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Exam 3 Review Session

Total questions: 28

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Caspofungin (Cancidas)? SATA

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Increased excretion of protein in urine

c)

Fever and Flushing

d)

Hypermagnesemia

e)

Increased Serum Potassium levels

2.

Which of the following statements about Terbinafine (Lamisil) is CORRECT? SATA

a)

It is metabolized by 1A2, 3A4, and 2C9

b)

It has a terminal half-life of 200-400 hours

c)

It is highly plasma protein-bound (~99%)

d)

Food slightly increases its AUC

e)

~40% of the administered dose is eliminated through the Renal System

3.

Which of the following statements about Voriconazole (VFend) is FALSE? SATA

a)

It is ineffective against Aspergillus

b)

It is effective against Fusarium Solani

c)

It is ineffective against Scedosporium Species

d)

The maintenance dose is 4 mg/kg IV Q12H

e)

The maintenance dose is 200 mg PO QID

4.

Which of the following combination regimens is LIKELY to be used in the treatment of Breast Cancer? SATA

a)

VATH Regimen

b)

CISCA Regimen

c)

IMF Regimen

d)

ACTH Regimen

e)

FECD Regimen

5.

Which of the following adverse effects of Amphotericin B suggests the occurrence of a Hemorrhagic Episode? SATA

a)

Dyspepsia

b)

Hematuria

c)

Epistaxis

d)

Melena

e)

Hemoptysis

6.

Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B is CORRECT? SATA

a)

It can be given Intraarticularly, Intraventricularly, and Intra-arterially

b)

It is slowly excreted through the renal system

c)

It can be complexed with Deoxycholate

d)

It is well distributed into the Synovium and into the Peritoneum

e)

It is not metabolized and it can be complexed with DMPC and DMPG

7.

Which of the following should the Pharmacist advise the Medical Team about when using Lamisil (Terbinafine) for long-term therapy? SATA

a)

Perform a Renal Function Test

b)

Advise the patient to avoid acidic food and caffeine

c)

Advise the patient to avoid concurrent ingestion of alcohol

d)

Perform a CBC

e)

Perform a Liver Function Test

8.

Abafungin (Abasol) inhibits which of the following? SATA

a)

Delata-7,8-osomerase

b)

Glucan Synthase

c)

C24-methyltransferase

d)

Squalene Epoxidase

e)

C14-alpha-demethylase

9.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the M2 Regimen that is used for Multiple Myeloma? SATA

a)

Prednisone

b)

Semustine (Methyl CCNU)

c)

Vincristine

d)

Cyclophosphamide

e)

Alkeran (Melphalan)

10.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be used to treat Primary Macroglobulinemia?

a)

Melphalen

b)

Chlorambucil

c)

Bisulfan

d)

Carmustene

e)

Mitoxantrone

11.

Which of the following is an indication of Trabectedin (Yondelis)? SATA

a)

Acute Granulocytic Leukemia

b)

Chronic Granulocytic Leukemia

c)

Leiomyosarcoma

d)

Neuroblastoma

e)

Metastatic Liposarcoma

12.

Which of the following statements about Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) is FALSE? SATA

a)

It is activated in the liver

b)

It has a PPB of ~56%

c)

It is administered IV, IP, and IT

d)

It has a half-life of 6-7 days

e)

It is mainly excreted through the Renal System

13.

Which drug is used to treat Pancreatic Insulinoma?

a)

Streptozocin

b)

Kyprolis

c)

Carumustine

d)

Pomalyst

14.

Which of the following is a Proteasome Inhibitor that is combined with Dexamethasone for the treatment of Multiple Myeloma?

a)

Emplicty

b)

Kyprolis (Carfilzomib)

c)

Pomalyst

d)

Darzelex

e)

Carmustine

15.

What are the 4 agents that are included in the CHAD Regimen used to treat Ovarian Cancer? SATA

a)

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

b)

Hexymethymelamine

c)

Cisplatin

d)

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)

16.

Which of the following is an indication of Itraconazole (Sporanox)? SATA

a)

Blastomycosis

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

d)

Cryptococcus

e)

Sporotrichosis

17.

Which of the following is a Squalene Epoxidase Inhibitor? SATA

a)

Aftate (Tolnafate)

b)

Loceryl (Amorolfine)

c)

Penlac (Ciclopirox)

d)

Halotex (Haloprogin)

e)

Butenafine (Lotrim Ultra, Mentax)

18.

Nystatin can be used to manage which of the following conditions? SATA

a)

Vaginal Moniliasis

b)

Candidiasis of the Esophagus

c)

Candidal Paronychia

d)

Candidiasis of the Tongue

e)

Athlete's Foot

19.

Which enzyme do Azoles inhibit?

a)

C14-alpha-demthylase

b)

CYP3A4

c)

CYP2C9

d)

None of the above

20.

What is the enzyme that converts Lanosterol to ergosterol?

a)

Demethyl Lanosterol

b)

Ethyl

c)

Methyl

d)

None of the above

21.

Which of the following will interfere with the process of mitosis in the fungus?

a)

AmBisome

b)

Ancobon

c)

Grisactin (Griseofulvin)

d)

Candicidan

e)

5-FC

22.

Which of the following statements about Brexefemme (Ibrexafungerp) is TRUE? SATA

a)

It is highly plasma protein-bound

b)

It is mostly excreted through the urine

c)

It has a half-life of ~20 Hours

d)

It is administered at a dosage of 300 mg PO QAM and PO QPM x 5 days

e)

It is metabolized by CYP450

23.

WOTF is classified as an Imidazole Antifungal Agent? SATA

a)

Luliconazole (Luzu)

b)

Cytoconazole

c)

Isoconazole (Travogen)

d)

Miconazole (Monistat, Desenex)

e)

Efinaconazole (Jublia)

24.

Which drug will you sue to treat Chromoblastomycosis?

a)

Ancobon (Flucytosine)

b)

Luliconazole (Luzu)

c)

Cytoconazole

d)

Miconazole (Monistat)

25.

What is the Maintenance Dose of Rezafungin?

a)

200 mg IV QWeek

b)

100 mg IV QD

c)

150 mg IV QD

d)

50 mg IV QD

26.

What is the Maintenance Dose of Anidulafungin?

a)

50 mg IV QD

b)

200 mg IV Week

c)

100 mg IV QD

d)

150 mg IV QD

27.

What is the Maintenance Dose of Micafungin?

a)

200 mg IV QWeek

b)

50 mg IV QD

c)

100 mg IV QD

d)

150 mg IV QD

28.

What is the Maintenance Dose of Caspofungin?

a)

200 mg IV Week

b)

50 mg IV QD

c)

100 mg IV QD

d)

150 mg IV QD