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Blood Transfusion Safety

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The following statements are TRUE regarding plasma and serum, EXCEPT:

a)

Serum is obtained by collecting blood without an anticoagulant.

b)

Plasma can be prepared as soon it has been mixed thoroughly.

c)

Serum is generally clear or is slight yellow, but less yellow than plasma.

d)

Plasma is considered to be more stable for longer storage.

2.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding ABO blood group?

a)

ABO blood group are determined by the presence or absence of 3 antigens: A, B and O antigens.

b)

Individuals with type O blood are considered universal recipients.

c)

Type AB has both antigen A and B on RBC, & no anti-A or anti-B in plasma.

d)

Blood type is not determined by the specific genes inherited from parents.

3.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus/Newborn (HDFN) caused by ABO antibodies?

a)

Fetal hemolysis is typically severe.

b)

It rarely occurs during the first pregnancy.

c)

It is most common with O mothers and A babies.

d)

It occurs less commonly than Rh HDFN.

4.

The following statements are TRUE regarding blood components, EXCEPT:

a)

Packed RBCs can be stored for up to 42 days under refrigeration, or frozen for longer periods.

b)

Cryosupernatant is derived from plasma, rich in Factor VIII, fibrinogen, and von Willebrand factor.

c)

FFP is used to replace clotting factors in patients with severe trauma or massive blood loss.

d)

Platelet concentrates are transfused to patients with low platelet counts (thrombocytopenia) or platelet dysfunction.

5.

Which of the following is not true regarding the functions of blood?

a)

Regulating body temperature.

b)

Carrying cells and antibodies that fight infection.

c)

Transporting carbon dioxide and nutrients to the lungs and tissues.

d)

Forming blood clots to prevent excess blood loss.

6.

Choose a FALSE statement regarding blood component request:

a)

Take blood in EDTA tube for red cell component request.

b)

Order request in FISICIEN.

c)

Paste the barcode sticker on tube only.

d)

Fill up the GSH form completely.

7.

Which of the following is not included during GSH (Group, screen and hold) process?

a)

Full ABO grouping procedure (forward and reverse).

b)

Rh D grouping.

c)

Antibody screening on patient’s serum/ plasma.

d)

Compatibility testing between patient’s plasma and donor’s red cell.

8.

The following statements are TRUE regarding appropriate blood products for thalassaemia patient, EXCEPT:

a)

Irradiated

b)

Leukodepleted

c)

Fresh <14 days

d)

Phenotyped red cells

9.

Which of the following is not the indication for plasma transfusion?

a)

Bleeding patients with multiple coagulation factor deficiencies.

b)

For treatment of ITP.

c)

Congenital factor deficiency.

d)

Immediate reversal of warfarin effect in potentially life threatening bleeding.

10.

Which of the following is not true regarding the process of issue and transport blood?

a)

Any laboratory staff is allowed to issue blood.

b)

Ward personnel collecting the blood shall bring blood collecting slip with ice box.

c)

Both blood bank and ward staff must ensure that correct blood is issued out for correct patient.

d)

Ensure the blood not expired, no change in color, absence clots, no foamy appearance and no leakage.

11.

The following statements are TRUE regarding patient blood management (PBM), EXCEPT:

a)

PBM emphasizes the appropriate use of blood components with the ultimate goal of improving patient outcomes using multimodality approaches.

b)

Strategies utilized in PBM usually revolve around optimizing patient blood mass and coagulation status, minimizing blood loss and evidence-based transfusion practices.

c)

PBM is safe and effective in providing better care and improving patients’ outcomes while reducing transfusion of allogeneic blood components.

d)

It is a single modal, single-disciplinary approach adopted to limit the use and the need for allogeneic blood transfusion in all at-risk patients with the aim of improving their clinical outcomes.

12.

The following are the 3 main pillars in patient blood management, except:

a)

To reduce risk of complication of surgery.

b)

To minimise blood loss.

c)

To harness and optimise physiological reserve of anaemia.

d)

To optimise erythropoiesis.

13.

What is a recommended transfusion threshold for hemodynamically stable adult patients?

a)

Hb < 10 g/dl

b)

Hb < 9 g/dl

c)

Hb < 7 g/dl

d)

Hb < 6 g/dl

14.

What is the role of intravenous iron in PBM?

a)

To treat all types of anaemia

b)

To treat iron deficiency anaemia preoperatively

c)

To prevent anaemia in all surgical patients

d)

To replace blood loss during surgery

15.

What is the recommended approach for managing anticoagulants in the perioperative period?

a)

Continue all anticoagulants without changes

b)

Stop all anticoagulants immediately

c)

Only monitor anticoagulant levels

d)

Develop personalized plans for withdrawal and reintroduction

16.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia (IDA)?

a)

Serum iron is the most powerful test for iron deficiency.

b)

Serum ferritin should not be used to diagnose iron deficiency.

c)

Serum ferritin between 15–30 µg/L is highly suggestive of iron deficiency.

d)

Serum ferritin of <100 µg/L is considered as optimal iron stores in patients awaiting major surgery in whom substantial blood loss is anticipated.

17.

Which of the following is not one of the techniques to minimize blood loss during surgery?

a)

Precise surgical technique.

b)

Surgical devices that control bleeding.

c)

Drugs that control bleeding.

d)

Packed red cells transfusion.

18.

This indicator is included in the patient safety goal:

a)

Transfusion error.

b)

Seroconvert donor.

c)

Transfusion reaction.

d)

Adverse donor reaction.

19.

Critical point in transfusion:

a)

Identification

b)

Documentation

c)

Communication

d)

All of the above

20.

Role of ward staff in transfusion EXCEPT

a)

Medical indication decision for transfusion

b)

Transportation of blood

c)

Identification of correct patient

d)

Perform cross-matching

21.

Choose the correct statement for transfusion error.

a)

Blood is intended for the patient.

b)

Recognized before the transfusion takes place.

c)

Recognized after the transfusion takes place.

d)

It is non-preventable.

22.

Source of error in transfusion error include:

a)

Decision to transfuse

b)

Sample errors

c)

Blood issue and administration errors

d)

All of the above

23.

Choose the correct statement for Safe O blood.

a)

Blood will be supplied instantly with no blood grouping, antibody screening & crossmatching done.

b)

In Malaysia, all safe O blood bag is O negative Packed Cell.

c)

Can be requested anytime to transfuse blood for patient.

d)

It is safe blood products with no risk of transfusion reaction and Rhesus incompatibility.

24.

The following statements are TRUE regarding emergency crossmatch, EXCEPT:

a)

GSH form and sample are not required.

b)

Only blood grouping done.

c)

No antibody screening done.

d)

Crossmatching done at room temperature only.

25.

Rationale of massive transfusion protocol (MTP):

a)

Early control of bleeding.

b)

Initial resuscitation of the shock state.

c)

Early initiation of blood transfusions.

d)

All of the above.

26.

Common unit/locations in hospital that handle massive bleeding cases, EXCEPT:

a)

Labour room.

b)

Medical ward.

c)

Operation theatre.

d)

Red zone of emergency department.

27.

What component is most frequently involved with transfusion-associated infection?

a)

Platelets

b)

Plasma

c)

Packed red blood cells

d)

Whole blood

28.

Irradiation of blood is performed to prevent?

a)

Sepsis

b)

Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction

c)

Transfusion associated graft vs host disease

d)

Acute haemolytic reaction

29.

What is the first step in investigating a possible transfusion reaction?

a)

Repeat ABO test.

b)

Direct antiglobulin test.

c)

Clerical check.

d)

Haemolysis check.

30.

What to do when encounter or suspect transfusion rection?

a)

Stop blood transfusion immediately.

b)

Take resuscitation measures depending on the situation.

c)

Inform doctor in-charge of the patient urgently to assess the patient.

d)

All of the above.