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MRI Knowledge Quiz

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary indication for MRI of the kidneys?

a)

Evaluation of liver lesions

b)

Evaluation of solid abdominal masses and cysts

c)

Assessment of adrenal glands

d)

Imaging of the pancreas

2.

Which patient preparation is crucial for MRI abdomen to minimize artifacts?

a)

Fasting for 6 hours

b)

Removal of all metal objects

c)

Administration of contrast agent

d)

Sedation for claustrophobic patients

3.

What is the purpose of the breath-hold (BH) technique in MRI abdomen?

a)

To minimize respiratory artifacts

b)

To enhance contrast uptake

c)

To increase spatial resolution

d)

To reduce scan time

4.

Which sequence is commonly used for MRA renal arteries?

a)

T2 HASTE

b)

T1 VIBE Dixon

c)

T1 FLASH-3D FAT SAT

d)

T2fs HASTE

5.

What is the optimal time to perform a breast MRI for pre-menopausal women?

a)

During menstruation

b)

1-2 weeks after the start of the menstrual cycle

c)

1-2 weeks before the start of the menstrual cycle

d)

No specific time required

6.

What is the primary reason for using a prone position in breast MRI?

a)

To minimize motion artifacts

b)

To enhance contrast uptake

c)

To increase spatial resolution

d)

To reduce scan time

7.

Which artifact is commonly encountered in breast MRI due to improper positioning?

a)

Chemical shift artifact

b)

Motion artifact

c)

Positioning artifact

d)

Dielectric artifact

8.

What is the significance of a Type 3 kinetic curve in breast MRI?

a)

High probability of being benign

b)

Intermediate probability of malignancy

c)

High probability of being malignant

d)

No significant meaning

9.

Why is it important to empty the bladder and bowel before an MRI of the pelvis?

a)

To make the patient more comfortable.

b)

To reduce blurring caused by movement artifacts.

c)

To speed up the scan time.

d)

To help the scanner find the right area.

10.

What is the main purpose of using a saturation band during a pelvic MRI scan?

a)

To make the images brighter.

b)

To reduce unwanted interference (artifacts) from blood vessels and bowel movement.

c)

To focus the magnetic field.

d)

To protect the patient from noise.

11.

When planning a scan for a suspected perianal fistula, which structure's alignment is most critical for correctly imaging the fistula tract?

a)

The patient's shoulder.

b)

The anal canal.

c)

The kidneys.

d)

The hip joints.

12.

A patient needs an MRI to look at their prostate gland. What is a key patient consideration mentioned to help get clear images?

a)

Wearing metal jewelry.

b)

Lying on their side.

c)

Taking medication to reduce bowel movement.

d)

Talking during the scan.

13.

In the context of female pelvic MRI, what is a primary reason for using T2-weighted sequences?

a)

To see calcium deposits clearly.

b)

To see how much blood is flowing to an organ.

c)

To get detailed pictures of soft tissues like the uterus and ovaries.

d)

To remove fat signal from the image.

14.

Which imaging sequence is often used in dynamic contrast-enhanced MRI of the female pelvis to monitor tissue enhancement over time?

a)

T2 STIR

b)

DWI (Diffusion Weighted Imaging)

c)

T1 VIBE

d)

Axial T2

15.

In MRI Chest protocols, where is the saturation band typically placed on the axial plane, and why is the phase direction often set from right to left?

a)

On the chest/lungs to minimize respiration artifacts; phase direction right to left to avoid motion from the chest & heart

b)

On the spine to minimize susceptibility artifacts; phase direction right to left to avoid motion from the liver

c)

On the shoulders to minimize motion from arm movement; phase direction right to left to avoid motion from the palmar muscles

d)

On the diaphragm to minimize respiratory motion; phase direction right to left to avoid motion from the intestines.

16.

For MRI Breast with silicone implants, which technique (specifically mentioned in the context for Siemens scanners) is used to suppress water signal, allowing fat to remain bright and silicone to be visualized?

a)

Fat-Saturation

b)

Water Saturation

c)

STIR

d)

T1-Weighted imaging

17.

When planning the Sagittal plane for MRI Sternum, the block must be parallel to the body of the sternum in the coronal plane and perpendicular to the sternum's body in the axial plane. What does this perpendicularity in the axial plane primarily align with?

a)

The clavicle

b)

The costal cartilages

c)

The vertebral bodies

d)

The xiphoid process

18.

In CMR ECG electrode placement (Philips example), why is the fourth (black) electrode positioned to the left of the top electrode near the axilla?

a)

To improve signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) for the apex.

b)

To better capture the electrical activity of the right ventricle.

c)

To act as a ground electrode.

d)

To monitor the left atrium specifically.

19.

When planning the Horizontal Long Axis (HLA) view in CMR, it must pass through the apex, the centre of the mitral valve, and what other specific structure defined in the context?

a)

The aortic valve

b)

The interventricular septum

c)

The centre of the left ventricular cavity

d)

The pulmonary valve

20.

For CMR evaluation of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), where is the characteristic location of LGE often found, correlating with disease progression?

a)

Subendocardial enhancement

b)

Mid-myocardial and/or subepicardial enhancement

c)

Diffuse transmural enhancement

d)

Right ventricular free wall enhancement

21.

Why is a Sagittal T2W sequence included in the routine MRI Sternum protocol but not in the routine MRI Clavicle protocol?

a)

To better visualize the sternoclavicular joint.

b)

To provide better anatomical orientation for the elongated sternum

c)

To assess retrosternal pathology

d)

To improve assessment of clavicular fractures.

22.

Why is kinetic analysis less reliable for non-mass enhancement in MRI Breast compared to mass enhancement?

a)

Non-mass enhancement lacks well-defined shape and margin

b)

The enhancement patterns (focal, linear, segmental, regional, diffuse) are more diagnostic

c)

Non-mass enhancement typically shows slower initial uptake

d)

Normal background enhancement significantly alters the curve.

23.

Which of the following is NOT a common indication for WB-MRI?

a)

Multiple myeloma

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Gallstones

d)

Ankylosing spondylitis

24.

What is a major advantage of WB-MRI over PET/CT?

a)

Higher metabolic sensitivity

b)

Use of ionizing radiation

c)

Better soft tissue contrast

d)

Shorter scan time

25.

Which sequence is primarily used in WB-MRI to assess tumor activity?

a)

T1 VIBE

b)

T2 HASTE

c)

Axial DWI (b0, b800)

d)

Coronal STIR

26.

What imaging technique is used to shorten scan time while maintaining image quality?

a)

STIR

b)

GRAPPA

c)

TIRM

d)

VIBE

27.

A hypointense lesion on T2_TIRM likely represents:

a)

Active tumor

b)

Bone marrow edema

c)

Sclerosis or chronic scar

d)

Inflammation

28.

What does hyperintensity on DWI and hypointensity on ADC suggest?

4 lines
29.

n on T2_TIRM likely represents:

a)

Active tumor

b)

Bone marrow edema

c)

Sclerosis or chronic scar

d)

Inflammation

30.

What does hyperintensity on DWI and hypointensity on ADC suggest?

a)

T2 shine-through

b)

Free diffusion

c)

True restricted diffusion

d)

Normal marrow

31.

In the water-only Dixon image, a bone metastasis typically appears:

a)

Hypointense

b)

Hyperintense

c)

Isointense

d)

Not visible

32.

What does a high fat fraction (>70%) indicate in bone marrow?

a)

Infection

b)

Malignant lesion

c)

Normal fat content

d)

Iron overload

33.

Which MRI phase is most useful for detecting arterial hyperenhancement in HCC?

a)

Portal venous phase

b)

Delayed phase

c)

Arterial phase

d)

Hepatobiliary phase

34.

Which contrast agent is hepatocyte-specific?

a)

Gadovist

b)

Dotarem

c)

MultiHance

d)

Primovist

35.

Which sequence best detects biliary anatomy without contrast?

a)

T1 VIBE

b)

DWI

c)

MRCP (T2-weighted)

d)

T2 FLAIR

36.

Which of the following reduces bowel motion during liver MRI?

a)

Sedation

b)

Buscopan

c)

Fasting for 12 hours

d)

Contrast agent

37.

Which of the following can improve fat suppression uniformity in WB-MRI?

a)

Use of STIR instead of fat-sat

b)

Increasing echo time

c)

Applying cardiac gating

d)

Reducing averages

38.

Which MRI sequence is most sensitive for early disease detection in bone marrow?

a)

T1-weighted Dixon

b)

T2 FLAIR

c)

T2 TIRM

d)

Gradient echo

39.

Which sequence is best for identifying cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) as bright signal?

a)

T1-weighted

b)

T2-weighted

c)

FLAIR

d)

DWI

40.

In T2-weighted images, which of the following appears brightest?

a)

Fat

b)

Muscle

c)

Fluid

d)

Air

41.

Which anatomical structure is NOT part of the neck's vascular system?

a)

Carotid artery

b)

Jugular vein

c)

Vertebral artery

d)

Cerebellum

42.

The Circle of Willis is primarily associated with:

a)

Bone structure

b)

Muscle layers

c)

Blood vessels

d)

Sinuses

43.

Which pathology shows hyperintensity on T2 and is suppressed on STIR?

a)

Lipoma

b)

Air

c)

Tumor

d)

Muscle

44.

What is the purpose of setting the phase encoding direction correctly in head and neck MRI?

a)

Increase scan time

b)

Reduce ghosting artifacts

c)

Improve fat signal

d)

Change slice thickness

45.

Which maneuver improves the visibility of the buccal mucosa in oral cavity tumors?

a)

Prone positioning

b)

Puff cheek technique

c)

Deep breathing

d)

Tapping the cheek

46.

In patients with eGFR < 30, what is the safest contrast recommendation?

a)

Linear GBCA

b)

No precautions

c)

Avoid GBCA unless essential; use macrocyclic only

d)

Use contrast without consent

47.

Which technique helps reduce motion artifacts during neck scans?

a)

Short TE

b)

Large FOV

c)

Padding and patient instruction

d)

High flip angle

48.

What does SAR (Specific Absorption Rate) represent in MRI?

a)

Contrast volume

b)

Noise level

c)

Rate of RF energy absorbed by the body

d)

Signal average ratio

49.

Which of the following is a contraindication for MRI brain?

a)

Titanium aneurysm clips

b)

Cochlear implant

c)

Dental fillings

d)

Sinus infection

50.

What coil is commonly used in MRI brain imaging?

a)

Cardiac coil

b)

Head and neck coil

c)

Surface coil

d)

Body array coil

51.

Which patient positioning landmark aligns with the horizontal laser for MRI brain?

a)

Sternal notch

b)

Nasion

c)

Glabella

d)

Mental point

52.

What is the role of a chaperone in MRI scanning?

a)

Operate the MRI machine

b)

Interpret the images

c)

Support claustrophobic patients

d)

Insert contrast agent

53.

Which of the following is not a standard plain sequence in routine MRI brain protocol?

a)

T1W axial

b)

T2W axial

c)

STIR axial

d)

DWI axial

54.

Which MRI sequence is specifically useful for detecting restricted diffusion (e.g., stroke)?

a)

T1W

b)

FLAIR

c)

DWI

d)

SWI

55.

Which protocol is best suited for evaluating multiple sclerosis (MS)?

a)

Stroke protocol

b)

Dementia protocol

c)

Demyelinating protocol

d)

Orbit protocol

56.

In the epilepsy protocol, which plane is used to evaluate the temporal lobe?

a)

Axial only

b)

Sagittal midline

c)

Coronal oblique

d)

Transverse

57.

The SWI (Susceptibility Weighted Imaging) sequence is helpful in detecting:

a)

CSF leak

b)

Edema

c)

Microbleeds or calcification

d)

Bone fractures

58.

Which structure is located in the midline and seen in sagittal planning?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Lateral ventricles

c)

Splenium of corpus callosum

d)

Temporal lobe

59.

In IAM imaging, the 3D CISS sequence is primarily used to evaluate:

a)

Middle cerebral artery

b)

Cochlear nerve and internal auditory canal

c)

Ventricles

d)

Frontal sinus

60.

To prevent claustrophobia during MRI scanning, which of the following is recommended?

a)

Give antihistamines

b)

Use a closed MRI tunnel

c)

Provide mirror or headphones

d)

Increase scan time

61.

fMRI primarily detects brain activity through:

a)

Structural changes

b)

Nerve impulse transmission

c)

BOLD signal (Blood Oxygen Level Dependent)

d)

EEG data fusion

62.

What enables parallel imaging to reduce scan time?

a)

Using higher magnetic fields

b)

Multiple receiver coils capturing data simultaneously

c)

Lowering image resolution

d)

Contrast-enhanced techniques

63.

Compressed sensing in MRI relies on:

a)

Oversampling k-space

b)

Undersampling and sparse image reconstruction

c)

Using multiple receiver coils

d)

Contrast agents to shorten T1

64.

Time-of-Flight (TOF) MRA is most effective in:

a)

Imaging soft tissues

b)

High-velocity blood flow in intracranial vessels

c)

Detecting bone fractures

d)

Low-resolution screening

65.

What does DTI (Diffusion Tensor Imaging) measure?

a)

Blood volume

b)

Anisotropic water diffusion along white matter tracts

c)

Cortical atrophy

d)

Oxygen metabolism

66.

ASL (Arterial Spin Labeling) differs from other perfusion techniques by:

a)

Using contrast agents

b)

Being invasive

c)

Magnetically labeling arterial blood without contrast

d)

Measuring structural properties only

67.

Referring to the MRI Cervical Spine examination, where should the laser beam localizer be centered on the patient?

a)

Over the mid-chest

b)

Over the mid-abdomen

c)

Over the mid-neck (2.5cm below the chin in chin-down position)

d)

Over the sternum

68.

What is a common artifact encountered in MRI Cervical Spine examinations that can be avoided by placing a saturation band in front of the esophagus?

a)

Truncation artifact

b)

CSF flow artifact

c)

Swallowing artifacts

d)

Cross-talk artifact

69.

For an MRI Lumbar Spine examination, where should the laser beam localizer be centered?

a)

Over the mid-chest

b)

Over the mid-abdomen (4 inches above the iliac crest)

c)

Over the mid-neck

d)

Over the sternum

70.

What type of sequence is used after contrast to highlight bone metastases in MRI Lumbar Spine?

a)

T2W

b)

T1W

c)

T1FAT SAT

d)

T2 STIR