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Module 11/1

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with.

a)

Ailerons

b)

Rudder

c)

Elevators

2.

If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?

a)

To the centre

b)

To the right

c)

To the left

3.

If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?

a)

Down

b)

Up

c)

Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation

4.

When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?

a)

To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts

b)

To re-energise the boundary layer

c)

To increase the lift

5.

An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be.

a)

Moved up causing the left aileron to move up.

b)

Moved up causing the left aileron to move down.

c)

Moved down causing the left aileron to move down.

6.

The purpose of a slot in a wing is to.

a)

Speed up the airflow and increase lift.

b)

Act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.

c)

Provide housing for the slat.

7.

Large flap deployment.

a)

Has no effect on spanwise flow.

b)

Causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface.

c)

Causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.

8.

To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are.

a)

Installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.

b)

Installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.

c)

Installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.

9.

Ailerons control the aircraft in the.

a)

Longitudinal plane.

b)

Directional plane.

c)

Lateral plane.

10.

An anti-balance tab is used.

a)

For trimming the aircraft.

b)

To give more feel to the controls.

c)

To relieve stick loads.

11.

If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?.

a)

Up to move elevator up.

b)

Down to move elevator up.

c)

Up to move elevator down.

12.

Zone 320 under the ATA system is.

a)

Horizontal stabiliser.

b)

Vertical stabiliser.

c)

Central fuselage.

13.

How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?

a)

Earthing Strap.

b)

Bonding Strip.

c)

Special paint.

14.

Tension is the stress of.

a)

Elongating or stretch.

b)

Crush or compression.

c)

Twisting.

15.

A Fuselage Station is a.

a)

Lateral point on aircraft wing.

b)

Lateral point on aircraft fuse.

c)

Longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage.

16.

ATA Zone 100 is.

a)

Upper fuselage.

b)

Left-hand wing.

c)

Lower fuselage.

17.

Which of the following is an example of a failsafe structure?

a)

Longeron

b)

Spar

c)

Stringer

18.

In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by.

a)

Stringers

b)

Bulkheads

c)

Frames

19.

A structural member intended to resist compression is a.

a)

Tie

b)

Strut

c)

Web

20.

Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?

a)

Semi-monocoque.

b)

Truss type.

c)

Monocoque.

21.

What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?

a)

Aluminum alloys.

b)

Magnesium alloys.

c)

Ferrous alloys.

22.

Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:

a)

According to AMM and SRM chapter 51.

b)

According to SB instructions.

c)

According to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC.

23.

r levelling compound is installed during structure repair:

a)

According to AMM and SRM chapter 51.

b)

According to SB instructions.

c)

According to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC.

24.

In pressurized aircraft, undercarriage bays.

a)

Are unpressurised

b)

May be pressurized or unpressurised.

c)

Are pressurized

25.

The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called.

a)

Frames

b)

Longerons

c)

Spars

26.

Windshields are heated to.

a)

Maintain strength and toughness only.

b)

Prevent misting and icing only.

c)

Demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness

27.

If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft windscreen, its ability to withstand impact will.

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Not change

28.

A plug type window is fitted.

a)

From the outside

b)

From either side

c)

From the inside

29.

Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the.

a)

Frames

b)

Stringers

c)

Longerons

30.

Wing bending and shear loads are taken by.

a)

Spar cap

b)

Skin

c)

Main spar

31.

On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?

a)

Milled stringers.

b)

The position of the spars.

c)

Ribs.

32.

In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air supply is provided by.

a)

The compressor of the gas turbine engine

b)

The gas turbine exhaust.

c)

The engine exhaust heat.

33.

In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is.

a)

Reasonably constant irrespective of altitude

b)

Constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes.

c)

Variable, depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector.

34.

The purpose of a mass flow controller is to.

a)

Ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times

b)

Allow pilot to select the desired cabin altitude.

c)

Ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at all altitudes.

35.

A refrigerant is used in which of the following?

a)

Air cycle machine

b)

Pneumatic pump

c)

Vapour cycle

36.

A water separator is located.

a)

Upstream of the turbine.

b)

Downstream of heat exchanger.

c)

Downstream of turbine.

37.

Air conditioning systems.

a)

Decrease the temperature of air.

b)

Increase and decrease the temperature of air.

c)

Increase the temperature of air.

38.

An air cycle machine turbine.

a)

Drives compressor to increase temperature.

b)

Drives compressor to pressurise aircraft.

c)

Drives compressor to decrease temperature.

39.

An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to.

a)

Reduce the air supply temperature.

b)

Provide an emergency ram air supply.

c)

Increase the air supply temperature.

40.

Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by.

a)

Controlling the water vapour in the supply.

b)

Varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger.

c)

Regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.

41.

In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by.

a)

Varying cabin pressure.

b)

Extracting heat from the pressurising air.

c)

Adding heat to the pressurising air.

42.

A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by.

a)

Reducing pressure and driving the units compressor.

b)

Driving the units compressor.

c)

Reducing pressure.

43.

Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from.

a)

Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from.

b)

Air supply heated by the pressurising process.

c)

Driving the units compressor.

44.

A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by.

a)

Directing compressed air into a heat exchanger.

b)

Air supply to the cabin.

c)

Expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.

45.

In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling air is.

a)

Ram air from ambient conditions

b)

Air bled directly from engine or through blower

c)

Bled from cabin air supply duct

46.

Conditioned air is.

a)

Oxygen added

b)

Moisture removed

c)

Temperature and pressure adjusted

47.

An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to.

a)

Maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes.

b)

Ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression.

c)

Ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure, thus increasing the fatigue life of the fuselage.

48.

In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is removed from the charge air by.

a)

Reducing the pressure of a vapour.

b)

Changing a vapour into a liquid.

c)

Changing a liquid into a vapour.

49.

The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by.

a)

Engine bleed air or blower air.

b)

Air bled from the main cabin supply duct.

c)

Ambient ram air.

50.

The effective temperature of a cabin is given by.

a)

Temperature, humidity, thermal inertia and heat load.

b)

Temperature only.

c)

Temperature and humidity.

51.

When dissipating heat in a vapour cycle system

a)

Vapour converts to a liquid

b)

The liquid sublimates

c)

Liquid converts to a vapour

52.

As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin altitude must?

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Stay the same

53.

The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant.

a)

Inlet and outlet

b)

Inlet and vary the outlet

c)

Outlet and vary the inlet

54.

On touch-down of aircraft

a)

The outflow valve will be shut

b)

The cabin pressure will be zero

c)

The outflow valve will be fully open

55.

In the flightdeck of a pressurised aircraft, there is a gauge that shows?

a)

Cabin pressure altitude

b)

Aircraft altitude

c)

Cabin differential pressure

56.

Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between ?

a)

8,000ft and standard barometric pressure

b)

Sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin

c)

The pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure

57.

Cabin pressure is maintained by

a)

Controlling the supply of air to the cabin

b)

Controlling the output of the compressor

c)

Controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin

58.

What are the main areas of the autopilot?

a)

Error, correction, demand, resolved.

b)

Error, correction, follow up, demand.

c)

Error, correction, follow up, command

59.

Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

3

60.

Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

3

61.

A Yaw Damper is:

a)

An elevator augmentor

b)

A rudder damper designed to avoid the "Dutch roll"

c)

A roll trim tab

62.

An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters.

a)

DME, ILS, ADF

b)

VOR, ILS

c)

RA, ADF, ILS

63.

A yaw damper receives error signals from:

a)

the turn coordinator rate gyro

b)

Vertical gyros

c)

Directional gyros

64.

Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned.

a)

on right side of control wheel

b)

on side of control wheel furthest from throttles

c)

on left side of control wheel

65.

Inputs to the rudder channels initially originate from:

a)

Compass gyro and gyro for AH

b)

AH gyro and turn and slip gyro

c)

Compass gyro and turn and slip gyro

66.

An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:

a)

right drift

b)

left drift

c)

zero drift

67.

Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?

a)

255 - 455 kHz

b)

200 - 1750 kHz

c)

300 - 3000 kHz

68.

In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

a)

signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials

b)

sense aerial must be tuned separately

c)

mode selector should be switched to "loop"

69.

The ADF reception loop is always used so that the electromotive force (EMF)

a)

induced is zero

b)

induced is maximum

c)

is zero

70.

A loop aerial, as used in the ADF, will

a)

Always rotate at constant speed before locking on to a signal from an NDB

b)

Will provide the most accurate bearing when it is aligned in the direction resulting in highest signal strength to the ADF receiver

c)

Receive a minimum or null signal from a transmitter when the plane of the loop is at right angles to the direction of the transmitter

71.

Of the bearing indicators available for use on ADFs, the most sophisticated one is:

a)

The Relative Bearing Indicator

b)

The Radio Magnetic Indicator

c)

The Deviation Indicator

72.

SATCOM is used to.

a)

Monitor aircraft

b)

Relay transmissions to and from the aircraft

c)

Determine the position of the aircraft

73.

121.5 MHz is what frequency?

a)

VOR

b)

VHF

c)

ILS

74.

Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?

a)

HF

b)

VHF

c)

VHF and UHF

75.

Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band

a)

75 KHz

b)

50 KHz

c)

25 KHz

76.

VHF frequency is.

a)

108 - 136.975 MHz

b)

108 - 112 MHz.

c)

108 - 118 MHz.

77.

A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for ?

a)

weather radar.

b)

marker beacons.

c)

HF communications

78.

Service interphone system allows

a)

communication between the flight deck and some areas on the aircraft

b)

communication to other aircraft

c)

Communication to ATC

79.

Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?

a)

Machmeter

b)

VSI

c)

ASI

80.

In a Air Data Computer (ADC) system, Mach information is derived from.

a)

pitot and static pressures

b)

indicated airspeed and altitude

c)

indicated air speed and total air temperature

81.

In a Air Data Computer, altitude is produced from.

a)

static air pressure

b)

pitot air pressure and total air temperature

c)

pitot air pressure

82.

In a Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from.

a)

static pressure only

b)

pitot pressure only

c)

pitot and static air pressure

83.

A machmeter works.

a)

always

b)

always except on the ground

c)

above 10,000

84.

In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?

a)

QFE

b)

QNH

c)

1013.25

85.

The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the:

a)

static pressure

b)

total pressure

c)

total pressure plus static pressure

86.

A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s):

a)

altimeter only.

b)

airspeed indicator only

c)

vertical speed indicator only

87.

In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:

a)

higher than the true airspeed (TAS).

b)

independent of the true airspeed (TAS).

c)

equal to the true airspeed (TAS)

88.

What corrections must be applied to indicated airspeed to produce true airspeed?

a)

Correction for heading and altitude

b)

Correction for wind and temperature

c)

Correction for altitude and temperature

89.

Total air pressure consists of static pressure plus:

a)

Differential pressure.

b)

Total pressure.

c)

Dynamic pressure

90.

A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the.

a)

cells begin to gas freely

b)

SG and voltage remain constant for specified period

c)

SG reaches 1.180

91.

The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant.

a)

power

b)

voltage

c)

current

92.

To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators, phase A must be.

a)

90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC

b)

in-phase with other generators and ABC

c)

in-phase with other generators and CBA only

93.

A fuse-type current limiter

a)

limits current flow to a load

b)

can be used as a radio suppressor

c)

opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded.

94.

Voltage is controlled by.

a)

the constant speed drive

b)

the swashplate

c)

the voltage regulator

95.

In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation.

a)

must be out of phase prior to paralleling.

b)

is of no consequence after paralleling.

c)

must be synchronised prior to paralleling.

96.

The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by.

a)

an IDG

b)

a hydraulically actuated swash plate

c)

a CSD

97.

An AC generator used with a CSD.

a)

does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant.

b)

needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load.

c)

does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant.

98.

One of the main functions of the airline battery is to:

a)

Provide electric power for heating

b)

Be an emergency source of electric power

c)

Provide DC power for certain equipment

99.

Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be:

a)

used only in AC circuits.

b)

used only in DC circuits.

c)

used in AC and DC circuits

100.

The output voltage of DC generators used in aircraft is normally regulated by:

a)

Varying the RPM of the generator.

b)

Controlling the current in the armature (anker) windings.

c)

Controlling the current in the field windings

101.

Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will:

a)

change the direction of the excitation current.

b)

maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.

c)

increase the intensity of the excitation current

102.

The primary purpose of the reverse current relay is to:

a)

Prevent the generator from delivering current to the generator.

b)

Prevent the battery from delivering current to the generator.

c)

Prevent the generator from delivering too much current

103.

The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are:

a)

directly connected to the battery

b)

kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.

c)

automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed

104.

A bus-bar is:

a)

a distribution point for electrical power

b)

a device permitting operation of two or more switches together

c)

the stator of a moving coil instrument

105.

A static inverter is a:

a)

device for reversing the polarity of the static charge

b)

transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC

c)

static discharger

106.

If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the.

a)

CSD driveshaft had sheared

b)

phase sequence detection circuit has operated

c)

bus tie interlock is inoperative

107.

Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will

a)

increases and amperage output increases.

b)

remain constant and amperage output increases.

c)

decrease and amperage output increases.

108.

What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?

a)

Positive to battery relay

b)

Positive to external power relay

c)

Ground or earth

109.

How is RAT driven?

a)

Airstream

b)

Compressor

c)

Fan

110.

The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is:

a)

200 Hz

b)

50 Hz

c)

400 Hz

111.

When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system, the tripping circuit.

a)

trips after a time delay.

b)

trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude.

c)

trips at a set level.

112.

In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to.

a)

supply essential services.

b)

provide interconnection between the generator load busbars.

c)

provide a means of monitoring the load.

113.

The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the:

a)

oscillator

b)

stator

c)

rotor

114.

The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to :

a)

vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.

b)

vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.

c)

drive the generator at a constant speed.

115.

AC generator output indications are measured in.

a)

KVA & KW

b)

KW

c)

KW & KVAR

116.

In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system, how is power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?

a)

By power fed from static inverter only

b)

By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only

c)

By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter

117.

A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at :

a)

90°

b)

60°

c)

120°

118.

Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected:

a)

on the ground only.

b)

at flight idle engine rpm.

c)

during engine operation only

119.

A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring

a)

equal AC voltage from all generators.

b)

that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM

c)

that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.

120.

The specifications for emergency equipment requirements on any given aircraft are found in EASA issued airworthiness codes

a)

CS-23

b)

CS-25

c)

CS-33

121.

Some items regularly considered emergency equipment are:

a)

Life Rafts, Flashlights, Fire Axes …

b)

Life Vests, First Aid Kits, Water Boilers …

c)

Fire Axes, Ovens, Life Vests …