WorksheetsH5Ps
Total questions: 202
Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What sytsems use a Central Processing Unit (CPU) and memory?
a)
All types of computers
b)
Servers only
c)
Laptops only
d)
Desktops only
2.
What type of computer is most likely to need peripheral devices?
a)
Desktop
b)
Laptop
c)
Server
d)
Smartphone
3.
What type of computer is best suited for using in a job where you have to make notes and be able to move around easily?
a)
A tablet or smartphone or possibly a hybrid laptop/tablet.
b)
A server that is mounted on a cart for easier mobility.
c)
Gaming console with voice activated commands.
d)
Desktop computer with an electronic stylus.
4.
Which is a true statement regarding whether or not laptops make good servers?
a)
There are limited options for expansion, and its components are not practical for network-wide use cases.
b)
Their size and weight make them perfect for a server rack, and this allows for better cooling.
c)
Their redundancy makes them reliable, particularly during power outages.
d)
Their mobility allows for more flexibility in where you store the server.
5.
Why is a smartphone NOT a good tool for writing a report?
a)
Touchscreen or mini keyboards are not optimized for writing lots of text.
b)
They have great user interfaces that enable you to write quickly.
c)
Their size makes them easy to place in ergonomic positions.
d)
They have large displays with excellent resolution.
6.
What IoT device may contain a "black box" that is able to record event data?
a)
Smart Vehicle
b)
Home appliances
c)
Environmental controls
d)
Window curtains
7.
What should you do before attempting to set up a new computer system?
a)
Verify that the environment is suitable and that the installation will be safe.
b)
Verify that the placement maximizes space even if the keyboard is in an awkward place.
c)
Verify that the computer is concealed within a desk compartment and out of sight.
d)
Verify that the computer cables are loose and free of any bindings.
8.
When setting up a desktop computer, what factor should you consider when deciding on the location of the system case?
a)
You need to consider the position of power outlet(s) and peripheral devices as well as air flow around the system unit.
b)
You need to find a dry and warm place where a cover can protect the unit from dust.
c)
You need to check the proximity of the refrigerator to ensure that it is close enough.
d)
You need to find a dry and warm place where a cover can protect the unit from dust.
9.
What factors should you consider when positioning input and output devices?
a)
Ensure that they can be used without exerting strain, especially on the arms / wrists and back / neck.
b)
Ensure that there is enough room on your desk to stack them on top of each other.
c)
Ensure that there is proper lighting on your desk to illuminate the screen.
d)
Ensure that the monitor is located at the edge of the desk to maximize work area.
10.
You have to sign in to Windows - does it matter if the CAPS LOCK light on the keyboard is activated?
a)
Windows passwords are case sensitive, so the CAPS LOCK may prevent successful login.
b)
Windows usernames and passwords are converted to upper case, so the CAPS LOCK does not affect login.
c)
Windows usernames are not case sensitive, so the CAPS LOCK does not affect login.
d)
Windows passwords are not case sensitive, so the CAPS LOCK key is ignored during login.
11.
You have to open a word processing application, but you cannot see an icon on the desktop. What should you do?
a)
Look for the shortcut in Start Menu or Start Screen.
b)
Double click the Blue E or Orange Fox in your taskbar, and search for the icon on the internet.
c)
Look for the shortcut in the C: drive of the computer.
d)
Right-click on the desktop, go to view, and change the icon size to large.
12.
Your colleague has to run many applications at the same time and finds it difficult to know which icon to choose when switching between them. What alternative method could you suggest?
a)
Press Alt+Tab - this shows previews of the window and allows the user to quickly switch between windows.
b)
Upload documents to the cloud and use a cloud interface to switch between them.
c)
Press "CTL-ALT-DEL" - task manager will show him a list of all the active programs.
d)
Place all the application shortcuts within a favorites folder for quick access.
13.
Your colleague is using a laptop and you notice that he laboriously clicks the external mouse repeatedly to scroll through the document you are co-editing. Which feature could he use to be more productive?
a)
The mouse scroll-wheel on the external mouse to maneuver the scroll bar
b)
The zoom function to zoom out so that each click scrolls through more pages
c)
The trackpad on the laptop since it is designed for easy scrolling
d)
The Ctrl + Arrow Keys to move through a document word by word instead of letter by letter
14.
What function of an operating system is performed by the "shell"?
a)
Interface between the user and the computer.
b)
Interface between the applications and the hardware.
c)
Interface between a host computer and a guest operating system.
d)
Interface between the hardware and the firmware.
15.
Which system object provides the functionality for a hardware component?
a)
A device driver
b)
A document
c)
A program
d)
A directory
16.
What is an example of open source operating systems?
a)
Linux, Chromium, or Android
b)
Windows and MacOS
c)
BIOS and UEFI firmware
d)
Embedded operating systems
17.
What type of computing device(s) is macOS designed for installation on?
a)
Workstations and laptops
b)
Servers and network storage
c)
Smartphones and tablets
d)
Feature phones
18.
Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the Windows 10 versions available?
a)
Windows 10 Enterprise is similar to the Pro edition but designed for licensing by small businesses.
b)
Windows 10 Education/Pro Education is for schools and colleges.
c)
Windows 10 Home is designed for domestic consumers.
d)
Windows 10 Pro comes with extra networking and management features.
19.
You are using the mouse to access a file located on a network server. There are currently no mapped drives. What should be your first step?
a)
Open the Network object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file
b)
Open the Quick Access object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file.
c)
Open the search dialog box and type the name of the file you are looking for.
d)
Open the This PC object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file.
20.
What is the technical term for a web address?
a)
Uniform Resource Locator (URL)
b)
Hyperlink (HL)
c)
Address bar
d)
Website name
21.
What key combination can you use to force the browser to ignore any locally cached files when refreshing a page?
a)
Ctrl+F5
b)
Alt+F4
c)
Crtl+Alt+Del
d)
Ctrl++
22.
Which of the following methods can be used to open the Computer Management console? (Select all that apply.)
a)
Right-click the Start button.
b)
Right-click the This PC object in File Explorer.
c)
Via the Settings app.
d)
Right-click the Taskbar.
23.
What term is used to describe terminating a process that is not responding to user input?
a)
This is often called "killing" the process.
b)
This is called "choking" the process.
c)
This is called "process abort."
d)
This is often called "exterminate" the process.
24.
Why might you use the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) Services snap-in to manage background processes rather than Task Manager?
a)
Task Manager allows you to start and stop services but the Services snap-in also allows you to configure service properties.
b)
The Service snap-in tool allows you to start and stop services, but the Task Manager will also allow you to configure service properties.
c)
The Task Manager allows you to modify which user or system account the service runs as but the Services snap-in has restart functionality.
d)
The Task Manager requires administrative privileges to run but the Services snap-in can be run by any user.
25.
The Task Scheduler allows you to run a process automatically in Windows. What is a widely-used Linux equivalent?
a)
Cron
b)
Nano
c)
Vi
d)
Taskkill
26.
Which method does a technician use to configure and improve a system's memory usage?
a)
Use of virtual memory or a pagefile, where disk space is used to supplement system RAM.
b)
Use of mass storage, where disks can be partitioned to separate OS files from user files.
c)
Use of general system memory, where a percentage of memory can be allocated to specific applications.
d)
Users do not configure any of the system memory setup because the OS handles all system memory activities.
27.
What two things are configured on a disk to make storage space on the disk available to the Windows OS?
a)
The disk must contain at least one partition, typically allocated a drive letter, and the partition must be formatted with a suitable file system.
b)
The disk must have a recovery file and configure the backup settings to point to that file.
c)
The disk must have 6 GB of RAM configured and the system should automatically allocate a matching pagefile.
d)
The GUID Partition Table (GPT) needs to be configured and then you must populate the volumes.
28.
What is a Command Line Interface (CLI)?
a)
A Command Line Interface allows the user to interact with the OS using typed commands or scripts rather than a GUI.
b)
The Command Line Interface prevents access to administrative functions without administrative privileges.
c)
The Command Line Interface allows the user to format mass storage devices using a GUI.
d)
The Command Line Interface allows the user to schedule tasks to run at a particular time.
29.
What protection feature in Windows is designed to prevent a script or software from making unauthorized changes to the OS configuration?
a)
User Account Control (UAC)
b)
Default account types
c)
Graphical User Interface (GUI)
d)
Password options
30.
Which of these statements is true regarding a standard user and their password?
a)
Standard users can change their own password but cannot change anyone else's password.
b)
Once a standard user sets their first password they cannot change or modify it.
c)
Password management is automatically controlled in the BIOS.
d)
Standard users must get permission from the administrator to change a password.
31.
You are advising a colleague about best practices when troubleshooting. You have identified the following techniques to use to identify a problem: gather information, duplicate the problem, question users, identify symptoms, and approach multiple problems individually. If you are following CompTIA's troubleshooting model, what other piece of advice should you give?
a)
Determine if anything has changed
b)
Test the theory to determine a cause
c)
Research the knowledge base or Internet
d)
Establish a theory of probable cause
32.
You have asked a senior manager to authorize your plan of action for resolving a fault in a software application. What name is given to the process you are following?
a)
Escalating the problem
b)
Considering multiple approaches
c)
Verifying full system functionality
d)
Testing the theory
33.
You are setting up a new computer, but it doesn't seem to be working. Should you check anything or contact the manufacturer?
a)
It would be best to double-check you have connected the cables correctly.
b)
It's broken. Unplug everything and send it back..
c)
It's a brand-new computer, you don't need to check anything.
d)
Just contact the manufacturer and get their technical opinion
34.
Your computer locks up (freezes) periodically and feels hot to the touch. Could these things be related?
a)
Yes, many lockup problems are caused by overheating.
b)
No, temperature of your computer does not affect computer operation.
c)
No, two different problems likely exist that need troubleshooting.
d)
Yes, overheating often occurs when the computer is locked up.
35.
What crucial piece of information would you need when trying to locate support information about a computer system on the manufacturer's website?
a)
The model number or a service code.
b)
The cost and date of purchase.
c)
The voltage on the power supply.
d)
The type of keyboard and mouse you are using.
36.
If you do not have a support contract, what is likely to be the best option for obtaining advice about a problem with an application?
a)
A product support or community forum
b)
Obtain a copy of the application from a third-party vendor
c)
Delete and reload the application
d)
Download a free application fix-it tool off the Internet
37.
You are looking for content on a topic, but your search is returning millions of matches that are not particularly helpful. Which option includes two methods that you could use to get better search results?
a)
Use more search keywords (ideally with 'uncommon' words), or search for an exact phrase by enclosing it in quotes.
b)
Use a different search engine, or start your search over and come back to it later.
c)
Verify your spelling using a spellchecker, or use a question mark in place of a character in your search term.
d)
Search using a broader criterion (don't be as specific), or use an asterisk (*) in place of a character in your search term.
38.
You want to find something on a particular website, but the site does not have a search tool. Could you use a general search engine (and if so, how)?
a)
Yes—you use an advanced search form and provide a URL such as comptia.org.
b)
Yes—just type the website name first in the search engine, and then type the keywords.
c)
No—it is not necessary to use a general search engine. Just type CTRL-F and type the word you are looking for.
d)
No—you just need to keep searching the website until you find what you're looking for.
39.
Which notation system supports presenting the largest numbers using the fewest digits?
a)
Hexadecimal
b)
Decimal
c)
KiloByte
d)
Binary
40.
What is the decimal number 75 in binary and hexadecimal?
a)
0100 1011 in binary and 4B in hex
b)
0101 1100 in binary and 5C in hex
c)
4B in binary and 0100 1011 in hex
d)
5C in binary and 0101 1100 in hex
41.
Which data type provides for whole numbers only?
a)
Integer
b)
Boolean
c)
Secondary
d)
Hexadecimal
42.
In general, what is the difference between the char and string data types?
a)
Char stores a single textual character in a fixed length field (typically 1 byte). A string is a variable length field for storing a sequence of characters.
b)
A number entered as a string cannot be used for mathematical operations. When a number is entered as a character data type, you can perform mathematical operations on it.
c)
Char is variable length field for storing a sequence of characters. A string stores a single textual character or string in a fixed length field (typically 1 byte).
d)
There is a limit on the amount of storage that can be used by a string. There is no limit for a character.
43.
Which data representation format can encode the widest range of characters?
a)
Unicode
b)
ASCII
c)
Binary
d)
Hex
44.
What is TRUE about legal protection for a novel software algorithm?
a)
Patent provides the best protection as it can enforce ownership even if someone tries to write the algorithm in a slightly different way.
b)
You can't legally protect a novel software algorithm. It will be owned by the original publisher of the software that you used to create it.
c)
You can only copyright the name, not the software algorithm itself. The copyright will make you the sole owner of that brand.
d)
Trademark provides the best protection as it can enforce ownership to protect the unique elements of a software algorithm.
45.
What data protection technology could you implement in order to restrict the type of activity that a user could employ on digital products that they have purchased or rented?
a)
Digital Rights Management
b)
Trademark
c)
Patent
d)
Copyright
46.
What part of the process of data analytics is most closely supported by meaningful reporting?
a)
Insights
b)
Correlation
c)
Information
d)
Data
47.
What compatibility information should you confirm before installing a software application?
a)
That it works with the version of the operating system that you have, and that your computer meets the system (hardware) requirements.
b)
That you review the advanced options and select specific feature sets.
c)
That you read the End User License Agreement (EULA) and agree to the terms of the license agreement.
d)
That you select the "repair" option if the software program has stopped working properly.
48.
Following installation of a program written for an older version of Windows, you receive an alert that it might not have installed correctly. What feature could you use to make the program run correctly?
a)
Use the program's Compatibility tab to use settings for the older Windows version.
b)
The program's Details tab to use settings for the latest version with the latest patches.
c)
Use the Repair option inherent in most programs to automatically fix this issue.
d)
Use the uninstall/reinstall feature that should fix any compatibility issues you may have.
49.
Why would Windows prompt you to enter a password if you try to install a software application?
a)
Installing an application requires administrator privileges and is an action protected by User Account Control
b)
Installing an application requires a second level of verification. An administrator verifies a standard user and a second administrator can verify the first one.
c)
Installing an application requires the use of the application's setup files which may require specific user privileges to access.
d)
Installing an application requires that you have exited other applications so that the antivirus software can be disabled.
50.
Windows comes with web server software, but it is not installed by default. How would you install this software?
a)
Use the Turn Windows features on or off dialog from Programs and Features.
b)
Use the Repair option inherent in Programs and Features to automatically run the web server feature.
c)
Use App Installer feature in Programs and Features tab to uninstall and then reinstall the web server software.
d)
Use the Server Software tab in Programs and Features to install the web server.
51.
Following installation of an application, another program on your computer has stopped working. What could you do to try to fix it?
a)
Try using the Repair option in Programs and Features (if available) or re-installing the program.
b)
Try using the Turn Windows features on or off dialog tab from Programs and Features (if available).
c)
Try using the software components tab under Device Manager to fix the problem.
d)
Log into User Account Control and edit the settings in the control panel and reduce the security posture. It may have blocked the other program.
52.
Why might one of your first tasks on receiving a new computer be to remove software applications?
a)
The computer may be bundled with pre-installed software that you do not want.
b)
The computer may not have enough storage left to run any of the software applications.
c)
The computer may have spyware bundled in that will watch every action that do on your computer.
d)
The computer may already have a virus pre-installed that you do not want.
53.
In order to obtain support on a currently installed application, the software vendor wants to know the application's product ID. How would you locate this information?
a)
Usually via the Help > About menu.
b)
Search manufacturer's website.
c)
Look in the Warranty information packet.
d)
Open the System Settings menu.
54.
What is the difference between freeware and open source software?
a)
Open source means that the programming code used to design the software is publicly available.
b)
Open source is provided on a trial basis and users commonly have to purchase the full version after the trial period has passed.
c)
Open source applications are those that may be downloaded from the Internet and used without restriction.
d)
Open source means that the software is intended for purchase to meet commercial needs.
55.
What type of software would you use to configure a server by connecting to it over the network?
a)
Remote desktop
b)
System restore
c)
Wireless input device
d)
Collaboration software
56.
What type of software manages tasks, dependencies, and timelines?
a)
Project management software
b)
Database software
c)
Accounting software
d)
Business-specific applications
57.
You have just bought a new computer but want to use the older version of Windows that came with your previous computer. Windows was provided as an OEM license. Can you use this license key to install the software on your new PC?
a)
Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses can only be used on the brand and model it was initially installed on.
b)
Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEM) licenses are only used in Enterprise environments, prohibiting use on a new computer.
c)
Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses are authorized for use on multiple computer systems at the same time, enabling use on the new computer.
d)
Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses can be transferred between different computers, just not at the same time.
58.
What shows the structure of code without using the specific syntax of any one language?
a)
Pseudocode
b)
Variables
c)
Conditional statements
d)
Functions
59.
What is an interpreted programming language?
a)
Interpreted languages do not need to be compiled because the code gets converted to machine code at runtime.
b)
Interpreted languages organize data through structured nested tags and are rendered by a web browser.
c)
Interpreted languages represent machine code in human-readable text and are typically specific to a particular hardware architecture.
d)
Interpreted languages do not need to be compiled and are designed to retrieve specific records from a data set.
60.
How does a markup language differ from a compiled language?
a)
A markup language is not a programming language, rather it is a way of using nested tags within a document to describe its structure and contents.
b)
A markup language is a programming language and is commonly used to retrieve data from a database.
c)
A compiled language is not a programming language, rather it is a way of using nested tags within a document to describe its structure and contents.
d)
A compiled language is a programming language and is commonly used to retrieve data from a database.
61.
What are constants and variables examples of?
a)
Programming identifiers
b)
Simple arrays
c)
Conditional branches
d)
Continuous loops
62.
What type of programming concept allows for a variable size container?
a)
A vector
b)
A function
c)
A procedure
d)
An array
63.
You want to check whether a condition has been met, and if it has, perform one action. Otherwise, you want your program to perform a second action. What sort of programming operation would help achieve this?
a)
A conditional branch
b)
A programming identifier
c)
A simple array
d)
A continuous loop
64.
In a program, what does a loop do?
a)
A loop performs one or more instructions until a condition is met.
b)
A loop is a container that can be used as a term to reference multiple values or elements.
c)
A loop accesses a program element, such as a stored value, class, method, or interface.
d)
Loops grow or shrink in size as elements are added or removed.
65.
What is the difference between a procedure and a function?
a)
A procedure does something, while a function does something and then returns a value to the main program.
b)
A function does something, while a procedure does something and then returns a value to the main program.
c)
A function is a container that can grow or shrink in size during program execution as elements are added or removed, while a procedure cannot be resized.
d)
A procedure is a container that can grow or shrink in size during program execution as elements are added or removed, while a function cannot be resized.
66.
What three things define an object?
a)
Properties, attributes, and methods
b)
Stored value, class, and interface
c)
Data, information, and insights
d)
Branches, loops, and operators.
67.
What three scripting options are commonly used in Windows 10 to perform administrative tasks?
a)
Batch files, Windows PowerShell scripts, and VBScripts
b)
Mocha, LiveScript, and JavaScript
c)
PowerCLI, Perl, and Python
d)
AppleScript Editor, Xcode, and Smile
68.
What is the best way to install a web application on your computer?
a)
You do not install a web application on your computer. You access it through your browser.
b)
Go to the vendor's website and have them mail it to you and install it when the disk arrives.
c)
Download it from the browser and install it on the computer.
d)
Call in an IT specialist to come install it for you.
69.
In terms of data storage, what is the advantage of using a server over a workstation?
a)
If data is stored on the server and not on the local workstation, it is easier to apply access controls and to back it up.
b)
If data is stored on the server and not on the local workstation, it will be available to the user if a network device fails.
c)
If data is stored on the server and not on the local workstation, it will be available during power outages.
d)
If data is stored on a local network storage device and not on specific workstations, different users will not be able to access the information.
70.
What are the structural elements of a database?
a)
Each table stores information about records in fields.
b)
Each table stores information about queries and reports.
c)
Each report stores information about tables in fields.
d)
Each query stores information about tables in reports.
71.
What term is used to describe selecting and viewing information in a database?
a)
Query
b)
Report
c)
Create
d)
Storage
72.
How does Microsoft SQL Server differ from Microsoft Excel when used to store a dataset?
a)
Excel is an example of a flat file system, whereas SQL Server is relational database software that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more users.
b)
Excel is an example of relational database software, whereas SQL Server is a flat file system that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more users.
c)
Excel is an example of relational database software that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more users, whereas SQL Server is a flat file system.
d)
Excel is an example of a flat file system that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more users, whereas SQL Server is relational database software.
73.
What language is usually used to request data from an RDBMS such as Oracle?
a)
Structured Query Language (SQL) is used to query RDBMS-based database platforms.
b)
eXtensible Markup Language (XML) is used to query RDMBS-based database platforms.
c)
Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is used to query RDBMS-based database platforms.
d)
Java is used to query RDBMS-based database platforms.
74.
How is a relationship identified between two tables in an RDBMS?
a)
Each table contains a primary key whose value is unique for each record in the table. A secondary table can use the value of a primary key as a relation, storing the value in a foreign key field.
b)
A relationship between tables is created and identified by the schema.
c)
A constraint defines the relationship between tables.
d)
Each table contains a foreign key whose value is unique for each record in the table. A secondary table can use the value of a foreign key as a relation, storing the value in a primary key field.
75.
Which of the following is NOT an example of unstructured data?
a)
Relational databases
b)
Image files
c)
Text files
d)
PowerPoint presentation
76.
Give two examples of semi-structured data stores.
a)
Key/value pair databases and markup language document stores.
b)
Relational databases and text files
c)
Word documents and PowerPoint presentations
d)
Key/value pair database and PowerPoint presentations
77.
An INSERT statement is an example of what data language type?
a)
Data Manipulation Language
b)
Both Data Manipulation Language and Data Definition Language
c)
Data Definition language
d)
Neither Data Manipulation Language nor Data Definition Language
78.
You need a development environment with a library of database functions. What type of interface are you using?
a)
Programmatic access
b)
Query/Report Builder
c)
Utility Access
d)
Direct/Manual Access
79.
How can a client-server application architecture be described if it could be re-developed to split the application and presentation layers?
a)
This could be described as a two-tier application capable of becoming a three-tier application.
b)
This could be described as a n-tier application that cannot be further re-developed.
c)
This could be described as a one-tier application capable of becoming a two-tier application.
d)
This could be described as a three-tier application capable of becoming a n-tier application.
80.
What type of component provides persistent storage?
a)
The Hard Disk Drive (HDD) and Solid State Drive (SSD)
b)
The Central Processing Unit (CPU)
c)
The Random Access Memory (RAM)
d)
The Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)
81.
What computer component is most restrictive in terms of determining upgrade potential for a desktop computer?
a)
The motherboard
b)
System firmware
c)
The Network Interface Card (NIC)
d)
The Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)
82.
What provides sound functionality in a personal computer?
a)
Sound functions are often provided by the motherboard chipset.
b)
Sound functions are provided by a plug-in card with external speakers.
c)
Sound functions must be provided by a plug-in sound card.
d)
Sound functions in modern PCs will send your audio directly to an external radio for processing.
83.
What is a typical speed for a mid-range CPU to run at?
a)
Around 2 GHz; budget models might run as low as 1 GHz, while faster ones run at 3 or 4 GHz.
b)
Around 4 GHz for each core processor.
c)
1.21 Gigawatts.
d)
Around 2 MHz, if you overclock it. Most still run at 1 MHz.
84.
What is the main advantage of using a CPU in 64-bit mode?
a)
64-bit software is more reliable and is faster than 32-bit software. It also supports more system memory.
b)
CPUs don't use 64-bit mode; they are limited to 16 bits. This means that each instruction is 16-bits "wide".
c)
There are no advantages of a 64-bit CPU over a 32-bit CPU. They cost more money and are not worth the cost.
d)
It's new and technically more scalable than the 32-bit CPU.
85.
You want to purchase a computer with a fast graphics interface. What type of expansion slot should you look for?
a)
PCIe x16—this is a type of PCI Express slot that uses 16 'lanes'. Each lane can transfer 250 MBps (or 500 MBps for PCIe 2 and 1 GBps for v3).
b)
SDRAM and DDR—this type of slot is common for desktop computers (if you use a laptop, you need to look for a SODIMM) each having various types and speeds.
c)
Motherboard SIMM slots—this type of slot has 30-pin slots typically used in laptops while the 64-pin and 72-pin slots were found on desktop motherboards.
d)
Connect solid-state graphics to the high-speed SATA slots and mechanical disk drives to the lower-speed slots.
86.
What type of component provides a passive cooling solution?
a)
A heatsink
b)
An insulation blanket
c)
A liquid cooling system
d)
A cooling fan
87.
How would you access the system setup program on a PC?
a)
Historically, by pressing the appropriate key during startup (ESC, DEL, F1, F2, or F10). Modern PCs often use fast boot modes that require some other means of booting to the firmware setup program.
b)
Historically, by pressing and holding the Windows key (4 little white boxes) on your keyboard. Modern PCs use the function key "F5"
c)
Logically, by pressing CTL+ALT+DEL twice during startup. Just like when you want to exit a program on your PC.
d)
Logically, by pressing ALT+F4 during startup will access the startup menu through windows.
88.
Mice and keyboards CANNOT connect to which types of ports?
a)
Ethernet ports
b)
USB ports
c)
Bluetooth interfaces
d)
PS/2 ports
89.
Which of these statements is NOT true about Universal Serial Bus (USB) cables?
a)
USB cables never have the same connectors at either end.
b)
There are USB cables with normal size connectors on one end and mini or micro device connectors on the other.
c)
The connectors for the host (PC) and device use different form factors.
d)
There are now USB cables with reversible Type C connectors.
90.
A user has two USB drives connected to her PC. She complains that when she copies large files to both drives at the same time, it seems to take much longer. Why might this be?
a)
Bandwidth on the USB bus is shared between all devices.
b)
She has the cables swapped backwards.
c)
Writing to USB drives can only occur one at a time.
d)
The flash drive partitions haven't been formatted.
91.
You want to purchase a flat panel monitor that can show widescreen movies. Which native resolution should you choose?
a)
1920x1080
b)
1920x1440
c)
1400x1050
d)
1024x768
92.
Which type of display interface does NOT support high definition digital picture resolution?
a)
VGA
b)
Thunderbolt
c)
HDMI
d)
DVI
93.
You are considering buying a new display device. The model you are considering accepts digital inputs only. Your computer's graphics adapter has a blue port with 15 holes. Would this flat panel be a wise purchase?
a)
No, as this connector is VGA which supports analog output only.
b)
No, as this connector is DisplayPort which supports analog output only.
c)
Yes, as this connector is HDMI which supports both digital and analog.
d)
Yes, as this connector is DVI which supports digital only.
94.
You need to configure settings for a bluetooth device. What should be your first step?
a)
Open the Settings app or Control Panel.
b)
Configure the wireless adapter to connect to the new input device.
95.
A friend is asking for your help in using her computer. When your friend presses the key marked @, the " symbol appears. What could be the cause?
a)
The keyboard is set to use a UK layout.
b)
Somebody has moved a key to a different place on the keyboard.
c)
The Shift button doesn't work properly.
d)
The keyboard is broken.
96.
What type of mouse would you recommend for someone who uses their computer principally to play computer games and why?
a)
Laser mouse — this registers cursor movements more quickly and accurately.
b)
Mechanical mouse — it requires less wrist movement and you don't need a mouse pad.
c)
Optical mouse — it senses movement relative to a surface using light instead of a roller ball.
d)
A stylus mouse — as its accuracy is high and can easily be moved around the input field.
97.
Which Windows interface is used for advanced management and troubleshooting of devices?
a)
Device manager
b)
Personalization applet
c)
Display tab
d)
Web configuration
98.
What do you need to know to connect to a device that is configured over the network?
a)
Typically, the Internet Protocol (IP) address of its management page or the device's hostname
b)
Typically, the physical location of the computer
c)
Typically, the port in the wall where the network cable is plugged into
d)
Typically, the Media Access Control (MAC) address of the device you want to connect to
99.
Which of these statements is true regarding how you set up your display?
a)
Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configured via Display settings.
b)
Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configured via the Personalization applet.
c)
Dots Per Inch (DPI) is determined by the monitor and device driver and cannot be user configured.
d)
Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configurable using your computers IP-based interface.
100.
You are configuring dual monitors positioned side-by-side. You want to increase the amount of screen space available. Which multiple display option should you set?
a)
Extend the displays.
b)
Show only on display #2
c)
Duplicate the displays.
d)
Portrait orientation
101.
You need to plug a microphone into a computer to make a recording. How would you identify which jack to use?
a)
The jack is typically color-coded pink.
b)
Plug into the RJ45 Jack.
c)
The jack is typically color-coded green.
d)
Use the HDMI connection.
102.
What type of printer uses a fuser?
a)
Laser printer
b)
Impact printer
c)
A 3D printer
d)
Color bubblejet printer
103.
Which four toners are used to produce color prints?
a)
Cyan, magenta, yellow, and black
b)
Red, blue, yellow, and black
c)
Red, green, blue, black
d)
Light blue, pink, yellow, black
104.
What type of wired interface is a printer MOST likely to use?
a)
USB
b)
S/PDIF
c)
VGA
d)
HDMI
105.
You want to configure a printer to use both sides of the paper (duplex) by default. You have right-clicked the printer object. Which command should you select to proceed?
a)
Printing preferences
b)
Troubleshoot
c)
Printer properties
d)
Open
106.
What basic command demonstrates that a printer is connected properly to a computer and that its driver is installed correctly for Windows?
a)
Print test page.
b)
Run the troubleshooter
c)
Check devices and features
d)
Printing preferences
107.
What function of a scanner would you use if you want to convert a letter that someone has mailed to you into a computer-editable document?
a)
Optical Character Recognition (OCR).
b)
Portable Document Format (PDF) or Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG)
c)
TWAIN
d)
Windows Image Acquisition (WIA)
108.
Which of these statements is false?
a)
You can connect the camera's flash memory card directly into your computer's USB port.
b)
You can transfer images from the camera over Wi-Fi or Bluetooth if supported.
c)
You can connect the camera itself to the PC over a USB cable.
d)
You can remove the flash media from the camera and insert it into a flash reader.
109.
A printer is rated at 20ppm. What is the significance of this statistic?
a)
This is the number of pages per minute the printer can output. High page rates are important in high-volume environments.
b)
This is the number of projects per minute that your printer can handle.
c)
This is an image format used to measure the quality of an image the printer can produce.
d)
This is the voltage measurement of your printer.
110.
What type of print technology uses toner?
a)
Laser
b)
Inkjet
c)
Impact
d)
Thermal transfer
111.
You are trying to find a use for an old dot matrix printer. The only port on the printer is a large edge-style one with 36 contacts. What type of port is this?
a)
Parallel port
b)
USB port
c)
RJ45 port
d)
HDMI port
112.
You have a motherboard that is designed for Double Data Rate 2 (DDR2) memory that works at a bus speed of 533 MHz. You have some DDR3 memory modules that also work at a bus speed of 533 MHz. Are the modules compatible with the motherboard?
a)
DDR3 modules cannot be used in DDR2 slots.
b)
DDR2 and DDR3 are both packaged in SO-DIMMs and can be used in any slots.
c)
DDR3 modules can be used in DDR2 slots.
d)
DDR2 and DDR3 are packaged in DIMMs and can be used in any slots.
113.
Why can't you use memory modules designed for a desktop computer in a laptop?
a)
Laptops use a smaller form factor called SO-DIMM while desktops use DIMMs.
b)
Desktops use a different voltage level and it is unsafe to use DIMMs in a SO-DIMM slot because of overheating.
c)
The functionality of laptop and desktop memory are different enough so that one cannot be used in the other.
d)
You should be able to swap them because laptops and desktops both use the same type of DIMM Memory cards.
114.
A hard drive is rated at 10,000 rpm. What is the significance of this statistic?
a)
A measurement of the speed of the drive
b)
A measurement of the capacity of the drive
c)
A measurement of the access time for information on the drive
d)
A measurement of the composition of the drive's platters
115.
What type of connector would you NOT use for an external hard drive to connect to a Windows PC?
a)
RGB
b)
eSATA
c)
Firewire
d)
USB
116.
Your computer has 4 SATA ports. How many hard drives can be installed?
a)
Four drives
b)
Eight drives
c)
Zero drives
d)
Two drives
117.
What type of disk has the greatest capacity?
a)
Blu-ray that is a single layer
b)
DVD that is single layer and single sided
c)
DVD that is dual layer and double sided
d)
DVD that is dual layer and single sided
118.
What sort of device would you need to transfer data from a "Memory Stick"?
a)
Memory card reader / multi-card reader.
b)
A wireless adapter
c)
A keyboard
d)
A microphone and headset
119.
What sort of device could you use to expand the storage capacity of a smartphone?
a)
A flash memory card
b)
A SIM card
c)
An SSD
d)
An extra battery
120.
In Windows, do letter-labeled "drives" correspond exactly to physical disks?
a)
Not in the case of hard disks, which can be configured with multiple partitions, each of which can be assigned a drive letter.
b)
Only in the case of hard disks, which are usually allocated letter "c."
c)
Not in the case of optical drives, which can be configured with multiple partitions, each of which can be assigned a drive letter.
d)
Only in the case of hard disks, which are usually allocated the letter "a."
121.
What type of file system must be used for the partition where Windows 10 is installed?
a)
The NTFS file system
b)
The ext file system
c)
The FAT-32 files system
d)
The HFS+ file system
122.
What default installation folders contain system and application files that should not normally be deleted or modified manually?
a)
The Windows and Program Files folders.
b)
The Desktop folder
c)
The Temp folder
d)
The Downloads folder
123.
What is the file path to the Documents folder for a user named "David", assuming Windows is installed to a hard disk with a single partition using the default settings?
a)
c:\Users\David\Documents
b)
C:\Windows\DAVID\Documents
c)
D:\Windows\David\Documents
d)
d:\Users\David\Documents
124.
How is a Windows library different from a folder?
a)
A library acts as a virtual folder by displaying the contents of multiple folders, which could be located on different drives.
b)
A folder acts as a virtual library by displaying the contents of multiple libraries, which could be located on different drives.
c)
A library is the user's private folder containing subfolders for different types of files like documents, music, and pictures.
d)
A library and a folder are virtually the same thing.
125.
If you have made changes to a file and want to keep both the original file and the modified version, what command should you use?
a)
Save As.
b)
Save
c)
Share
d)
Export
126.
Why should you be more careful about deleting files from a USB flash drive than from the main hard drive?
a)
The files from a flash drive will not be recycled, so retrieving them if you change your mind will be very difficult.
b)
The files from the main hard drive get flagged for deletion but remain until the next Windows Update cycle.
c)
The files from the flash drive get recycled to the Windows recycle bin, making for easy recovery at a later time.
d)
The files from the main hard drive will not be recycled, so retrieving them if you change your mind will be very difficult.
127.
What view options could you use to show files of a particular type sorted by date?
a)
Group the files by file type, then sort by date.
b)
Group the files by date, then sort by file type.
c)
Group the files by file type, then sort by category.
d)
Group the files by category, then sort by date.
128.
What kind of data would you expect to find in a file with a TIFF extension?
a)
This is an image file format.
b)
This is a text format.
c)
This is a sound format.
d)
This is a video format.
129.
What is a zip file?
a)
A file archive containing other files in a compressed format.
b)
A container file format designed to deliver Flash Video.
c)
A Windows installer file used to install and uninstall software applications.
d)
An image file format most widely used for photographic pictures.
130.
What type of software is an ODF file associated with?
a)
Word processing software
b)
Email client software
c)
Database software
d)
Video conferencing software
131.
What is a Wide Area Network (WAN)?
a)
A network that connects sites in different geographic locations
b)
A network in a single location
c)
A company that operates the national telephone networks
d)
A company that specializes in providing Internet access
132.
What type of device is used to transfer packets between different networks?
a)
A router
b)
A switch
c)
A hub
d)
A Network Interface Card (NIC)
133.
What are the key features of a packet switching network?
a)
Nodes within the network can perform a forwarding function, allowing a packet to utilize any available path through the network.
b)
A packet sent down the network can switch its destination mid-stream.
c)
Packets can be switched from a TCP/IP protocol to another available protocol to increase the transmission speed.
d)
A packet switching network opens a direct channel on which to transmit the packet, so a break in the channel stops the transmission.
134.
What protocol is usually used to provide logical addressing on networks?
a)
Internet Protocol (IP)
b)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
c)
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
d)
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
135.
Which email protocol(s) are used to download messages from a mail server?
a)
Either Post Office Protocol (POP) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
b)
Either Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
c)
Either Post Office Protocol (POP) or Mail Exchanger (MX)
d)
Either Mail Exchanger (MX) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
136.
What is the difference between HTTP and HTTPS protocols?
a)
HTTPS serves SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) secured HTML web pages, whereas HTTP serves unsecured web pages.
b)
HTTP does not require DNS to resolve a web address to an IP address, whereas HTTPS does.
c)
HTTP serves web pages on the extranet, whereas HTTPS serves web pages on the intranet.
d)
HTTP can serve HTML web pages, whereas HTTPS can serve HTML web pages, as well as XML pages displayed as HTML.
137.
What is a packet made up of?
a)
A packet consists of a number of fields contained within a header section plus a payload
b)
A packet consists of a payload wrapped around a header section.
c)
A packet is the data inside the wrapper used for each data unit transmitted over the network.
d)
A packet is the destination address of a unit of data being transmitted over the network.
138.
Which of the following parts of a friendly URL is dependent on a name resolution service?
a)
Top level domain
b)
Protocol type
c)
IP address
d)
File path
139.
What type of address identifies a network interface in the context of the local network segment only?
a)
A Media Access Control (MAC) address
b)
IP address
c)
URL
d)
DNS
140.
Which protocol allows people to use names/labels, rather than numeric addresses, to address network resources?
a)
Domain Name System (DNS)
b)
URL
c)
IP address
d)
MAC address
141.
You log into a SOHO router and review current settings to prepare it for use. Which of the following items is NOT needed to configure a wireless connection on the router?
a)
IP address
b)
Encryption type
c)
Authentication info
d)
SSID
142.
What can you do to reduce the risk of using a free Wi-Fi network to place an order from an online shop?
a)
Ensure that the online store uses a secure (HTTPS) connection.
b)
Change your password.
c)
Change your credit card number often.
d)
Request an encrypted transaction.
143.
Which of the following is NOT a medium used for Internet access?
a)
Internet Service Provider (ISP)
b)
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
c)
Cable/Hybrid Fiber Coax
d)
Fiber to the Curb (FTTC)
144.
What is the difference between a modem and a router?
a)
The modem transmits frames across the WAN link while the router forwards packets between the local network and the Internet.
b)
The modem forwards packets between the local network and the Internet while the router transmits frames across the WAN link
c)
The modem transmits frames across the WAN link while the router translates the server's web address into an IP address.
d)
The modem and the router have exactly the same responsibilities, so the terms are often used interchangeably.
145.
What does attenuation mean?
a)
Loss of strength of a signal
b)
Inactive access point
c)
Signal interference
d)
Bluetooth signal strength
146.
What is the latest Wi-Fi standard and which frequency band(s) does it use?
a)
IEEE 802.11ac works in the 5 GHz band.
b)
IEEE 802.11g works in the 2.4 GHz band.
c)
IEEE 802.11n works in the 5 GHz band.
d)
IEEE 802.11b works in the 5 GHz band.
147.
What device is used to connect computers together in an Ethernet network?
a)
A switch
b)
Internet router
c)
An access point
d)
Internet modem
148.
You are using a computer in an Internet cafe. What should you do at the end of the session?
a)
Clear the browser cache.
b)
Log out of all applications you've been using.
c)
Power off the computer.
d)
Log off the computer you're using.
149.
You want to restrict access to a computer on your network to a single internet host running a particular application. What two things do you need to configure in your firewall's access control list?
a)
The IP address of the host and the port number of the application
b)
The SSID and the application name
c)
The IP address of the host and the application name
d)
The SSID and the IP address
150.
What identifies a website as using the secure HTTPS protocol with a valid certificate?
a)
The URL shows the "https://" protocol and the browser shows a padlock icon.
b)
Check the Better Business Bureau.
c)
The URL shows the "http://" protocol and the browser shows a padlock icon.
d)
The website has a recent copyright date.
151.
You want to use a website that hosts training modules in a custom media format. What type of add-on would you need to install to play this media?
a)
A Plug-in
b)
A Cookie
c)
An Extension
d)
A Theme
152.
If you use an open network, what email configuration setting should you configure?
a)
Enable Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) encryption to protect the account password
b)
Disable active content types like flash and Java to protect the web browser
c)
Enable anti-malware software to protect from viruses
d)
Enable a script blocker to prevent scripts from running
153.
You have installed a screensaver application. Later, after updating your anti-virus software, a malicious program is found. This appears to have infected your system at the same time as the screensaver was installed. What class of malware is this?
a)
Trojan Horse
b)
Virus
c)
Adware
d)
Spyware
154.
Select the one UNTRUE statement in regard to cookies.
a)
It's not legal for a web site to store cookies on your computer.
b)
Spyware and adware may extract data from your cookies to track your computer use.
c)
Cookies may contain more information about you than you are aware of.
d)
A cookie is a plain text file created by a website you've visited and stored on your hard drive.
155.
Select the one UNTRUE statement in regard to browser pop-up windows.
a)
Pop-up windows are always a sign of viruses.
b)
Pop-up windows can be controlled using browser settings.
c)
Pop-up windows are usually designed to be helpful to the user.
d)
Pop-up windows are implemented using scripts or add-ons.
156.
What does a hard disk connected to a computer via a USB port describe?
a)
Direct attached storage
b)
Network printer sharing
c)
Network attached storage
d)
Cloud-based storage
157.
What type of connection would a NAS device NOT be able to use?
a)
Twisted pair (RJ-11)
b)
Wi-Fi
c)
A wired Ethernet port
d)
LAN port on a SOHO router
158.
Which protocol would be best used to provide encrypted file downloads directly from a web server?
a)
HTTPS
b)
P2P
c)
HTTP
d)
FTP
159.
When a client connects to a folder on a network server via a drive letter, what is the drive called?
a)
A mapped drive
b)
Client-server drive
c)
Shared folder
d)
Drive share
160.
Which version or edition of Windows can be used to share files with other users?
a)
Any version or edition
b)
Enterprise versions only
c)
Any non-server edition
d)
Versions and editions after Windows 7
161.
How could you access a network folder called DATA on a network server called TOWER1 using the Explorer address bar?
a)
Enter the Universal Naming Convention (UNC) path.
b)
It is not possible to access a network folder from the address bar.
c)
Enter the IP address.
d)
Enter the web address.
162.
You have made a backup of system data using a removable hard disk. Time and security are of great importance. What should you do next?
a)
Store the disk in a secure, off-site location.
b)
Make a copy of the disk on the cloud.
c)
Delete the original, since the backup is current.
d)
Complete the restore procedure.
163.
Which admin tool or screen would you use to configure a Windows computer to join a domain?
a)
The System Properties applet in Control Panel
b)
Administrative Tools in Control Panel
c)
Select Settings and choose Remote Desktop
d)
Select Settings and then Network and Internet
164.
What is the purpose of an accelerometer, as fitted in a mobile device?
a)
It is one of the components that detects how the user is moving the device around.
b)
It is a software component that provides faster access to applications.
c)
It is the software interface for speech recognition.
d)
It is the component that detects a fingerprint to unlock the screen
165.
Which feature allows data to be removed from a device if it is lost or stolen?
a)
Remote wipe
b)
Screen lock
c)
Encryption
d)
Lockout policy
166.
What type of gesture is typically used for zooming on a touchscreen?
a)
Pinch
b)
Tap-and-hold
c)
Slide
d)
Swipe
167.
What is the result of putting a phone in "airplane mode?"
a)
Wireless features are disabled.
b)
The volume is muted.
c)
GPS is connected to the airplane's system.
d)
The phone is shut down.
168.
How can a smartphone join a Wi-Fi network if the SSID is not being broadcast?
a)
Enter the network name manually, as with a computer.
b)
It is not possible.
c)
Use a generic SSID.
d)
Use the Forget Network command to bypass the network.
169.
What security concern is snooping most affected by?
a)
Confidentiality
b)
Authentication
c)
Availability
d)
Integrity
170.
What impact is presented when users reveal their passwords to technical support staff?
a)
It exposes users to social engineering attacks that try to gather login credentials for malicious use.
b)
It exposes the passwords to brute-force attacks from malicious hackers.
c)
It prevents the user from needing to change a password following the password history component of the policy.
d)
It provides technical support staff with access to the user's personal files stored on the network.
171.
What are the three main areas where redundancy should be provisioned?
a)
Data, network links, and power
b)
Circuits, power generators, Uninterruptible Power Supplies (UPSs)
c)
Authentication, authorization, and accounting
d)
RAID 1, RAID 5, and RAID 10
172.
Which specific attack uses a botnet to threaten availability?
a)
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
b)
Replay
c)
Power outage
d)
Man-in-the-Middle (MitM)
173.
What type of access mechanism is MOST vulnerable to a replay attack?
a)
Use of a token generated by software
b)
Use of a complex password
c)
Use of multi-factor authentication
d)
Use of biometrics
174.
In considering availability concerns, what use might a lockable faceplate on a server-class computer be?
a)
It may prevent the user from switching the machine on/off or accessing removable drives and ports.
b)
It may prevent the computer or server from overheating and shutting down.
c)
It may prevent a natural disaster from damaging the hardware and corrupting the data.
d)
It may prevent a hacker from obtaining remote unauthorized network access.
175.
An attacker has used a rogue access point to intercept traffic passing between wireless clients and the wired network segment. What type of attack is this?
a)
A Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack
b)
An impersonation attack
c)
A replay attack
d)
A Denial of Service (DoS) attack
176.
Which of the following is NOT a method that a malicious person can use to masquerade as someone else when using email or Instant Messaging?
a)
Overwhelm the server with a Denial of Service (DoS)
b)
Using an unattended computer that is still logged in
c)
Stealing a user's login information
d)
Using malware such as a Trojan
177.
Why is prioritization a critical task for disaster recovery?
a)
Services may have dependencies that make restoring them in the wrong order futile.
b)
System demand will need to be monitored after rebuilding to verify stability.
c)
Integrity of the data will need to be checked before access is re-enabled.
d)
Network cabling should be designed to allow for multiple paths between the various servers.
178.
What is a reputable source of management software and drivers for a particular system?
a)
An OEM website
b)
A peer-to-peer download application
c)
A third-party driver website
d)
A public forum website
179.
What is the main difference between virus and worm malware?
a)
A virus has to infect a file whereas a worm propagates in memory and over computer networks.
b)
A virus propagates in memory and over computer networks whereas a worm has to infect a file.
c)
A virus uses a macro programming language to automate tasks where as a worm executes when the application is executed.
d)
A virus uses sequences of code that insert themselves into an executable whereas a worm uses document macros.
180.
Malware encrypts the user's documents folder and any attached removable disks then extorts the user for money to release the encryption key. What type of malware is being described?
a)
Ransomware
b)
Spyware
c)
Worm
d)
Trojans
181.
Your friend sent you an email link, which you have opened, and now the browser is asking whether you should install a plug-in to view all the content on the page. What should you do next?
a)
Check whether your friend actually sent the link in good faith first.
b)
Run an antivirus scan because you have an active malware infection.
c)
Prevent the browser from installing the plug-in and change your passwords due to phishing.
d)
Allow the browser to install the plug-in as it can be uninstalled later.
182.
Which of the following configuration changes does NOT reduce the attack surface?
a)
Configuring data back-ups in case ransomware *encrypts the file system
b)
Removing unwanted and unnecessary software
c)
Disabling unused OS features and services
d)
Closing unnecessary network ports
183.
How might malware hosted on a website be able to infect your computer simply by your browsing the site?
a)
By exploiting a vulnerability in software installed on your computer
b)
By exploiting a human vulnerability related to deception
c)
By exploiting an improperly configured firewall
d)
By exploiting outdated hardware installed in the computer chassis
184.
What is the main means by which anti-virus software identifies infected files?
a)
Using definitions or signatures of known virus code
b)
Using AutoRun to execute files of unknown provenance
c)
Using signatures of zero-day exploits
d)
Using heuristics to detect suspicious behavior
185.
What are the two main ways that spam might expose recipients to hazardous content?
a)
Through malware-infected attachments and through links to malicious websites
b)
Through third-party sites hosting fake drivers and through poisoned app store applications
c)
Through websites vulnerable to cross-site scripting and through fake login pages
d)
Through vulnerable web browser add-ons and through unpatched operating systems
186.
What is it called when antivirus software remediates a system by blocking access to an infected file but not actually deleting it.
a)
Quarantining the file
b)
Cleaning the infection
c)
Updating the signatures
d)
Erasing the file
187.
How might spyware be able to steal a password?
a)
By monitoring key strokes or stealing a password database
b)
By forcing the use of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption
c)
By performing a Man-in-the-Middle attack over Wi-Fi
d)
By installing ransomware that locks users out of their files
188.
What type of system allows a user to authenticate once to access multiple services?
a)
Single Sign-On (SSO)
b)
A one-time password
c)
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
d)
Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
189.
Which non-discretionary access control type is based on the idea of security clearance levels?
a)
Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
b)
Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
c)
Role-based Access Control (RBAC)
d)
Rule-based access control
190.
What system policy ensures that users do not receive rights unless granted explicitly?
a)
Implicit deny
b)
Allow all
c)
Least privilege
d)
Deny all
191.
What sort of account allows someone to access a computer without providing a user name or password?
a)
Guest account
b)
Microsoft Account
c)
Administrator account
d)
User account
192.
What does AAA stand for and in which order are they typically performed?
a)
Authentication, Authorization, Accounting
b)
Accounting, Authorization, Access control
c)
Accounting, Authorization, Authentication
d)
Authentication, Appropriation, Accounting
193.
What type of cryptographic operation(s) are intended to be non-reversible?
a)
Hashing
b)
Key-pair
c)
Symmetric
d)
Asymmetric
194.
What class of data is a transport encryption protocol designed to protect?
a)
Data in transit
b)
Data in storage
c)
Data being hashed
d)
Data at rest
195.
A user sends an email to another user. The email sender receives a delivery receipt from the receiving server. Which security-related concept validates that the email was successfully delivered?
a)
Non-repudiation
b)
Authorization
c)
Accounting
d)
Authentication
196.
What are the four processes of an access control system?
a)
Identification, authentication, authorization, and accounting
b)
Subjects, objects, Access Control Lists (ACLs), and permissions
c)
DAC, RBAC, MAC, and rule-based
d)
User, default, administrator, and guest
197.
What technique makes password cracking fairly easy?
a)
Using simple words or names as a password
b)
Including numbers, special characters, and letters
c)
Choosing a passphrase instead of a password
d)
Reusing the password across many sites
198.
How does a one-time password work?
a)
A unique password is generated using an algorithm known to both a device (fob) and the authenticating server.
b)
A temporary password is sent to a user via email after requesting a password reset.
c)
The existing password is sent to a user after having requested a password change on a website.
d)
A user must enter a hardware token, like a smart card, and enter a password or PIN.
199.
Which of the following is NOT a privacy issue that is related to using a social networking site?
a)
You need to ensure that private information is physically shredded prior to disposal.
b)
You need to know how the company processes, stores, and transfers or sells any data it collects about you.
c)
You need to control how far the information that you post to the site is distributed.
d)
You can never take back information that is publicly posted, as others may have downloaded or duplicated it.
200.
What is a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)?
a)
An inflexible, step-by-step listing of the actions that must be completed for any given task
b)
General instructions for when situations have not been fully assessed or because the decision-making process is too complex
c)
A measure by which to evaluate compliance with the policy
d)
Policies that include privilege management, data/information handling, incident response, and use of company devices
201.
What type of information would NOT be considered confidential and governed by classification and handling procedures?
a)
Website information
b)
Personally identifiable information
c)
Company confidential information
d)
Customer information
202.
Why might a company ban use of the corporate network and desktop software for personal communications?
a)
The company might be held responsible for inappropriate content posted by its employees.
b)
The company wants employees to focus 100% of their energy on job duties.
c)
The company has purchased, and therefore owns, the network and software.
d)
The company's resources are too limited to allow personal use.
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