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Australian Medical Council Quiz

Total questions: 33

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the most appropriate site to palpate the radial pulse in a clinical examination?

a)

Anterior aspect of the wrist, lateral to the flexor carpi radialis tendon

b)

Medial aspect of the elbow, over the brachial artery

c)

Lateral side of the neck, over the sternocleidomastoid muscle

d)

Dorsum of the foot, lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon

2.

Which auscultatory finding is most suggestive of mitral regurgitation?

a)

A mid-systolic click

b)

A pansystolic murmur best heard at the apex, radiating to the axilla

c)

An ejection systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border

d)

A diastolic rumble at the left lower sternal border

3.

Which cranial nerve is assessed by asking a patient to stick out their tongue?

a)

Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

b)

Facial nerve (CN VII)

c)

Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

d)

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

4.

Which of the following is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Dry cough

c)

Hyperglycaemia

d)

Constipation

5.

A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed salbutamol. What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?

a)

Beta-2 adrenergic agonist causing bronchodilation

b)

Muscarinic antagonist causing bronchodilation

c)

Inhibits leukotriene receptors

d)

Blocks histamine H1 receptors

6.

Which of the following medications is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity?

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Warfarin

d)

Metformin

7.

A doctor is offered an expensive gift by a pharmaceutical company. According to Australian medical ethics, what is the most appropriate action?

a)

Accept the gift and declare it to the hospital

b)

Politely decline the gift

c)

Accept the gift and do not inform anyone

d)

Accept the gift and recommend the company’s products

8.

Which of the following is a breach of patient confidentiality?

a)

Discussing a patient’s case with another doctor involved in their care

b)

Sharing patient information with a friend without consent

c)

Providing information to a specialist after obtaining patient consent

d)

Discussing a case in a de-identified manner for educational purposes

9.

In Australia, at what age can a person legally consent to medical treatment without parental involvement?

a)

12 years

b)

14 years

c)

16 years

d)

18 years

10.

Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

a)

Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues

b)

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells

c)

Excessive glucagon secretion

d)

Increased hepatic glucose production

11.

Which of the following is a hallmark of nephrotic syndrome?

a)

Haematuria

b)

Proteinuria greater than 3.5 g/day

c)

Hyperkalaemia

d)

Hypoglycaemia

12.

Which of the following is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults in Australia?

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

c)

Haemophilus influenzae

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

13.

Which imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting acute intracranial haemorrhage?

a)

MRI brain

b)

Non-contrast CT brain

c)

Ultrasound

d)

X-ray skull

14.

Which of the following is the best initial imaging technique for suspected appendicitis in a young adult?

a)

Abdominal X-ray

b)

Abdominal ultrasound

c)

MRI abdomen

d)

Barium enema

15.

Which of the following is a contraindication to MRI?

a)

Pacemaker

b)

Cochlear implant

c)

Metallic foreign body in the eye

d)

All of the above

16.

Which of the following is the most appropriate method to assess for deep vein thrombosis in the lower limb?

a)

Plain X-ray

b)

Doppler ultrasound

c)

CT angiography

d)

MRI

17.

Which of the following is a sign of upper motor neurone lesion?

a)

Flaccid paralysis

b)

Hyperreflexia

c)

Fasciculations

d)

Muscle atrophy

18.

Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause hypokalaemia?

a)

Spironolactone

b)

Furosemide

c)

Amiloride

d)

Lisinopril

19.

Which of the following is an example of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)?

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Codeine

d)

Morphine

20.

Which of the following is a legal requirement for prescribing Schedule 8 (S8) medications in Australia?

a)

No special requirements

b)

Must be prescribed on a standard prescription pad

c)

Must be prescribed on a special S8 prescription pad and recorded

d)

Can be dispensed without a prescription

21.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for anaphylaxis?

a)

Intravenous hydrocortisone

b)

Intramuscular adrenaline

c)

Oral antihistamines

d)

Nebulised salbutamol

22.

Which of the following is a feature of Graves’ disease?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Exophthalmos

c)

Weight gain

d)

Cold intolerance

23.

Which of the following is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?

a)

Coronary artery spasm

b)

Atherosclerotic plaque rupture with thrombosis

c)

Vasculitis

d)

Coronary artery embolism

24.

Which of the following is the best imaging modality for detecting gallstones?

a)

Abdominal X-ray

b)

Abdominal ultrasound

c)

CT abdomen

d)

MRI abdomen

25.

Which of the following is a sign of left-sided heart failure?

a)

Peripheral oedema

b)

Raised jugular venous pressure

c)

Pulmonary crackles

d)

Hepatomegaly

26.

Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for suspected pulmonary embolism in a pregnant woman?

a)

CT pulmonary angiography

b)

Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan

c)

Chest X-ray

d)

MRI chest

27.

Which of the following is a feature of iron deficiency anaemia on a full blood count?

a)

Macrocytic red cells

b)

Microcytic, hypochromic red cells

c)

Normocytic, normochromic red cells

d)

Spherocytes

28.

Which of the following is the most appropriate imaging technique for suspected scaphoid fracture?

a)

Wrist X-ray with scaphoid views

b)

CT wrist

c)

MRI wrist

d)

Ultrasound wrist

29.

Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?

a)

Essential hypertension

b)

Renal artery stenosis

c)

High salt intake

d)

Obesity

30.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of a patient with suspected acute stroke?

a)

Immediate administration of aspirin

b)

Urgent non-contrast CT brain

c)

Start intravenous heparin

d)

Arrange for carotid Doppler ultrasound

31.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation for a patient presenting with sudden onset severe headache and neck stiffness?

a)

Non-contrast CT brain

b)

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

c)

Carotid Doppler ultrasound

d)

Chest X-ray

32.

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause hyperkalaemia?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Hydrochlorothiazide

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Furosemide

33.

Which of the following is a typical feature of lower motor neurone lesion?

a)

Clonus

b)

Muscle atrophy

c)

Hyperreflexia

d)

Spasticity