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MINI TEST PHARMACOLOGY

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 78-year-old male on long-term anticoagulation with dabigatran for non-valvular atrial fibrillation undergoes an emergency laparotomy for a perforated viscus. He experiences significant intraoperative bleeding that is difficult to control. Which of the following is the most appropriate agent for targeted reversal of his anticoagulation?


a)

Idarucizumab

b)

Andexanet alfa

c)

Protamine sulfate

d)

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

2.

Which of the following SSRIs has a pharmacologically active metabolite with a substantially long half-life, requiring a washout period of up to 5 weeks before safely initiating a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)?


a)

 Fluoxetine

b)

Fluvoxamine

c)

Escitalopram

d)

Venlafaxine

3.

Which of the following pharmacodynamic properties is the primary mechanism that differentiates aripiprazole’s side effect profile, particularly its lower incidence of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) and hyperprolactinemia, from other atypical antipsychotics?

a)

Partial agonism at dopamine D2 receptors

b)

High-affinity antagonism of serotonin 5-HT2A receptors

c)

Potent antagonism at histaminic H1 receptors

d)

Irreversible binding to muscarinic M1 receptors

4.

Among the extrapyramidal syndromes induced by dopamine receptor blocking agents, which of the following is considered the most frequently encountered clinical manifestation, and what is its indicated first-line treatment?

a)

Akathisia - Propranolol

b)

Acute Dystonia - Benztropine


c)

Tardive Dyskinesia - Valbenazine

d)

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome - Dantrolene

5.

A 42-year-old female with a history of bipolar I disorder presents for medication management. She is concerned about significant weight gain experienced with previous mood stabilizers. Her current BMI is 32 kg/m ². Which of the following agents offers a therapeutic advantage by addressing both her psychiatric condition and her metabolic concern?


a)

Topiramate

b)

Valproate

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Gabapentin

6.

A 7-month-old infant diagnosed with infantile spasms was started on a new anti-epileptic drug. During a routine ophthalmologic follow-up several months later, significant bilateral concentric visual field constriction is noted. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of this finding?

a)

Vigabatrin

b)

Cannabidiol

c)

Topiramate

d)

Lamotrigine

7.

A 16-year-old female with a known history of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME) is managed on monotherapy. Her generalized tonic-clonic seizures are well-controlled, but she continues to have several daily episodes of brief staring spells, confirmed as absence seizures on EEG. Which of the following mechanisms of her current medication is primarily responsible for targeting these absence seizures?

a)

Blockade of T-type calcium channels

b)

 Antagonism of NMDA receptors

c)

Inhibition of GABA transaminase

d)

Enhancement of slow inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels

8.

A 45-year-old male with refractory focal epilepsy is experiencing significant ataxia and diplopia on high-dose carbamazepine. An add-on therapy is considered that targets voltage-gated sodium channels via a distinct mechanism involving the enhancement of slow inactivation, rather than fast inactivation. Which of the following agents is the most appropriate choice?

a)

 Lacosamide

b)

Rufinamide

c)

Felbamate

d)

Ethosuximide


9.

A 34-year-old female with a 5-year history of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS), maintained on glatiramer acetate, presents to the emergency department with a 72-hour history of rapidly progressing vertigo, dysarthria, and new-onset ataxia, significantly impairing her ability to ambulate. An urgent MRI of the brain reveals a new, large, gadolinium-enhancing lesion in the cerebellum. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate pharmacotherapeutic intervention?

a)

Intravenous methylprednisolone

b)

Initiation of subcutaneous interferon-beta


c)

Plasma exchange (PLEX)

d)

Oral baclofen

10.

A 68-year-old male with a 10-year history of Parkinson's disease, managed effectively with Levodopa/Carbidopa, presents with new, distressing choreiform movements of his upper body and trunk. These movements are most pronounced approximately one hour after each dose. His neurologist identifies these as peak-dose dyskinesias. Which adjunctive medication would be most appropriate to specifically target this complication?

a)

Amantadine

b)

Selegiline

c)

Benztropine

d)

Entacapone

11.

A 78-year-old male with mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's disease experiences significant nausea and dyspepsia with oral Donepezil, leading to poor compliance. His caregiver seeks an alternative with a similar mechanism of action but a potentially more favorable gastrointestinal tolerability profile. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic switch?

a)

Transdermal Rivastigmine

b)

Oral Memantine

c)

Oral Galantamine

d)

Intravenous Aducanumab

12.

A 28-year-old male with a known history of bronchial asthma presents to the emergency department with acute severe dyspnea and audible wheezing. He is administered multiple doses of nebulized salbutamol. While his breathing improves significantly, he subsequently complains of new-onset palpitations and profound muscle weakness. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is ordered. Which of the following ECG changes, coupled with the underlying electrolyte disturbance, is the most anticipated finding?

a)

 Flattened T-waves with prominent U-waves and hypokalemia

b)

Peaked T-waves and hyperkalemia

c)

ST-segment elevation and hypermagnesemia

d)

Prolonged PR interval with hypocalcemia

13.

An 80-year-old male with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has his condition managed with long-term oral theophylline. He is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia and is started on an appropriate oral antibiotic. Four days later, he presents with nausea, vomiting, sinus tachycardia, and frequent premature ventricular complexes. Which antibiotic most likely precipitated this patient's clinical deterioration?

a)

 Erythromycin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

 Metronidazole

14.

A 68-year-old male with a 10-year history of Parkinson's disease, treated with levodopa/carbidopa, presents with persistent nausea, early satiety, and postprandial bloating. A gastric emptying study confirms severe gastroparesis. Which of the following prokinetic agents is the most appropriate choice due to its minimal interaction with central dopaminergic pathways?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Domperidone

c)

Metoclopramide

d)

Cisapride

15.

A 58-year-old African American female with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, managed with lisinopril and metformin for the past two years, presents to the emergency department with acute, non-pitting swelling of her lips and tongue that developed over three hours. She denies any new foods, insect bites, or pruritus. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg, heart rate is 88/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min with an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. Her airway is patent. Laboratory studies are significant for a serum potassium of 5.3 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL. After stabilization and discontinuation of the offending agent, which of the following is the most appropriate long-term antihypertensive agent to initiate for this patient?

a)

Valsartan

b)

Enalapril

c)

Aliskiren

d)

Spironolactone

16.

A 58-year-old male with symptomatic chronic HFrEF in normal sinus rhythm is on a maximally tolerated dose of a beta-blocker, with a persistently elevated heart rate of 85 bpm. A new oral medication is added for heart rate control. A month later, he reports experiencing transient, self-resolving bright flashes of light, especially when moving his eyes. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the newly prescribed medication?


a)

Inhibition of the funny current (If) in the sinoatrial node

b)

Selective antagonism of vasopressin V2 receptors in the collecting duct

c)

Inhibition of neprilysin in endothelial and renal tubular cells

d)

Agonism of B-type natriuretic peptide receptors in vascular smooth muscle

17.

A 67-year-old male with a 5-year history of ischemic cardiomyopathy and HFrEF (LVEF of 28%) presents to the emergency department with two weeks of worsening dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, and significant bilateral lower extremity pitting edema. His home medications include enalapril 10 mg twice daily, carvedilol 25 mg twice daily, and spironolactone 25 mg daily. On examination, his blood pressure is 105/75 mmHg, heart rate is 92 bpm, and jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated to 12 cm H₂O. He is admitted and improves significantly with intravenous diuretics. The clinical team decides to optimize his guideline-directed medical therapy. They plan to discontinue his enalapril and initiate a new combination agent after a mandatory 36-hour washout period to minimize the risk of a specific adverse effect. Which of the following represents the primary mechanism of one of the components in the new therapeutic agent that enhances the body's native counter-regulatory peptide system?


a)

 Inhibition of neprilysin, preventing the degradation of natriuretic peptides and bradykinin

b)

Selective antagonism of the vasopressin V2 receptor, promoting aquaresis

c)

 Inhibition of the sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 in the proximal renal tubules

d)

Competitive antagonism of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor


18.

A 68-year-old male with chronic heart failure on a stable dose of digoxin is newly prescribed hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. He presents with new-onset ventricular ectopy. Laboratory investigations reveal a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the most appropriate initial management?

a)

Administer intravenous potassium chloride and lidocaine.

b)

Administer digoxin immune Fab.

c)

Increase the dose of hydrochlorothiazide.

d)

Administer amiodarone and verapamil.

19.

A 72-year-old male with chronic heart failure on long-term digoxin therapy presents with palpitations. An electrocardiogram is obtained. Among the various cardiac arrhythmias induced by digoxin, which is considered the most specific for its toxicity?

a)

Non-paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with atrioventricular block

b)

Ventricular bigeminy

c)

First-degree atrioventricular block

d)

 Atrial flutter with variable block

20.

A 45-year-old male with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted with fever, productive cough with foul-smelling sputum, and night sweats. A chest radiograph reveals a cavitary lesion with an air-fluid level in the superior segment of the right lower lobe. Empiric therapy is initiated, but two weeks later, he develops profuse, watery diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and leukocytosis. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible for this new complication?


a)

Clindamycin

b)

Quinupristin/Dalfopristin

c)

 Metronidazole

d)

Linezolid

21.

Among the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics, several agents are known to cause phototoxicity. Which of the following agents possesses the highest propensity for inducing severe photosensitivity reactions, making patient counseling on sun avoidance critically important during therapy?


a)

Sparfloxacin


b)

Levofloxacin

c)

Moxifloxacin

d)

Ofloxacin

22.

A 42-year-old male is diagnosed with cavitary pulmonary tuberculosis. His drug susceptibility testing (DST) report confirms resistance to both isoniazid and rifampicin. His medical history is significant for a severe community-acquired pneumonia 18 months ago, which was treated with a 10-day course of levofloxacin. He is otherwise healthy with no other comorbidities. Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial therapeutic regimen for this patient?

a)

An 18-20 month all-oral long regimen containing Bedaquiline, Levofloxacin, Clofazimine, and Cycloserine

b)

 A 9-11 month shorter MDR/RR regimen (intensive phase: Bedaquiline, H, Z, E, Lf, Clf, Eto)

c)

Standard first-line therapy with a 2-month intensive phase (HRZE) followed by a 4-month continuation phase (HRE)

d)

 Monotherapy with Bedaquiline for 6 months followed by regimen reassessment based on sputum conversion

23.

An isolate from a patient with a previously failed tuberculosis treatment regimen is subjected to molecular drug susceptibility testing. The results indicate resistance to rifampicin, isoniazid, moxifloxacin, and bedaquiline. According to the most recent WHO classifications, how is this resistance pattern best defined?

a)

 Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB)

b)

Pre-extensively drug-resistant TB (Pre-XDR TB)

c)

Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB)

d)

Rifampicin-resistant TB (RR-TB)

24.

According to the provided treatment guidelines for a 60 kg non-pregnant adult with uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria, which of the following accurately describes a component of the standard 3-day Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT) regimen?

a)

A single dose of Primaquine 45 mg is administered on Day 2

b)

A single dose of Sulfadoxine-Pyrimethamine 1500mg/75mg is administered on Day 2

c)

Artesunate 200 mg is administered as a single dose on Day 1 only

d)

Primaquine 15 mg is administered daily for 14 days for radical cure

25.

A 35-year-old architect is initiated on first-line antiretroviral therapy consisting of Tenofovir, Lamivudine, and Efavirenz (TLE). Two months into treatment, he reports to his physician with complaints of intensely vivid dreams, daytime somnolence, and an unsettling feeling of "disconnection," which is severely hampering his ability to design and concentrate. Which component of his regimen is the most probable cause of these occupational-disrupting symptoms?

a)

 Efavirenz

b)

Tenofovir + Lamivudine

c)

Dolutegravir

d)

Atazanavir

26.

A 58-year-old male with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of severe right-sided facial pain, headache, and blood-tinged nasal discharge. On examination, he is febrile and has a prominent black necrotic eschar on his right middle nasal turbinate. A biopsy of the lesion is sent for histopathological examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intravenous therapy?


a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Voriconazole

c)

 Fluconazole

d)

Metronidazole

27.

A 45-year-old female diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia is scheduled to receive an induction chemotherapy regimen containing an anthracycline. The clinical team is concerned about the potential for cumulative, dose-dependent cardiotoxicity. Which of the following agents can be co-administered to specifically mitigate this risk?

a)

 Dexrazoxane

b)

 Mesna

c)

Leucovorin

d)

Filgrastim

28.

A 68-year-old male with a history of myasthenia gravis is being treated for a complicated urinary tract infection caused by a multidrug-resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Two days into intravenous antibiotic therapy, he develops acute worsening of ptosis and respiratory distress, requiring mechanical ventilation. An alternative antibiotic class that shares the same primary ribosomal subunit target as the likely causative agent is ?

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Macrolides

c)

Lincosamides

d)

 Fluoroquinolones

29.

A 62-year-old male with a history of recurrent gouty arthritis and metabolic syndrome is found to have mixed hyperlipidemia. His physician plans to add a second agent to his statin therapy, primarily to raise his HDL-C. Which of the following agents is most likely to exacerbate his underlying joint condition?

a)

Niacin

b)

Fenofibrate

c)

Colesevelam

d)

Ezetimibe

30.

Which of the following antiplatelet agents exerts its effect through a mechanism that is independent of cell surface receptor antagonism and is functionally irreversible for the lifespan of the platelet?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Ticagrelor

c)

Eptifibatide

d)

Vorapaxar