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NUR 114 Study Quizizz

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 2hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The lab value that should alert the nurse to an increased risk for coronary artery disease due to atherosclerosis in a male adult client is:

a)

Elevated LDL cholesterol

b)

Low HDL cholesterol

c)

Normal triglycerides

d)

Low total cholesterol

2.

Assessment findings that would lead a nurse to suspect autonomic neuropathy in a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus include:

a)

Orthostatic hypotension, gastroparesis, and decreased sweating

b)

Increased deep tendon reflexes and muscle spasms

c)

Sudden weight gain and increased appetite

d)

Frequent urination and excessive thirst

3.

Which client statement demonstrates understanding of how to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease?

a)

I will exercise regularly and eat a diet low in saturated fats.

b)

I will increase my salt intake to maintain blood pressure.

c)

I will avoid all fruits and vegetables to reduce sugar intake.

d)

I will only visit my doctor if I feel chest pain.

4.

Which of the following client statements reflects accurate understanding of how to take sublingual nitroglycerin for angina?

a)

"I will place the tablet under my tongue and let it dissolve completely before swallowing."

b)

"I will swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water."

c)

"I will chew the tablet for faster relief."

d)

"I will place the tablet on top of my tongue and swallow it immediately."

5.

For a client with hyperlipidemia and elevated liver function tests, which medication order should the nurse prioritize for follow-up with the provider?

a)

Statin

b)

Aspirin

c)

Beta-blocker

d)

Calcium channel blocker

6.

The nurse should respond to a patient with arteriosclerosis asking about the importance of quitting smoking by explaining that:

a)

Quitting smoking reduces the risk of further damage to blood vessels.

b)

Quitting smoking has no effect on arteriosclerosis.

c)

Quitting smoking only benefits lung health, not blood vessels.

d)

Quitting smoking is only necessary if the patient has high blood pressure.

7.

The nurse should emphasize which key lifestyle change when educating a client with atherosclerosis?

a)

Decrease physical activity

b)

Decrease saturated fat intake

c)

Reduce fiber consumption

d)

Limit water intake

8.

The nurse should include which intervention in the care plan for a client with deep vein thrombosis receiving anticoagulation therapy?

a)

Encourage early ambulation and monitor for signs of bleeding

b)

Apply cold compresses to the affected limb

c)

Massage the affected leg to improve circulation

d)

Restrict all fluid intake to prevent swelling

9.

Which of the following are signs and symptoms a nurse should expect in a client with congestive heart failure?

a)

Shortness of breath, edema, and fatigue

b)

Fever, rash, and joint pain

c)

Increased appetite, weight loss, and insomnia

d)

Jaundice, itching, and dark urine

10.

The nurse would anticipate which of the following findings in a client diagnosed with left-sided heart failure?

a)

Crackles in the lungs

b)

Peripheral edema

c)

Jugular vein distention

d)

Hepatomegaly

11.

Which client statement during discharge teaching indicates effective understanding of heart failure management?

a)

I should slow down if I experience chest pain or dyspnea

b)

I can stop taking my medications once I feel better.

c)

I should drink as much fluid as possible to stay hydrated.

d)

I do not need to monitor my salt intake.

12.

Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching about the DASH diet?

a)

"I cannot eat any nonfat dairy foods when on the DASH diet."

b)

"I should include more fruits and vegetables in my meals."

c)

"Low-fat dairy products are recommended on the DASH diet."

d)

"The DASH diet helps to lower blood pressure."

13.

Which admission order should raise concern for the nurse when reviewing orders for a client with a deep vein thrombosis in the left leg?

a)

Apply sequential compression device (SCD) to the lower legs

b)

Apply compression stockings to the lower legs

c)

Elevate the left leg on pillows

d)

Administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed

14.

The following laboratory findings support the diagnosis of atherosclerosis:

a)

Elevated LDL cholesterol levels

b)

Low blood glucose levels

c)

Decreased triglyceride levels

d)

High HDL cholesterol levels

15.

The nurse should provide which dietary guidance to a client with chronic cholecystitis and recurrent biliary colic?

a)

Follow a low-fat diet to reduce biliary colic episodes.

b)

Increase intake of high-fat foods to promote bile flow.

c)

Consume large, infrequent meals to rest the gallbladder.

d)

Avoid all carbohydrates to prevent gallbladder irritation.

16.

Assessment findings the nurse would expect in a client with a common bile duct obstruction from chronic cholecystitis include:

a)

Jaundice and clay-colored stools

b)

Bradycardia and hypertension

c)

Polyuria and polydipsia

d)

Hyperactive bowel sounds and diarrhea

17.

Which client statement indicates appropriate understanding of an upcoming Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedure for cholelithiasis?

a)

I understand that an ERCP procedure involves looking in my bile ducts and if there is a stone, it will be removed.

b)

I can eat a light meal right before the ERCP procedure.

c)

I will be able to drive myself home immediately after the ERCP procedure.

d)

I do not need to stop taking my blood thinners before the ERCP procedure.

18.

An appropriate nursing intervention for a client following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is:

a)

Encouraging early ambulation to prevent complications

b)

Restricting fluid intake for 24 hours

c)

Keeping the client on strict bed rest for 48 hours

d)

Applying heat packs to the abdomen continuously

19.

The nurse should expect which assessment findings in a client with acute right-sided heart failure?

a)

Increased central venous pressure (CVP)

b)

Crackles in the lungs and frothy sputum

c)

Bradycardia and hypotension

d)

Polyuria and weight loss

20.

Which assessment finding in a client taking Ursodiol for cholelithiasis might indicate pancreatic involvement?

a)

Increased lab levels of amylase and lipase

b)

Yellowing of the skin and eyes

c)

Dark-colored urine

d)

Increased appetite

21.

A client presents with RUQ pain (8/10), fever, and green emesis. Which provider order should the nurse question?

a)

IV Morphine 10mg for pain

b)

Order for NPO status

c)

Order for IV fluids

d)

Order for pain medication

22.

A client with a T-tube placed post-cholecystectomy shows which symptom that would require the nurse to notify the provider?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Mild discomfort at the insertion site

c)

Clear yellow drainage from the tube

d)

Slight redness around the tube site

23.

The medical condition that carries the greatest risk of causing metabolic acidosis is:

a)

Anorexia Nervosa abusing laxatives

b)

Bulimia

c)

Anorexia Nervosa with purging

d)

Glomerulonephritis

24.

The client most at risk for developing acute glomerulonephritis is:

a)

A child who recently had a streptococcal throat infection

b)

An adult with a history of hypertension

c)

A teenager with type 1 diabetes mellitus

d)

An elderly client with chronic heart failure

25.

An 8-year-old with acute glomerulonephritis on high-dose glucocorticoids should be monitored closely for which complication?

a)

Infection

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Bradycardia

26.

Information that should be included when educating new nurses about personality disorders includes:

a)

Adverse Childhood Events (ACEs) often precede personality disorders

b)

Only the pharmacological treatments for personality disorders

c)

Details about unrelated medical conditions

d)

Focus solely on the legal aspects of nursing care

27.

The priority teaching point for the family of a client newly diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is:

a)

Self-injurious behavior (SIB) is more common than homicide with Borderline Personality Disorder

b)

Encouraging complete independence from the client

c)

Focusing on medication management only

d)

Avoiding discussions about the client's feelings

28.

The defense mechanism often seen in clients with borderline personality disorder that may lead to conflict among healthcare team members is:

a)

Splitting

b)

Projection

c)

Denial

d)

Rationalization

29.

Clinical signs consistent with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa include:

a)

Fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the face, back and arms

b)

Hypertension, weight gain, and hirsutism

c)

Polyuria, hyperpigmentation, and tachycardia

d)

Jaundice, edema, and polyphagia

30.

The nurse should respond to a client with anorexia nervosa who is anxious about a weight restoration program by:

a)

Acknowledging the client's feelings and providing reassurance about the process.

b)

Ignoring the client's anxiety and focusing on the meal plan.

c)

Telling the client that anxiety is not justified and to trust the program.

d)

Encouraging the client to avoid discussing their feelings about weight gain.

31.

An appropriate initial nursing intervention during the first week of hospitalization for a client with bulimia nervosa is:

a)

Someone should monitor the client while eating and for a while after

b)

Allowing the client to eat alone

c)

Permitting unrestricted bathroom access after meals

d)

Focusing on weight loss goals

32.

Which statement would a nurse expect to hear from a client diagnosed with binge-eating disorder?

a)

I feel really guilty and ashamed after binging, and I just want to hide

b)

I avoid eating in front of others because I fear gaining weight.

c)

I restrict my food intake to lose weight quickly.

d)

I use laxatives or vomit after eating to control my weight.

33.

The client at highest risk of developing an anxiety-related disorder is:

a)

A client with a family history of anxiety disorders

b)

A client with no history of mental health issues

c)

A client who exercises regularly and has strong social support

d)

A client who practices daily meditation

34.

The nurse should expect which of the following symptoms in a client experiencing panic-level anxiety on an inpatient mental health unit?

a)

Depersonalizatoin

b)

Voice tremulousness

c)

Slight muscle tension and irritability

d)

Shaking slightly

35.

A client with Alzheimer’s disease struggles with multitasking. The specific cognitive deficit likely responsible is:

a)

Impaired executive function

b)

Enhanced memory recall

c)

Improved attention span

d)

Increased language skills

36.

Behavioral findings expected in a court-ordered evaluation of a client with antisocial personality disorder include:

a)

Lack of remorse for actions

b)

Excessive anxiety about consequences

c)

Strong adherence to social norms

d)

Frequent feelings of guilt

37.

What statement should the nurse include when teaching clients about changes in vision caused by cataracts?

a)

Vision becomes cloudy or blurry as cataracts develop.

b)

Cataracts cause sudden, severe eye pain.

c)

Cataracts improve night vision significantly.

d)

Cataracts cause complete loss of peripheral vision.

38.

Which client statement suggests the onset of cataracts?

a)

I have trouble seeing clearly, and lights seem to have halos around them.

b)

I feel a sharp pain in my eye when I blink.

c)

My eyes are constantly watering and itchy.

d)

I see flashes of light and floating spots.

39.

A client with hypertension asks about propranolol. Which history should alert the nurse that this medication is contraindicated?

a)

History of asthma

b)

History of hypertension

c)

History of hyperlipidemia

d)

History of hypothyroidism

40.

Teaching the nurse should provide to a client starting hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension includes:

a)

Take HCTZ in the morning instead of at bedtime.

b)

Weekly weights.

c)

Stop taking the medication if blood pressure feels normal.

d)

Avoid drinking or eating when taking HCTZ.

41.

Key instructions the nurse should provide when teaching a client how to take nitroglycerin sublingual tablets include:

a)

Nitroglycerin dilates cardiac blood vessels and increases oxygen to the heart.

b)

Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.

c)

Chew the tablet before swallowing for faster absorption.

d)

Place the tablet between the cheek and gum and swallow immediately.

42.

The nurse should include which of the following discharge instructions for a client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?

a)

Keep your room warm by adjusting the temperature.

b)

Advise the client to apply heat directly to the affected limb.

c)

Recommend the client to elevate legs above heart level when resting.

d)

Instruct the client to wear tight, low, dress socks while in bed.

43.

The nurse should expect which of the following findings in a male client with advanced PAD?

a)

Claudication, burning, and aching, even at night.

b)

Hairy legs.

c)

Bounding pulses in the lower extremities

d)

Extremely thin toenails.

44.

The symptoms that typically occur in the early stages of peripheral arterial disease include:

a)

Intermittent claudication (leg pain when walking)

b)

Sudden chest pain

c)

Severe headache

d)

Blurred vision

45.

The nurse should explain the pathophysiology of PAD to a client as:

a)

A narrowing of the arteries reduces blood flow to the limbs.

b)

An infection causes inflammation in the veins.

c)

A buildup of lymph fluid leads to swelling in the legs.

d)

A genetic disorder causes abnormal blood clotting.

46.

A client with bulimia nervosa has been prescribed an SSRI. Which medication should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Prozac

b)

Zyprexa

c)

Narcan

d)

Depakote

47.

A client with a personality disorder reports recent illicit drug use. The nurse should use which screening tool?

a)

Tox screen

b)

PHQ-9

c)

MMSE

d)

MMPI

48.

What statement reflects the transdiagnostic nature of anxiety in a client with generalized anxiety disorder?

a)

Anxiety symptoms can occur across multiple mental health disorders, not just generalized anxiety disorder.

b)

Anxiety is only present in generalized anxiety disorder and not in other conditions.

c)

Transdiagnostic means anxiety is unique to each individual disorder.

d)

Generalized anxiety disorder does not share symptoms with any other disorder.

49.

A child avoids speaking during class and social events. The nurse should suspect which anxiety disorder?

a)

Selective mutism

b)

Social phobia

c)

Generalized anxiety disorder

d)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

50.

A client who is afraid to leave home alone is likely experiencing which type of phobia?

a)

Agoraphobia

b)

Social phobia

c)

Claustrophobia

d)

Acrophobia

51.

A home-health client with OCD demonstrates constant cleaning. The likely purpose of this behavior is:

a)

to reduce anxiety and distress

b)

to improve physical strength

c)

to seek attention from others

d)

to avoid all social interactions

52.

A suitable nursing action for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is:

a)

Exploring what triggers anxiety in the client

b)

Discouraging all rituals immediately

c)

Ignoring the client's compulsive behaviors

d)

Forcing the client to stop rituals abruptly

53.

The nurse’s top priority for a client recently admitted after a suicide attempt with a history of depression, substance abuse, and anorexia nervosa is:

a)

Ensuring the client’s safety and preventing self-harm

b)

Encouraging the client to eat regular meals

c)

Initiating substance abuse counseling immediately

d)

Focusing on building a therapeutic relationship

54.

The nurse should immediately hold clozapine and notify the provider for which client based on lab results?

a)

Client with a white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³

b)

Client with a hemoglobin of 13 g/dL

c)

Client with a platelet count of 200,000/mm³

d)

Client with a fasting glucose of 100 mg/dL

55.

Select the client behaviors that indicate mania in a client with bipolar disorder.

a)

Pressured speech, decreased need for sleep, and grandiosity

b)

Social withdrawal, low energy, and hypersomnia

c)

Flat affect, slow movements, and lack of interest

d)

Excessive guilt, poor concentration, and suicidal ideation

56.

Which assessment finding suggests suicide risk in a client with bipolar disorder in an acute care mental health setting?

a)

Increased Impulsivity

b)

Increased energy and activity

c)

Improved appetite

d)

Engaging in group activities

57.

A client with mild depression asks about herbal treatment options. Which herb is commonly used for this purpose?

a)

St. John's Wort

b)

Echinacea

c)

Ginkgo Biloba

d)

Valerian Root

58.

The nurse's first action when a client with dementia is agitated and unable to stay seated is to:

a)

Use a pressure-sensitive alarm on their wheelchair

b)

Restrain the client to prevent injury

c)

Administer a sedative immediately

d)

Ignore the behavior and continue with other tasks

59.

A pregnant client should be informed that the risk of schizophrenia can be reduced.

a)

Prevent infection during pregnancy

b)

Schizophrenia is not influenced by genetics at all.

c)

Only environmental factors contribute to the risk of schizophrenia.

d)

Pregnancy itself eliminates the risk of schizophrenia.

60.

A client presents with signs of peripheral artery disease in the right leg. Which finding supports impaired circulation?

a)

Cool, pale skin on the right leg

b)

Warm, flushed skin on the right leg

c)

Bounding pulses in the right leg

d)

Increased hair growth on the right leg

61.

A client with OCD is repeatedly applying and removing makeup. What underlying factor is most likely responsible for this behavior?

a)

Anxiety reduction

b)

Desire for attention

c)

Lack of interest in appearance

d)

Memory loss

62.

The appropriate nursing intervention for a client experiencing a panic attack is:

a)

Remain with the client and speak in a calm, reassuring manner.

b)

Encourage the client to leave the area and be alone.

c)

Ask the client to discuss their feelings in detail immediately.

d)

Administer sedative medication without physician's order.

63.

Select the findings that are expected when assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder.

a)

Restlessness, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, irritability

b)

Euphoria, grandiosity, pressured speech, decreased need for sleep

c)

Hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, catatonia

d)

Memory loss, confabulation, ataxia, nystagmus

64.

The nurse’s priority intervention for a client newly admitted with body dysmorphic disorder is:

a)

Assess for suicidal ideation

b)

Encourage frequent mirror checking

c)

Promote group therapy immediately

d)

Focus on physical appearance concerns

65.

The nurse should report which finding to the provider for a client with schizophrenia taking aripiprazole?

a)

Development of muscle rigidity

b)

Mild headache and dizziness

c)

Increased appetite and weight gain

d)

Dry mouth and constipation

66.

Which adverse effect should the nurse report to the provider for a client with generalized anxiety disorder taking buspirone?

a)

Profuse perspiration

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Decreased appetite