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are partially active for precise control.
It signifies that the parasympathetic division is active during emergency situations.
It describes the dual innervation of organs by both ANS divisions.
How do the human brain hemispheres differ in their associated functions?
Both hemispheres are primarily involved in analytical thought and logical reasoning.
The right hemisphere is mainly responsible for language and reasoning.
The left hemisphere handles functions like language and analytical thought, while the right handles creativity and spatial abilities.
Both hemispheres are equally responsible for artistic expression and intuition.
If you made the receptive field of the fingertip larger, which of the following would be true?
it would be harder to localize a stimulus
there will be a greater density of sensory neurons
there would be more sensory units in the receptive field
you would be more likely to discriminate between 2 points of touch
How does the size of motor units affect muscle control?
Smaller motor units require less neural input for activation.
larger motor units are needed for tasks requiring precision
smaller motor units enable fine motor control tasks like writing
larger motor units are associated with delicate actions
Which of the following statements is correct? There is more than one correct answer
The ANS has no connection to the CNS
The ANS has two neurons, a pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic
The post-ganglionic neurons in the ANS are myelinated
The receptors in the ANS muscarinic, nicotinic, alpha, and beta adrenergic
What is the potential consequence of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) accumulation in the brain's ventricles as seen in hydrocephalus?
Improved brain function due to increased communication between neurons.
Enlargement of ventricles causing increased pressure on brain tissue.
Enhanced nutrient supply to the brain, promoting faster recovery from injury.
Decreased pressure on brain tissues, alleviating certain neurological symptoms.
What is the importance of having two major arteries in the brain?
it provides an alternate way to get blood to a brain region in the case of a blockage
Cells won't be damaged by too much blood flow to a brain's region because its coming from two separate places
There's no significance other than one artery will supply the anterior and one the posterior region of the brain
it lowers the metabolic rate of neurons to an optimal level
Which of the following correctly matches the motor neuron type with the muscle fiber type it innervates? Select all that apply.
α-motor neurons --> intrafusal skeletal muscle fibers
γ-motor neurons --> intrafusal skeletal muscle fibers
α-motor neurons --> extrafusal skeletal muscle fibers
γ-motor neurons --> extrafusal skeletal muscle fibers
Which of the following is the best definition of the autonomic nervous system?
The autonomic nervous system controls muscles at an unconscious level.
It's the neurons that control things at an unconscious level, excluding skeletal muscle
It's the neurons that control things at a conscious level, including skeletal muscle
It's the neurons that control things that happen automatically, like walking
What is the primary distinction between somatic and visceral general sensory receptors?
Somatic receptors detect external stimuli like touch and temperature, while visceral receptors detect internal stimuli mainly from organs.
Visceral receptors process external stimuli such as proprioception, whereas somatic receptors handle internal stimuli like organ pressure.
Somatic receptors focus on stimuli related to pain and pressure in organs, whereas visceral receptors are responsible for touch and temperature.
Visceral receptors are involved with external stimuli and somatic receptors deal with internal organ functions.
Which type of sensory receptor is primarily involved in detecting changes in pressure and movement?
Thermoreceptors
Chemoreceptors
Mechanoreceptors
Nociceptors
How does the vibration of sound pressure waves ultimately lead to the perception of sound in the auditory cortex?
The pinna channels sound directly to the auditory cortex through the tympanic membrane.
Inner ear ossicles bypass the cochlea to send vibrations to the auditory cortex.
Hair cells (stereocilia) in the cochlea detect and convey signals through the vestibulocochlear nerve.
The cochlea interprets sound frequency and sends electric signals directly to the auditory cortex.
Fight or flight refers to a/an _______.
blockage of activity of sympathetic system
reduction of activity of the somatic system
increase in activity of the parasympathetic system
increase in activity of the sympathetic system
What is the primary distinction between the dorsal ramus and ventral ramus in terms of their functions within the nervous system?
Dorsal ramus carries motor axons and ventral ramus carries sensory axons.
Dorsal ramus is involved with involuntary processes, and ventral ramus is involved with voluntary processes.
Dorsal ramus transmits information to and from the brain, while ventral ramus only communicates within the spinal cord.
Dorsal ramus carries sensory information to and from the back, while ventral ramus carries sensory information to and from other body parts.
List the order of objects light passes through to reach the retina
cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, lens, vitreous humor
pupil, lens, aqueous humor, vitreous humor, cornea
vitreous humor, lens, pupil, aqueous humor, cornea
aqueous humor, pupil, cornea, lens, vitreous humor
Dorsal ramus carries sensory information to and from the back, while ventral ramus carries sensory information to and from other body parts.
Rod cells function best in low light, while cone cells function best in bright light.
Cone cells function best in low light, while rod cells function best in bright light.
Both rod and cone cells function best in low light conditions.
Both rod and cone cells function best in bright light conditions.
How does the concept of topographic organization in the cerebral cortex relate to the motor and sensory homunculus?
It reflects a random distribution of neurons throughout the cortex.
It signifies an organized mapping where specific brain regions correspond to specific body parts.
It indicates that all sensory information is processed in one area of the cortex.
It demonstrates equal cortical area allocation for all body parts regardless of importance.
How does the absorption of light by a photoreceptor lead to signaling in the visual system?
It immediately increases the action potential of bipolar cells.
It prevents hyperpolarization of ganglion cells.
It causes a structural change, leading to cation channel closure and membrane hyperpolarization in photoreceptors.
It directly facilitates the continuous depolarization of photoreceptor cells.
Which of the following statements best distinguishes a monosynaptic reflex from a polysynaptic reflex?
Monosynaptic reflexes involve the cerebral cortex directly, whereas polysynaptic reflexes bypass the brain entirely.
Monosynaptic reflexes involve interneurons to integrate multiple inputs, while polysynaptic reflexes form direct synapses between sensory and motor neurons.
Monosynaptic reflexes consist of a direct synapse between a sensory neuron and a motor neuron, while polysynaptic reflexes involve one or more interneurons and may involve the cerebral cortex.
Both reflexes involve the same number of synapses and always require input from the brain to complete the response.
In a reflex arc, what role does the integration center play in responding to a stimulus?
It detects changes in the environment and signals the effector.
It carries sensory information toward the central nervous system.
It directly stimulates muscles to contract in response to the stimulus.
It processes the information received from sensory neurons and generates a response.
A stronger pain stimulus would cause ______.
more frequent action potentials
stronger action potentials
longer action potentials
same amount of action potentials per cell but more cells recruited
How is the direction of skeletal muscle movement determined?
By random muscle fiber activation.
Through the influence of the cerebellum.
By the size of motor units involved.
By altering the action potential firing rate and summating the resultant population vector.
Which cell provides warning about possible damage to the body?
hair follicle
Meissner's corpuscle
nociceptor
Pacinian corpuscle
Ruffini's corpuscle
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of aging in the CNS.
Reduced sensory input
Decreased proprioceptive information
Increased cognitive function
Memory loss or confusion
Which of the following concepts is false?
The parasympathetic system functions solely to inhibit target tissue function
Organs can be innervated by both divisions of the autonomic nervous system
The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system have localized and systemic effects.
Both divisions of the autonomic nervous system have localized and systemic effects.
What is a key function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the central nervous system?
Regulating ions and nutrients in the extracellular environment.
Transmitting neural signals between nerve cells.
Producing neurons and glial cells in the brain.
Generating electrical impulses in the CNS.
What happens to the bipolar cells in the presence of light according to the retina's phototransduction process?
They continue to release inhibitory neurotransmitters.
They remain in a continuous state of depolarization.
They become hyperpolarized and inactive.
They are no longer inhibited and start firing (depolarization).
A two-point discrimination is a good way to test _____.
referred pain
the function of nociceptors
sensory adaptation
the size of a receptive field
How does the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) primarily contribute to maintaining bodily functions?
Through conscious regulation of skeletal muscle movements.
By regulating involuntary functions such as heart rate and digestion.
By delivering motor commands directly from the motor cortex to muscles.
Through direct synapses onto skeletal muscles for precise movements.
Which type of sensory receptor is characterized by its location in hairless skin and its ability to respond to deep pressure and vibration?
Pacinian corpuscles
Meissner corpuscles
Merkel cells
Ruffini corpuscles
Which physiological changes are primarily associated with the activation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system during stress?
Increased heart and respiration rates, increased blood flow to muscles, and sweating.
Decreased heart rate and blood flow, relaxation of skeletal muscles.
Enhanced digestive activities and reduced cardiac output.
Suppressed glandular secretion and expansion of blood vessels to the skin.
