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CNRN Exam 2 Part 5

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The definitive treatment for a high-flow spinal arteriovenous fistula is:

a)

Steroids only

b)

Endovascular embolization or surgical ligation of feeding arteries

c)

Chronic anticoagulation

d)

Physical therapy alone

2.

Low-back pain referrals should include all EXCEPT:

a)

Weight-bearing X-rays if red-flag signs are present

b)

Early MRI for any chronic pain > 2 weeks

c)

Discogram only for surgical planning

d)

Conservative management for most acute pain

3.

Which is a primary brain injury?

a)

Cerebral edema from hypoxia

b)

Subdural hematoma from torn bridging veins at impact

c)

Ischemia from hypotension hours later

d)

Neurotoxicity from free radicals

4.

A GCS of 7 after resuscitation indicates:

a)

Mild TBI

b)

Moderate TBI

c)

Severe TBI

d)

Concussion only

5.

The leading cause of TBI in people over 65 in the U.S. is:

a)

Motor vehicle crashes

b)

Falls

c)

Sports injuries

d)

Assault

6.

Coup-contrecoup contusions result from:

a)

Rotational forces only

b)

Direct impact and rebound-impact injuries

c)

Penetrating trauma

d)

Post-traumatic seizures

7.

An epidural hematoma typically arises from:

a)

Tearing of bridging veins

b)

Rupture of the middle meningeal artery

c)

Cavernoma bleed

d)

Dural venous sinus tear

8.

The classic “talk-and-die” lucid interval occurs in:

a)

Acute SDH

b)

EDH

c)

SAH

d)

Contusion

9.

Diffuse axonal injury is best detected by:

a)

Noncontrast CT

b)

Conventional MRI

c)

Diffusion-tensor MRI

d)

Angiography

10.

Initial management in severe TBI includes maintaining PaO₂ > 100 mmHg and PaCO₂:

a)

< 25 mmHg

b)

25–35 mmHg

c)

35–45 mmHg

d)

45 mmHg

11.

ICP monitoring is indicated when GCS ≤ 8 PLUS:

a)

Normal head CT

b)

Age < 40 and stable vitals

c)

Abnormal CT or two risk factors (e.g., older than 40, SBP < 90)

d)

Single focal deficit only

12.

For ICP > 20 mmHg, first-tier interventions include all EXCEPT:

a)

Elevate the head to 30°

b)

Neutral neck alignment

c)

Mannitol or hypertonic saline

d)

Barbiturate coma

13.

Prolonged prophylactic hyperventilation (PaCO₂ < 25 mmHg) in TBI:

a)

Improves long-term outcome

b)

Risks cerebral ischemia

c)

It is recommended for the first 48 hours

d)

Reduces ICP without risk

14.

Fever after TBI worsens outcome by:

a)

Increasing CMRO₂ and ICP

b)

Lowering PaO₂

c)

Raising seizure threshold

d)

Reducing cerebral blood volume

15.

The Bedside Shivering Assessment Scale (BSAS) grade 3 indicates:

a)

No shivering

b)

Mild, neck/torso only

c)

Moderate, upper limbs

d)

Severe, whole-body

16.

VTE prophylaxis in acute TBI should include:

a)

Early LMWH plus pneumatic compression

b)

No prophylaxis until day 14

c)

IPC devices only

d)

IVC filter in all cases

17.

Paroxysmal sympathetic hyperactivity (“storming”) presents with all EXCEPT:

a)

Intermittent hypertension

b)

Bradypnea

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Hyperthermia

18.

Post-concussion syndrome lasting > 3 months is best managed by:

a)

High-dose steroids

b)

Cognitive and vestibular rehabilitation

c)

No treatment—prognosis is poor

d)

Immediate re-imaging every week

19.

Second-impact syndrome refers to:

a)

Re-bleeding of a contusion at day 2

b)

Rapid, fatal cerebral edema after the second concussion, before full recovery

c)

New hemorrhage from an anticoagulated stroke patient

d)

Late seizure recurrence

20.

Decompressive craniectomy in refractory intracranial hypertension:

a)

Does not affect the outcome

b)

Lowers mortality but increases severe disability

c)

Is contraindicated

d)

Works immediately as an osmotic agent

21.

The fracture pattern characterized by failure of the posterior elements under axial load and retropulsion of bone into the canal is a:

a)

Compression (wedge) fracture

b)

Burst fracture

c)

Flexion–distraction fracture

d)

Fracture-dislocation

22.

A flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) most often results from:

a)

High-speed head-on MVC with lap belt restraint

b)

Hyperextension from a rear-end collision

c)

A fall onto the buttocks

d)

Rotational torque in sports injury

23.

In the initial prehospital management of suspected spine injury, the priority is to:

a)

Log-roll onto a backboard, then apply a cervical collar

b)

Secure airway, breathing, and circulation, then maintain immobilization

c)

Splint femur fractures to prevent movement

d)

Obtain radiographs in the field

24.

Neurogenic shock from a high cervical injury is characterized by all EXCEPT:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Warm, dry skin

d)

Edema and third-spacing

25.

Spinal shock is best defined as:

a)

Hypotension and bradycardia from cord transection

b)

Temporary loss of all spinal reflexes below the lesion

c)

Permanent autonomic dysfunction after injury

d)

Secondary hemorrhagic cord swelling

26.

The ASIA Impairment Scale “B” means:

a)

Normal motor and sensory function

b)

Sensory preservation only, no motor function below the injury

c)

Some motor function is preserved below the level, but not functional

d)

Complete motor but no sensory preservation

27.

Definitive surgical decompression of a central cord syndrome is indicated when:

a)

The patient can walk independently

b)

Bony fragments or hematoma compress the cord

c)

There is only transient sensory loss

d)

The patient has peripheral neuropathy

28.

Which immobilization device allows early mobilization in a mid-cervical fracture?

a)

Philadelphia collar

b)

Halo vest

c)

Rigid Minerva brace

d)

Halter traction

29.

Autonomic dysreflexia may be triggered by all EXCEPT:

a)

Bladder distention

b)

Fecal impaction

c)

Lower extremity fracture

d)

Intravenous crystalloid bolus

30.

The key nursing maneuver to turn a patient with an unstable spine injury is:

a)

Two-person pivot roll

b)

Log-roll with three or more staff

c)

Use of the trapeze bar

d)

Lift-and-shift method

31.

Deep-vein thrombosis prophylaxis in a patient with high-level SCI should include:

a)

Early low-molecular-weight heparin plus compression boots

b)

Compression boots only—no drugs

c)

No prophylaxis until ambulation

d)

Warfarin with a goal INR 1.5

32.

A C7 quadriplegic patient develops new spasticity and severe headache when repositioned. The nurse should suspect:

a)

Autonomic dysreflexia

b)

Spinal shock

c)

Neurogenic fever

d)

Orthostatic hypotension

33.

A patient who fell asleep with her arm over a chair reports wrist drop upon waking. Motor exam shows inability to extend the wrist but intact triceps function. Which nerve lesion is most likely?

a)

Radial nerve at the spiral groove

b)

Posterior interosseous nerve

c)

C6 root avulsion

d)

Ulnar nerve at the elbow

34.

Which peripheral nerve injury classification is characterized by focal demyelination without axonal disruption and rapid, full recovery?

a)

Neurapraxia

b)

Axonotmesis

c)

Neurotmesis

d)

Neuroma

35.

The “rule of threes” for open nerve injuries states that clean transections should be repaired within:

a)

24 hours

b)

3 days

c)

3 weeks

d)

3 months

36.

Erb–Duchenne palsy features paralysis of C5–C6 roots. The characteristic posture is:

a)

Clawing of the hand

b)

Upper arm adducted and internally rotated, elbow extended (“waiter’s tip”)

c)

Wrist drop

d)

Foot drop

37.

In Klumpke palsy (C8–T1 lesion), you expect:

a)

Wrist drop

b)

Weak shoulder abduction

c)

Claw hand with interossei paralysis

d)

Loss of biceps reflex

38.

A positive Tinel’s test at the wrist and numbness in the thumb, index, and middle fingertips suggest:

a)

Ulnar tunnel syndrome

b)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

c)

Guyon’s canal syndrome

d)

Pronator teres syndrome

39.

Which feature helps distinguish pronator teres syndrome from carpal tunnel?

a)

Nighttime hand numbness

b)

Thenar muscle atrophy

c)

Negative Phalen’s test

d)

Positive Tinel’s at the wrist

40.

Anterior interosseous nerve palsy causes:

a)

Loss of pinch between thumb and index finger (inability to make OK sign)

b)

Hypothenar atrophy

c)

Thenar muscle weakness

d)

Sensory loss over the wrist

41.

In cubital tunnel syndrome (ulnar neuropathy at the elbow), which sign is expected?

a)

Abducted little finger at rest (“Wartenberg’s sign”)

b)

Foot drop

c)

Wrist drop

d)

Loss of biceps reflex

42.

Guyon’s canal syndrome spares sensation on the dorsum of the hand because:

a)

Only pure motor fibers are compressed

b)

The dorsal sensory branch arises proximal to the canal

c)

The ulnar nerve divides distal to the wrist

d)

The radial nerve compensates

43.

Posterior interosseous syndrome presents with:

a)

Finger extension weakness without wrist drop

b)

Sensory loss over the anterolateral thigh

c)

Loss of thumb opposition

d)

Carpal tunnel check

44.

The first-line treatment for mild carpal tunnel is:

a)

Night-time wrist splinting

b)

Immediate surgical release

c)

High-dose steroids

d)

Oral anticoagulation

45.

A C7 quadriplegic who develops severe headache, profuse sweating, and bradycardia when repositioned likely has:

a)

Autonomic dysreflexia

b)

Spinal shock

c)

Neurogenic fever

d)

Orthostatic hypotension

46.

In meralgia paresthetica, entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve causes:

a)

Burning pain and numbness over the anterolateral thigh

b)

Foot drop

c)

Weak hip flexion

d)

Paraesthesias in the calf

47.

Neurofibromatosis type 1 is diagnosed when a patient has two or more of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Six café-au-lait spots > 15 mm in adults

b)

Two or more Lisch nodules

c)

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas

d)

Two or more neurofibromas of any type

48.

The WHO grade IV astrocytoma is called:

a)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

b)

Anaplastic astrocytoma

c)

Glioblastoma multiforme

d)

Diffuse astrocytoma

49.

A solitary, dural-based, enhancing intracranial mass in a 50-year-old woman most likely is a:

a)

Oligodendroglioma

b)

Meningioma

c)

Ependymoma

d)

Medulloblastoma

50.

Which primary tumor in adults most often metastasizes to the brain?

a)

Breast carcinoma

b)

Prostate carcinoma

c)

Pancreatic carcinoma

d)

Colon carcinoma