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CT QUIZ

Total questions: 203

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This requires a water filled bag for patient positioning and detector normalization during scanning.

a)

1st gen

b)

4th gen

c)

6th gen

d)

7th gen

2.

CT scanner was made up of only two x-ray detectors, which were located on the opposite side of the patient from where the x-ray tube was situated.

a)

1st gen

b)

2nd gen

c)

3rd gen

d)

5th gen

3.

They demonstrate the feasibility of functional marriage of detector-source assembly.

a)

1st gen

b)

2nd gen

c)

3rd gen

d)

5th gen

4.

CT scanners that is very powerful in terms of reduction of scatter reduction.

a)

6th gen

b)

7th gen

c)

1st gen

d)

2nd gen

5.

This is considered a demonstration project.

a)

1st gen

b)

2nd gen

c)

3rd gen

d)

4th gen

6.

Rotate/Translate narrow Fan Beam.

a)

2nd gen

b)

3rd gen

c)

1st gen

d)

4th gen

7.

CT scanner involved an x-ray fan beam with an angle ranging between 40 to 60 degrees.

a)

2nd gen

b)

3rd gen

c)

4th gen

d)

1st gen

8.

This scanner used a pinhole collimator to ensure only a single beam of x-rays was interacting with the patient.

a)

3rd gen

b)

1st gen

c)

2nd gen

d)

5th gen

9.

CT scanner with the incorporation of a narrow fan x-ray beam with an angle of approximately 10 degrees resulting in a linear array of 30 detectors.

a)

1st gen

b)

2nd gen

c)

5th gen

d)

7th gen

10.

This scanners evolved in which the x-ray tube and the detector array were rotated concentrically around the patient.

a)

3rd gen

b)

4th gen

c)

2nd gen

d)

5th gen

11.

This generation CT has new array consisted of 400 to 1000 detector elements.

a)

3rd gen

b)

1st gen

c)

7th gen

d)

6th gen

12.

Radiation detection is accomplished through a fixed circular array of detectors which contains 1000-2000 individual element.

a)

4th gen

b)

5th gen

c)

6th gen

d)

7th gen

13.

This produces characteristic image artifacts known as ring artifacts.

a)

1st gen

b)

5th gen

c)

3rd gen

d)

4th gen

14.

This uses curvilinear array containing many detectors and a fan beam.

a)

1st gen

b)

7th gen

c)

2nd gen

d)

3rd gen

15.

CT scanners that are said to operate using a rotate-stationary geometry.

a)

1st gen

b)

5th gen

c)

4th gen

d)

2nd gen

16.

CT scanner is composed of no moving parts.

a)

5th gen

b)

4th gen

c)

6th gen

d)

1st gen

17.

Generation scanner have a rotate only motion.

a)

1st gen

b)

3rd gen

c)

2nd gen

d)

4th gen

18.

Generation scanner that the x-ray tube can rotate either outside or inside the detector ring.

a)

4th gen

b)

2nd gen

c)

6th gen

d)

7th gen

19.

CT scanners were developed specifically for use in cardiac tomography imaging.

a)

6th gen

b)

5th gen

c)

4th gen

d)

7th gen

20.

These unit are capable of 1 second scanning time can accommodate variable slice thickness through automatic pre patient collimation and can provide image manipulation capabilities of earlier scanners.

a)

1st gen

b)

3rd gen

c)

2nd gen

d)

4th gen

21.

Known as helical CT.

a)

7th gen

b)

1st gen

c)

4th gen

d)

6th gen

22.

CT scanner consists of a multiple detector array and a cone shaped x-ray beam.

a)

7th gen

b)

6th gen

c)

5th gen

d)

3rd gen

23.

An Australian mathematician who proved that an image of 3 dimensional objects can be produced

a)

Vallebona

b)

J. Radon

c)

Cormack

d)

Hounsfield

24.

1st CT scan machine

a)

Electron Beam CT

b)

ACTA

c)

Helical

d)

EMI scanner

25.

He proposed a method to represent a single slice of the body on the radiographic film. (TOPOGRAPHY).

a)

Dotter

b)

Hounsfield

c)

Vallebona

d)

Radon

26.

Refers to a method of obtaining sectional views of the body that eliminates x-ray shadows of body structures before and behind the desired

a)

Axial

b)

Computerized

c)

Tomography

d)

None

27.

Time between the end of imaging and the appearance of an image.

a)

Translation

b)

Imaging time

c)

Reconstruction time

d)

Projection

28.

It refers to movement of source-detector assembly across the patient; - Results in a projection

a)

Refraction

b)

Reflection

c)

Translation

d)

Attenuation

29.

A selectable scan factor based on the Hounsfield scale

a)

CRT

b)

DAS

c)

CT number

d)

none

30.

Area of information on reconstructed image that does not exist in reality

a)

Attenuation

b)

CRT

c)

Pixel

d)

Artifacts

31.

An intensity profile

a)

Algorithm

b)

Projection

c)

Reconstruction time

d)

Reconstruction

32.

Television screen use to display CT image and to communicate withy computer

a)

gantry

b)

CRT

c)

DAS

d)

none

33.

The motion of the x-ray tube and radiation detection system required to collect data for reconstructing CT images

a)

Scout image

b)

Slice

c)

Scan

d)

Voxel

34.

Computer programs that controls CT system

Hardware

Software

Scan

Scan image

a)

hardware

b)

software

c)

scan

d)

scan image

35.

Cross sectional thickness of the body parts that is scanned for generating CT images.

a)

Scout image

b)

Software

c)

Scan

d)

Slice

36.

Basic elements that defines the volume of a tissue that each pixel represents in a reconstructed image.

a)

Voxel

b)

Pixel

c)

Matrix

d)

Slice

37.

This is the x-ray tube and radiation detection system that measures the amount of radiation passing through the patient.

a)

Pixel

b)

Matrix

c)

DAS

d)

Voxel

38.

Frameworks that holds the x-ray tube and detection system

 

a)

Matrix

b)

Pixel

c)

DAS

d)

Gantry

39.

Two dimentional picture element that makes up the matrix. Each pixel represents a CT number is thebuilding block of the matrix and image.

a)

Voxel

b)

Matrix

c)

Pixel

d)

Attenuation

40.

This indicates that a series of images is then combined into a single 3 dimentional image by computer means.

 

a)

Tomography

b)

Computerized

c)

Attenuation

d)

Attenuation

41.

The following are the major systems of CT, EXCEPT?

a)

Image display

b)

Imaging system

c)

computer system

d)

none

42.

The following are purposes of the imaging system, EXCEPT?

a)

Shapes & filters (hardens) beam

b)

To Produce x-ray

c)

Convert transmitted photons

d)

none

43.

These are part of the operator's area.

a)

Computer

b)

Patient table

c)

Gantry assembly

d)

Power

44.

This is a part of the electronic room.

a)

storage

b)

Power

c)

Display

d)

recording

45.

The following are major components of CT, EXCEPT?

a)

Scanner room

b)

Computer room

c)

Operators area

d)

none

46.

This is a component of the imaging system, EXCEPT?

a)

X-ray generator

b)

X-ray tube

c)

Detector

d)

none

47.

The heat capacity of the x-ray tube in CT.

a)

2.5 MHU

b)

1.5MHU

c)

5.5 MHU

d)

none

48.

The generator supplies power to the following, EXCEPT?

a)

Filament

b)

High voltage section

c)

X-ray tube

d)

none

49.

This maintain the width of the beam as it travels toward the patient.

a)

DAS

b)

sensor

c)

Detectors

d)

none

50.

This protects patient from low energy photons.

a)

Filters

b)

Collimators

c)

X-ray tube

d)

Glass envelope

51.

The following are function of filtration system, EXCEPT?

provides a beam closer to mono-energetic

provides a more uniform beam

* Restrict the filed of exposure

Protects patient from low energy photons

a)

provides a beam closer to mono-energetic

b)

provides a more uniform beam

c)

Restrict the filed of exposure

d)

Protects patient from low energy photons

52.

This collect attenuated photon energy and convert it to electrical signal, which will then be converted to a digital signal for computer reconstruction.

a)

Added filtration

b)

Inherent filtration

c)

Filters

d)

detectors

53.

The path that an x-ray beam travels from tube to a single detector.

a)

Detector array

b)

Ray

c)

ray sum

d)

Projection

54.

A complete set of ray sums.

a)

Projection

b)

Detector array

c)

Ray

d)

none

55.

This refers to the method by which the patient is scanned to obtain enough data for image reconstruction.

a)

AD converter

b)

Sensor

c)

DAS

d)

Signal conditioning circuitry

56.

Scan technique that utilizes a continuous rotating gantry and data acquisition system at a rate of one rotation per second.

a)

Cluster scanning

b)

Basic scanning

c)

Spiral scanning

d)

Conventional scanning

57.

The following are advantages of pitch detector, EXCEPT?

a)

Capability to obtain volume of anatomy

b)

No problem with mis-registration

c)

Acquire image very quickly

d)

May increase contrast quantity

58.

The following are disadvantages of pitch detectors, EXCEPT?

 

a)

X-ray tube heat demand is significant

b)

Demands exact contrast timing

c)

Artifacts due to induced patient mo on

d)

High mA compromising image quality

59.

This is usually with one breath hold and obtain a volume of X-rayed tissue while the table moves rapidly through the gantry.

a)

Partial scan

b)

Spiral scan

c)

Over scan

d)

Dynamic scan

60.

The following are advantages of dynamic scan, EXCEPT?

a)

Increases examination time

b)

table moves in different locations

c)

Follows rapid passage of intravenous contrast

d)

none

61.

Known as localized scan.

a)

Scout scan

b)

Scan cycle time

c)

Interscan delay

d)

Cycle time

62.

The time required for slice to be scanned, reconstructed, displayed and filmed.

a)

Cycle time

b)

Scan cycle time

c)

Interscan delay

d)

Dynamic scan

63.

The time of actual exposure per slice.

a)

Scan Time

b)

Interscan delay

c)

Dynamic scan

d)

Cycle time

64.

This is done to avoid any mis-registration due to difference in the 1st and last tube position.

a)

Scan cycle time

b)

Interscan delay

c)

Scout scan

d)

Over scan

65.

The following are events that will occur when x-ray hits an object. EXCEPT?

a)

Refraction

b)

Scattering

c)

Transmission

d)

Absorption

66.

 

The following are patient based artifacts, except?

 

a)

Jewelry artifacts

b)

Motion artifacts

c)

Ring artifacts

d)

Clothing artifacts

67.

The following are examples of helical and multichannel artifacts, except?

a)

Cupping artifacts

b)

Cone beam artifacts

c)

MPR artifacts

d)

Windmill artifacts

68.

These are examples of hardware based artifacts, except?

a)

Out of field

b)

Tube artifacts

c)

Ring artifacts

d)

Cone beam effect

69.

This is an example of MPR artifacts

a)

Cupping artifacts

b)

Cone beam artifacts

c)

Photon starvation

d)

Zebra artifacts

70.

This is an example of physics based artifacts

a)

Air bubble artifacts

b)

Windmill artifacts

c)

Quantum mottle

d)

Stair step artifacts

71.

This is the phenomenon that occurs when an x-ray beam comprised of polychromatic energies passes through an object, resulting in selective attenuation of lower energy photons

a)

Windmill artifacts

b)

Beam hardening

c)

Out of field artifacts

d)

Air bubble artifacts

72.

This artifact appears as multiple dark streaking bands positioned between two dense objects, for example at the posterior fossa

a)

streaking

b)

Cupping

c)

Partial volume

d)

Noise

73.

This information that is not part of a desired signal, is present in all electronic systems, and originates from a number of sources including electronic interference

a)

Out of field

b)

Partial volume

c)

Cupping

d)

Noise

74.

This occurs when tissues of widely different absorption are encompassed on the same CT voxel producing a beam attenuation proportional to the average value of these tissues

a)

Aliasing artifacts

b)

Partial volume artifacts

c)

Photon starvation

d)

Noise

75.

Refers to an error in the accuracy proponent of analog to digital converter (ADC) during image digitization

a)

Aliasing artifacts

b)

Quantum mottle

c)

Photon starvation

d)

Air bubble artifacts

76.

This is one source of streak artifact which may occur in CT and it is seen in high attenuation areas, particularly behind metal implants

a)

Photon starvation

b)

Ring artifacts

c)

Quantum mottle

d)

Aliasing

77.

This depends on the number of discrete x-ray photons reaching the detector

a)

Aliasing artifacts

b)

noise

c)

Photon starvation

d)

Out of field artifacts

78.

This occurs when there is a short-circuit within the tube, typically from the cathode to the tube envelope

a)

Incomplete projection artifacts

b)

Photon starvation

c)

Air bubble artifacts

d)

Tube arching

79.

This is due to the presence of abdominal gas in the oil coolant which surrounds the x-ray tube

a)

Motion artifacts

b)

Photon starvation

c)

Cupping

d)

none

80.

This is due to part of the patient existing peripheral to the field of view of the CT scanner

a)

Zebra stripes

b)

Stairstep

c)

Photon starvation

d)

Incomplete projection artifacts

81.

CT phenomenon that occurs due to mis-calibration or failure of one or more detector elements in a T scanner

a)

Out of field

b)

Ring artifacts

c)

Windmill artifacts

d)

Incomplete projection artifacts

82.

They occur close to the isocenter of the scan and are usually visible on multiple slices at the same location they are a common problem in cranial CT.

a)

Windmill artifacts

b)

Air bubble artifacts

c)

Ring artifacts

d)

Incomplete projection artifacts

83.

This is an image distortion in the axial plane, encountered during helical multidetector acquisitions.

a)

Windmill artifacts

b)

Cupping

c)

Photon starvation

d)

Air bubble artifacts

84.

This appear as alternating bright and dark bands in a MRI image.

a)

Zebra stripes

b)

Stair step

c)

Photon starvation

d)

Aliasing artifacts

85.

This is caused by inadequate data sampling in the z-plane, due to multiple detector rows intersecting the reconstruction plane during each rotation of the gantry.

 

a)

Incomplete projection artifacts

b)

Windmill artifacts

c)

artifacts

d)

Photon starvation

86.

Contrast-enhanced ultrasound with microbubbles is used in the assessment of: EXCEPT:

a)

blood perfusion in organs

b)

liver and kidney masses

c)

thrombosis, such as in myocardial infarction

d)

FORGOT THE ANSWER HEKHEK

87.

These conditions could affect the instructions you are given, EXCEPT?

a)

Recent illnesses, surgeries, or other medical conditions

b)

History of asthma and hay fever

c)

Previous allergic reactions to herbal medicine

d)

Allergies to food, drugs, dyes, preservatives, or animals

88.

The following are mild side effects of Ba Sulfate, EXCEPT?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Drop in BP

c)

Vomiting

d)

Nausea

89.

You are at greater risk of an adverse reaction to barium sulfate contrast materials if?

a)

Asthma

b)

Vomiting

c)

Nausea

d)

none

90.

 

Mild reactions includes the following, EXCEPT?

a)

Flushing

b)

Headache

c)

Wheezing

d)

Itching

91.

Moderate reactions include the following, EXCEPT?

a)

Severe skin rash

b)

Abnormal heart rhythms

c)

Convulsions

d)

Shortness of breath

92.

Severe reactions include?

a)

Wheezing

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Profound low blood pressure

d)

none

93.

Manufacturers of intravenous contrast provide special instructions for mothers who are breast feeding, they advise that mothers should not breast-feed their babies for _______ hours after contrast medium is given

a)

24-48

b)

8-12

c)

12-24

d)

none

94.

When an iodine based contrast material is is injected into your bloodstream you may have the following, EXCEPT?

a)

Flushes

b)

Metallic taste

c)

Coolness in the site of injection

d)

Warm sensation

95.

These are conditions that may increase risk of CIN, EXCEPT?

 

a)

Having received a large amount of contrast material within the past 8 hours

b)

Renal disease

c)

Heart disease

d)

Dehydration

96.

It is a good idea to increase your fluid intake after an imaging exam involving an iodine-based contrast material to help improved the contrast material from your body

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

97.

If you are sedated, no recovery period is necessary

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

98.

Many imaging tests and contrast material administrations are done during pregnancy to minimize risk to the baby

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

99.

If the mother remains concerned about any potential ill effects, she should be given, the opportunity to make an informed decision as to whether t continue or temporarily abstain from breast-feeding after receiving a gadolinium contrast medium

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

100.

Contrast materials are dyes that permanently discolor internal organs

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

101.

The thicker the slice the better the resolution but the worse the noise

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

102.

Thinner slices increase the partial volume effects

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

103.

Thin slices allow isotropic scanning

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

104.

Isotropic scanning improved volume rendering

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

105.

Z-sensitivity refers to the effective imaged slice width

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

106.

The wider (in the z-axis) the detector row, the higher the resolution

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

107.

A broad focal spot improves the z-sensitivity

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

108.

Acquiring the data using overlapping slices can improve z-sensitivity

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

109.

To improve spatial frequency we can decrease the matrix size

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

110.

Larger number of projections gives finer resolution

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

111.

Lower resolution kernels do not average out high spatial frequency signals and therefore produce more noise

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

112.

Higher resolution or “sharp” kernels (e.g. bone reconstruction) have better spatial resolution than soft kernels (e.g. soft tissue reconstruction)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

113.

Smaller detectors give higher resolution but more detectors within an area also means more partitions (dead space) and a reduced overall detection efficiency

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

114.

If the position of the focal spot moves in the X-Y plane, then the in-plane resolution increases.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

115.

Smaller focal spots give higher resolution, but the max mA is limited to prevent damage to anode

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

116.

The term slice refers to the number of rows of detectors in the z-axis of a CT

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

117.

The limitation with using a SSCT was that the thinner slices requiring high image-quality were not achievable unless the region to be scanned was very restricted, leading to low-quality images.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

118.

The first scanner with more than one row of detectors was introduced by Elscint in 1992 and was called the CT-Twin

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

119.

The first “modern” versions of MSCT scanners were developed and introduced in 1998 and simultaneously acquired 4 slices

a)

true

b)

false

120.

With technologies such as automatic exposure control (AEC) and iterative reconstruction (IR), a patient scanned on a higher slice CT will receive significantly lower doses of radiation than a patient on a lower dose CT scanner.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

121.

The following are other names for CT, EXCEPT?

a)

CAT

b)

CTAT

c)

CRT

d)

NONE

122.

Indicates a series of cross sectional x-ray images made along a chosen body axis.​

a)

Tomography

b)

computerized

c)

axial

d)

none

123.

     process of energy absorption or scattering , describe by the percent of radiation remaining after x-rays passes through object.​

a)

computerized

b)

attenuation

c)

radiation

d)

none

124.

The following are storage requirement for CT, EXCEPT?

a)

Kilobytes

b)

megabytes

c)

gigabyte or terabytes

d)

none

125.

A transaxial/transverse image

a)

CT image

b)

Scout imgae

c)

Axial

d)

none

126.

has a dynamic range of 12 bits (4096 gray levels)

a)

detector signal

b)

matrix

c)

pixel

d)

voxel

127.

Computer-adapted mathematical calculation applied to raw data during image reconstruction .

a)

Algorithm

b)

Pixel size

c)

matrix size

d)

CT number

128.

Creation of an image from raw data.

a)

Projection

b)

Reconstruction

c)

Attenuation

d)

Reconstruction time

129.

the year when Haunsfield first demonstrated the CT technique.

a)

1970

b)

1980

c)

1979

d)

1974

130.

the year when first clinical CT scanners were installed.

a)

1972-1974

b)

1970-1980

c)

1970-1974

d)

none

131.

  Hounsfield & Allan Mcleod Cormack shared the Nobel Prize in Physics

a)

1977

b)

1993

c)

1979

d)

1974

132.

the year when CT scan machine became widely available.

a)

1980

b)

1990

c)

1970

d)

1994

133.

1st CT system that could make images of any part of the body .

a)

EMI scanner

b)

ACTA

c)

CT scan

d)

none

134.

Plane of the image is parallel to the long axis of the body

a)

CONVENTIONAL/AXIAL TOMOGRAPHY

b)

COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY

c)

X-RAY

d)

NONE

135.

  Plane of image is perpendicular to the long axis of the body

a)

Computed tomography

b)

Axial Tomography

c)

Conventional tomography

d)

none

136.

The electron beam tomography CT

a)

2nd gen

b)

4th gen

c)

5th gen

d)

6th gen

137.

To scan the patient, the patient table is moved through the gantry aperture.

a)

Gantry tilt

b)

gantry

c)

gantry aperture

d)

none

138.

__________ is the angle between the vertical plane, and the plane containing the x-ray beam and the detector array.

a)

gantry tilt

b)

gantry aperture

c)

gantry angulation

d)

none

139.

___________ _allows aligning the selected anatomic region with the scanning plane.

a)

gantry angulation

b)

gantry tilt

c)

gantry aperture

d)

NONE

140.

_________ is the opening through which the table with the patient moves for the examination.

a)

gantry aperture

b)

gantry table

c)

gantry tilt

d)

none

141.

Typical diameters of the gantry range fom ______ cm.

a)

70-85

b)

50-85

c)

70-80

d)

NONE

142.

The antry aperture diameters between ______ cm are useful for obese patients.

a)

50-85

b)

70-85

c)

50-80

d)

NONE

143.

The anode heating capacity must be at least _______

a)

500 HU

b)

5,000 HU

c)

500,000 HU

d)

50,000 HU

144.

CT tubes may produce 30 exposures per examination and most CT units maybe scheduled 10-20 examination per day or around 10,000 examinations per month.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

145.

Focal spot size is relatively unimportant in most design since the scanner is not based on the principle of direct geometry.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

146.

    Pulsed beam at tube current approaching to _______

a)

100 mA

b)

10 mA

c)

1000 mA

d)

none

147.

  Early CT scanner employed one detector , Contemporary scanners use multiple detectors in an array from 10-1000.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

148.

   Converts x-ray energy into light.

a)

Gas Filled detectors

b)

Scintillation Detector

c)

      Detector Dose Efficiency

d)

NONE

149.

Convert x-ray energy directly into electrical signal.

a)

Gas Filled detectors

b)

Scintillation Detector

c)

     Detector Dose Efficiency

d)

none

150.

___________ is how well the detectors received photons from the patient. It is controlled primarily by the detector size and distance between them.

a)

Conversion Efficiency

b)

Absorption Efficiency

c)

Capture efficiency

d)

none

151.

__________ is how well the detector converts incoming x-ray photon. It is determined by the materials used( Kind of crystal and gas ) as well as the size and thickness of the detector.

a)

Capture efficiency

b)

Absorption Efficiency

c)

Conversion Efficiency

d)

none

152.

____________is how well the detectors converts absorbed photons information to a digital signal.

a)

Conversion Efficiency

b)

Absorption Efficiency

c)

Capture efficiency

d)

none

153.

___________    refers to the steadiness of the detector response, it is controlled by how often the detectors must be recalibrated to meet the quality control standard.

a)

stability

b)

response time

c)

dynamic range

d)

none

154.

________     is the speed with which the detector can react to recognized an incoming photons and recover from the next.

a)

response time

b)

dynamic range

c)

stability

d)

none

155.

__________ is the ratio of the largest signal that can be measured to the smallest to be discriminated.

a)

dynamic range

b)

response time

c)

stability

d)

none

156.

attenuation measurement of each ray

a)

ray sum

b)

ray

c)

detector aray

d)

translation

157.

uses a crystal that fluoresces when struck by x-ray photon which produces light energy

a)

Scintillation detectors

b)

Sensors

c)

photodiode

d)

none

158.

attached to scintillation portion, transforms light energy into electrical or analog energy

a)

Scintillation detectors

b)

photodiode

c)

sensors

d)

analog-digital converters

159.

converts the analog signal from the detector into a digital signal

a)

DAS

b)

sensors

c)

Signal conditioning circuitry

d)

Analog-to-digital converters

160.

      to convert physical parameters to electrical signals.

a)

sensors

b)

analog-digital converter

c)

Signal conditioning circuitry

d)

DAS

161.

•      , to convert sensor signals into a form that can be converted to digital values.

a)

Signal conditioning circuitry

b)

Analog-to-digital converters

c)

Sensors,

d)

DAS

162.

     to convert conditioned sensor signals to digital values.

a)

sensors

b)

DAS

c)

Analog-to-digital converters

d)

Signal conditioning circuitry

163.

The following are physics based artifacts, EXCEPT?

a)

   beam hardening

b)

photon starvation

c)

quantum mottle

d)

    ring artifact

164.

The following are hard-ware based artifacts, EXCEPT?

a)

    tube arcing

b)

   air bubble artifact

c)

    out of field artifact

d)

beam hardening

165.

The following are examples of Helical and multichannel artifact, EXCEPT?

a)

Windmill artifacts

b)

cone beam effect

c)

MPR

d)

none

166.

The following are examples of MPR artifacts, EXCEPT?

a)

zebra artifact

b)

stair step artifacts

c)

windmill artifact

d)

none

167.

   is a patient-based artifact that occurs with voluntary or involuntary patient movement during image acquisition.

(a)  

168.

which appear as blurring, streaking, or shading, are caused by patient movement during a CT scan

(a)  

169.

    is a common flow artifact seen in CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) studies.

(a)  

170.

is more common in pregnant women due to increased intra-abdominal pressure and becomes less common as patient age increases

(a)  

171.

is the phenomenon that occurs when an x-ray beam comprised of polychromatic energies passes through an object, resulting in selective attenuation of lower energy photons.

(a)  

172.

appears as multiple dark streaking bands positioned between two dense objects,

(a)  

173.

may also occur along the long axis of a single high attenuation object.

(a)  

174.

It is the result of the polychromatic x-ray being ‘hardened’ at different rates according to rotational position of the tube/detector.

(a)  

175.

occurs when tissues of widely different absorption are encompassed on the same CT voxel producing a beam attenuation

(a)  

176.

information that is not part of a desired signal, is present in all electronic systems, and originates from a number of sources including electronic interference.

(a)  

177.

in CT depends on the number of discrete x-ray photons reaching the detector.

(a)  

178.

is one source of streak artifact which may occur in CT. It is seen in high attenuation areas, particularly behind metal implants.

(a)  

179.

   CT refers to an error in the accuracy proponent of analog to digital converter (ADC) during image digitization. 

(a)  

180.

are a CT phenomenon that occurs due to miscalibration or failure of one or more detector elements in a CT scanner.

(a)  

181.

Less often, it can be caused by insufficient radiation dose or contrast material contamination of the detector cover 

(a)  

182.

They occur close to the isocenter of the scan and are usually visible on multiple slices at the same location.

(a)  

183.

occurs when there is a short-circuit within the tube, typically from the cathode to the tube envelope. The result is a temporary loss of x-ray output and a localized artifact.

(a)  

184.

is an image distortion in the axial plane, encountered during helical multidetector acquisitions.

(a)  

185.

is caused by inadequate data sampling in the z-plane, due to multiple detector rows intersecting the reconstruction plane during each rotation of the gantry

(a)  

186.

artifact is found in straight structures which are oriented obliquely with respect to movement of the table and appear around the edges of sagittal and coronal reformatted images

(a)  

187.

     The acquisition of a single image per breath hold.

a)

Basic/Conventional scanning

b)

Cluster Scanning

c)

Helical Scanning

d)

none

188.

acquisition of a group or cluster of rapid scan during a single breath hold. Patient breath in between cluster, this reduces acquisition time

a)

Basic/Conventional scanning

b)

Cluster Scanning

c)

Helical Scanning

d)

none

189.

   Minimize mis-registration of targeted anatomy that cam occur when patients hold breath for every scan.

a)

Cluster Scanning

b)

Basic/Conventional scanning

c)

spiral /continuous scanning

d)

none

190.

used and is defined as table distance traveled in one 360° gantry rotation divided by beam collimation 

(a)  

191.

time required for slice to be scanned, reconstructed, displayed and filmed.

a)

Cycle time

b)

scout scan

c)

scan time

d)

response time

192.

patient/table moves through the gantry. A localized scan.

a)

scout scan

b)

scan time

c)

cycle scan

d)

none

193.

time from the end of one exposure/scan to the start of the next exposure/scan . Table incrementation occurs during this delay.

a)

Interscan delay

b)

Scan cycle time

c)

scout scan

d)

none

194.

time from the start of one scan to the start of the next.

a)

scan cycle time

b)

scout scan

c)

scan time

d)

none

195.

is due to the different tissue in the body having different attenuation values.

a)

Acquisition matrix

b)

Contrast in an image

c)

Attenuation

d)

none

196.

    definition of scanning area and how many points of data will be acquired.

a)

Acquisition matrix

b)

Contrast in an image

c)

Attenuation

d)

none

197.

•      is the diameter of area to be scanned.

a)

Analytical method

b)

Back- Projection

c)

Scan field of view

d)

Voxel

198.

the process where in image is created by reflecting attenuation  profiles in the same direction they are obtained.

a)

Algorithm

b)

Filtered back projection

c)

Back- Projection

d)

Convolution

199.

•      a mathematical filter function which eliminates star/streaking patterns that result in back-projection.

a)

convolution

b)

Filtered back projection

c)

Analytical method

d)

Back- Projection

200.

manipulation of the raw data to construct an image using different display FOV or algorithm. This can be done if the data is still available.

a)

Targeting

b)

Segmentation

c)

Clip artifact suppression

d)

Reformatting

201.

reconstruction of only a portion /segment of the entire scan. This can be used to try to eliminate a portion of the scan where motion may have occurred.

a)

segmentation

b)

targeting

c)

Reformatting

d)

Clip artifact suppression

202.

the removal of star artifacts from surgical clips or other metal objects.

a)

Clip artifact suppression

b)

Reformatting

c)

Segmentation

d)

targeting

203.

creation of an image in a different orthogonal plane.

a)

reformatting

b)

targeting

c)

segmentation

d)

clip suppression