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Chapter 15

Total questions: 33

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When should the EMS secondary assessment typically be initiated during patient care?

a)

Immediately upon arrival at the scene

b)

Only if the patient requests more testing

c)

After scene size-up and primary assessment

d)

Only after transporting to the hospital

2.

Match each patient category to its defining characteristic.

a)

Medical patient

1.

Has one or more medical diseases or conditions

b)

Trauma patient

2.

Suffers from one or more physical injuries

c)

Unknown patient

3.

Has a problem of indeterminate nature

3.

Which component of the secondary assessment primarily uses inspection, palpation, and listening to identify injuries and abnormalities?

a)

Reassessment during ongoing care

b)

Vital signs by monitoring devices

c)

Patient history through interview questions

d)

Physical examination by sensory techniques

4.

Match each term with its best description.

a)

History of present illness (HPI)

1.

Current complaint details from patient

b)

Past medical history (PMH)

2.

Previous diagnoses and medications

c)

Sign

3.

Objective finding observable by provider

d)

Symptom

4.

Subjective experience reported by patient

5.

An awake medical patient with no immediate life threats should be approached in what sequence to optimize information gathering?

a)

Obtain history first, then focused physical exam, then baseline vital signs

b)

Perform rapid physical exam, then transport, then obtain vitals later

c)

Take vital signs first, then complete head-to-toe exam, then history

d)

Begin reassessment immediately, then history when time allows

6.

Match each history element in SAMPLE with its focus.

a)

Signs and symptoms

1.

Patient-reported and observed problems

b)

Allergies

2.

Substances causing reactions

c)

Medications

3.

Drugs currently taken or recent doses

d)

Pertinent past history

4.

Relevant diseases or prior events

7.

You are assessing a responsive patient with chest discomfort. Plan the first three prioritized steps of the secondary assessment.

a)

Take vital signs, apply oxygen, perform physical exam

b)

Elicit OPQRST, obtain SAMPLE, focus exam on cardiovascular

c)

Ask yes/no questions, check blood glucose, inspect abdomen

d)

Transport rapidly, call medical control, reassess airway

e)

Measure temperature, start IV, perform full head-to-toe

8.

Which sequence best describes the assessment order for an unresponsive medical patient?

a)

History then focused exam then vitals then transport

b)

Scene size-up then SAMPLE then OPQRST then transport

c)

Rapid exam then vitals then history then interventions

d)

Vitals then full history then focused exam then transport

9.

Match each specific complaint with the most critical physical exam focus.

a)

Shortness of breath

1.

Lung sounds, wheezing, work of breathing

b)

Chest pain or discomfort

2.

Blood pressure, pulse, jugular distention

c)

Mental status changes

3.

FAST assessment for stroke indicators

d)

Abdominal pain

4.

Inspect and palpate all quadrants

10.

During the rapid physical exam of an unresponsive patient, which regions must be assessed to complete a head-to-toe survey?

a)

Neck and pelvis only

b)

Head, chest, abdomen only

c)

Head, neck, chest, abdomen, extremities, posterior

d)

Extremities and posterior only

11.

You encounter an adult with altered mental status and diabetes history. Which additional check is most appropriate during the physical exam?

a)

Pulse oximetry for oxygen saturation

b)

Pedal edema inspection

c)

Blood glucose monitoring for hypoglycemia

d)

Jugular venous distention evaluation

12.

In the primary assessment of an unresponsive medical patient, which action should occur first when establishing priorities? Refer to the diagram showing gloved hands managing airway equipment.

a)

Begin transport while notifying the hospital

b)

Open airway, provide suction, and apply adjuncts

c)

Obtain history and perform body systems exam

d)

Check pulse and assess skin signs for shock

13.

Match each assessment step with its correct timing or focus, using the visual guide details.

a)

Reassessment

1.

Every 5 minutes if unstable; 15 minutes if stable

b)

Secondary assessment—responsive

2.

History first; targeted body systems exams

c)

Transport

3.

Timing, priority, destination based on condition

14.

During a rapid physical exam of an unresponsive patient, which finding at the neck most directly suggests compromised venous return and possible increased intrathoracic pressure?

a)

Jugular vein distention

b)

Subcutaneous emphysema palpation

c)

Carotid bruit on auscultation

d)

Midline trachea alignment

15.

You discover a bracelet with a Star of Life emblem and engraved condition while assessing a patient. What is the best next action to integrate this information into care?

a)

Document it after transport completes

b)

Remove it to prevent tourniquet effect

c)

Alert receiving staff and relate the condition

d)

Ignore it unless the patient is conscious

16.

During the secondary assessment of a responsive medical patient, which sequence best reflects the correct order of actions?

a)

Take baseline vitals, interview bystanders, then perform full exam

b)

Obtain history, examine affected body parts, then baseline vitals

c)

Interview family first, then perform exam, then take vitals

d)

Perform head-to-toe exam, then take baseline vitals, then history

17.

You arrive to find an unresponsive medical patient. What is the most appropriate initial focus of the secondary assessment?

a)

Transport immediately without any assessment

b)

Extensive bystander interviews before exam

c)

Rapid physical exam and baseline vital signs

d)

Detailed head-to-toe exam with neuro testing

18.

Match each step to the patient priority category during secondary assessment.

a)

Determine chief complaint and history of present illness

1.

Low-priority minor injury

b)

Continue spinal precautions if indicated

2.

More seriously injured

c)

Perform rapid trauma assessment

3.

More seriously injured

d)

Obtain a past medical history

4.

Low-priority minor injury

19.

A bicyclist with an isolated wrist pain after a low-speed fall is alert and has normal vital signs. Which focused exam sequence best applies?

a)

Request advanced life support before any exam

b)

Perform head-to-toe rapid assessment immediately

c)

Immobilize full spine, then defer extremity exam

d)

Inspect wrist, palpate structures, assess neurovascular status

20.

In the primary assessment of a trauma patient, which sequence best focuses on immediate life threats?

a)

Circulation, breathing, airway, massive hemorrhage

b)

Breathing, airway, circulation, massive hemorrhage

c)

Massive hemorrhage, airway, breathing, circulation

d)

Airway, circulation, massive hemorrhage, breathing

21.

Match each trauma care action to its most appropriate phase shown in the visual guide.

a)

Provide c-spine stabilization as indicated

1.

Size up the scene

b)

Rapid head-to-toe exam for multiple injuries

2.

On-scene examination for serious injuries

c)

Notify the receiving hospital

3.

Communication phase

d)

Detailed reassessment while transporting

4.

En route care

22.

Which set best represents DCAP-BTLS when assessing trauma injuries during palpation and exposure?

a)

Dislocations, cuts, abrasions, pressure, bruises, tears, lesions, soreness

b)

Deformities, compressions, abrasions, perforations, blisters, tension, lesions, shock

c)

Deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures, burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling

d)

Distortions, contusions, abrasions, punctures, burns, tingling, lesions, stiffness

23.

During auscultation in trauma assessment, what is the primary purpose of listening over both sides of the chest?

a)

Identify heart murmurs and arrhythmias

b)

Compare for decreased or absent breath sounds

c)

Assess carotid bruits suggesting stenosis

d)

Detect bowel sounds indicating obstruction

24.

Match each examination technique to its main action in secondary assessment.

a)

Observation

1.

Visual symmetry, color, shape, movement

b)

Palpation

2.

Feeling for tenderness, texture, temperature

c)

Auscultation

3.

Listening with stethoscope for breath sounds

25.

Which step ensures a cervical collar does not hyperextend the neck during sizing?

a)

Align the occiput in neutral alignment

b)

Position the chin piece below the mandible

c)

Preload posterior panel before application

d)

Measure collar so chin piece stays level

26.

Sequence the steps for applying an adjustable cervical collar to a seated patient.

a)

Stabilize head and neck from rear

1.

First step

b)

Angle collar properly for placement

2.

Second step

c)

Position the collar around neck

3.

Third step

d)

Begin securing the collar straps

4.

Fourth step

27.

For a supine patient, which action must continue throughout collar application to prevent worsening spinal injury?

a)

Compress the collar for tighter fit

b)

Rotate the head to align midline

c)

Maintain manual stabilization throughout

d)

Perform head tilt–chin lift continuously

28.

During rapid trauma assessment of the head and face, what additional finding beyond wounds, tenderness, and deformities warrants urgent concern?

a)

Presence of nasal hair abrasion only

b)

No drainage from ears or nose

c)

Crepitation of facial bones on palpation

d)

Equal and reactive pupils throughout

29.

Match each body region step with the corresponding specific check in rapid trauma assessment.

a)

Ears

1.

Drainage of blood or clear fluid

b)

Neck

2.

Jugular vein distention and crepitation

c)

Chest

3.

Auscultate breath sounds and parity

30.

A child falls from a height just over 10 feet. Which statement best reflects field triage significance compared with adults?

a)

Lower threshold due to smaller size

b)

Not significant unless ejection occurs

c)

Higher threshold because bones are flexible

d)

Same threshold height as adult falls

31.

Calling 911 is which part of the 'Chain of Survival"?

a)

Step 1

b)

Step 2

c)

Step 3

d)

Step 4

e)

Step 5

32.

Where do you administer an epipen?

a)

Between the knee and foot.

b)

Between the hip and knee.

c)

Between the elbow and the hand.

d)

Between the shoulder and the elbow.

33.

The three "C"s for a medical emergency are....

a)

Care, Call and Check

b)

Control, Call and Care

c)

Check, Call and Care

d)

Call, Care and Check