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MEDL 279 Urinalysis Review

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the major functional unit of the kidney?

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Nephron

c)

Tubule

d)

Urea

2.

Approximately how many nephrons are there per kidney?

a)

100,000

b)

500,000

c)

1 million

d)

10 million

3.

The glomerulus is composed of a coil of ______ vessels.

a)

capillary

b)

artery

c)

vein

d)

lymphatic

4.

Which of the following substances are filtered by the glomerulus?

a)

All answers are correct

b)

Urea

c)

Water

d)

Glucose

5.

What is the normal average urine volume per day?

a)

500-800 mL

b)

1200-1500 mL

c)

2000-2500 mL

d)

3000-3500 mL

6.

Polyuria is defined as urine output greater than ______ mL/day.

a)

2500

b)

1000

c)

1500

d)

3500

7.

Oliguria is defined as urine output less than ______ mL/day.

a)

500

b)

1000

c)

200

d)

1500

8.

Anuria means ______ cessation of urine output.

a)

complete

b)

partial

c)

intermittent

d)

frequent

9.

Which of the following is a metabolic waste product produced in the liver from protein breakdown?

a)

Uric acid

b)

Urea

c)

Creatinine

d)

Chloride

10.

Which inorganic solid is the primary constituent in urine?

a)

Urea

b)

Creatinine

c)

Chloride

d)

Glucose

11.

Which hormone is produced by the adrenal cortex and increases the rate of Na+ reabsorption?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Arginine Vasopressin (ADH)

c)

Erythropoietin (EPO)

d)

Insulin

12.

Fill in the blank: Arginine Vasopressin (ADH) is produced by the ________ and is responsible for the reabsorption of water from the distal tubules.

a)

Posterior Pituitary Gland

b)

Anterior Pituitary Gland

c)

Adrenal Cortex

d)

Thyroid Gland

13.

Which hormone stimulates the production of RBCs?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Arginine Vasopressin (ADH)

c)

Erythropoietin (EPO)

d)

Insulin

14.

Which urine collection method is the most common specimen type and is easiest to collect?

a)

First Morning

b)

Random

c)

Catheterization

d)

Pediatric

15.

Fill in the blank: The first voided specimen upon wakening is called the ________ specimen.

a)

First Morning

b)

Random

c)

Midstream Clean Catch

d)

24-hour

16.

Which urine collection method is the specimen of choice for bacterial culture?

a)

Random

b)

First Morning

c)

Midstream Clean Catch

d)

Pediatric

17.

What is the main advantage of suprapubic aspiration as a urine collection method?

a)

Easiest to collect

b)

Avoids external contamination, optimum for bacterial culture

c)

Most common specimen type

d)

Bag checked every 15min

18.

Fill in the blank: In catheterization, a catheter is inserted directly into the bladder via the ________.

a)

urethra

b)

esophagus

c)

trachea

d)

rectum

19.

Which urine collection method involves collecting urine over a 24-hour period and discarding the first specimen?

a)

24-hour Urine

b)

Random Urine Collection

c)

Clean-catch Midstream Collection

d)

First Morning Specimen

20.

What is the recommended time frame to analyze urine specimens after collection?

a)

Within 1 hour

b)

Within 2 hours

c)

Within 4 hours

d)

Within 24 hours

21.

Which of the following increases due to bacterial growth in urine specimens?

a)

Glucose

b)

Nitrite

c)

Ketones

d)

Bilirubin

22.

What is the preservation method of choice for urine specimens for up to 24 hours?

a)

Refrigeration

b)

Freezing

c)

Adding formalin

d)

Boiling

23.

Which odor is associated with Maple syrup urine disease?

a)

Fruity

b)

Ammonia

c)

Mousy

d)

Maple syrup

24.

Normal urine is clear.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

What gives urine its color?

a)

Urochrome

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Melanin

26.

Normal urine is slightly acid with a pH of _____

a)

pH 6.0

b)

pH 8.0

c)

pH 4.0

d)

pH 9.5

27.

After removal from the refrigerator, what should be done before testing a urine specimen?

a)

Let sample return to room temp before testing

b)

Add preservatives to the sample

c)

Shake the sample vigorously

d)

Test immediately while cold

28.

What is the normal specific gravity (SG) range for urine?

a)

1.000-1.010

b)

1.002-1.035

c)

1.040-1.050

d)

1.035-1.045

29.

Which of the following is the best single indicator of renal abnormality?

a)

Glucose

b)

Proteinuria

c)

Ketones

d)

Bilirubin

30.

If the specific gravity (SG) is higher than 1.035, how should the urine be diluted for measurement?

a)

Dilute the urine 1:2 with distilled water and multiply the last two digits of the result by 2.

b)

Dilute the urine 1:5 with saline and multiply the result by 5.

c)

Dilute the urine 1:10 with tap water and multiply the result by 10.

d)

Do not dilute the urine and record the value as is.

31.

Which of the following can cause a false positive result in the dipstick protein test?

a)

Highly acidic urine

b)

Highly alkaline urine

c)

Low specific gravity

d)

Low protein concentration

32.

What is the color change observed when the dye's spectrum is shifted in the dipstick protein test?

a)

The color changes from yellow to green.

b)

The color changes from blue to red.

c)

The color changes from green to orange.

d)

The color changes from red to yellow.

33.

Which method is more sensitive to albumin than globulin in urine protein testing?

a)

Dipstick method

b)

Sulfosalicylic acid test

c)

Biuret method

d)

Heat coagulation test

34.

What is microalbuminuria detected by?

a)

Sensitive albumin tests (level too low to be detected by reagent strip)

b)

Urine glucose test

c)

Serum creatinine measurement

d)

Blood pressure monitoring

35.

Periodic monitoring of microalbuminuria benefits patients with which conditions?

a)

Diabetes, hypertension, and peripheral vascular disease

b)

Asthma, eczema, and allergic rhinitis

c)

Osteoarthritis, osteoporosis, and gout

d)

Migraine, epilepsy, and Parkinson's disease

36.

What is the renal threshold for glucose analyzed by dipstick in diabetes?

a)

160-180 mg/dL

b)

80-100 mg/dL

c)

200-220 mg/dL

d)

300-320 mg/dL

37.

Which enzyme is the principle for glucose dipstick tests?

a)

Glucose oxidase

b)

Amylase

c)

Urease

d)

Lactase

38.

Which of the following can cause a false positive in the dipstick test for glucose?

a)

Ascorbic acid

b)

Oxidizing agents (bleach)

c)

Fructose

d)

Galactose

39.

The principle of the Clinitest tablet is based on which chemical reaction?

a)

Benedict's copper reduction test (CuSO4 + NaOH + reducing substance = Cu2O)

b)

Biuret reaction (protein + CuSO4 in alkaline medium = violet color)

c)

Jaffe reaction (creatinine + picric acid in alkaline medium = orange-red complex)

d)

Salkowski reaction (cholesterol + sulfuric acid = red color)

40.

Which sugars can give false positive results in the Clinitest tablet?

a)

Galactose, lactose, fructose, maltose, and pentose

b)

Sucrose, starch, cellulose, and glycogen

c)

Glucose, ribose, and deoxyribose only

d)

Mannose, raffinose, and trehalose

41.

What is the principle of ketone detection by dipstick and tablets?

a)

Sodium nitroprusside + ketone = purple color

b)

Benedict's reagent + ketone = blue color

c)

Fehling's solution + ketone = red color

d)

Biuret reagent + ketone = green color

42.

Which test is specific for diacetic acid in urine analysis?

a)

Dipstick

b)

Acetest tablets

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

43.

What can cause a false positive result in urine analysis due to interference?

a)

Highly pigmented urine

b)

Levodopa metabolites

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

44.

What is the principle of the 2-step enzymatic procedure for blood detection in urine?

a)

Peroxide on strip + blood = O2

b)

O2 + Oxidase = color change

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

45.

Which agents can interfere and cause false positive results in blood detection in urine?

a)

Bleach

b)

Other oxidizing agents

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

46.

Hematuria is associated with which of the following?

a)

Systemic bleeding disorders

b)

Renal diseases

c)

Cystitis, calculi, and strenuous exercise

d)

All of the above

47.

What is the principle of the bilirubin test in urine analysis?

a)

Diazo reaction: diazonium salt + bilirubin = bluish purple color

b)

Peroxide reaction

c)

Acetest reaction

d)

None of the above

48.

Which of the following can cause false negatives in the bilirubin test?

a)

Ascorbic acid

b)

Nitrite

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

49.

Bilirubinuria is associated with ______ and liver damage.

a)

bile duct obstruction

b)

pancreatic insufficiency

c)

renal failure

d)

gallstone dissolution

50.

What is the normal value of urobilinogen in urine?

a)

0.5 mg/dL or less

b)

1 mg/dL or less

c)

2 mg/dL or less

d)

5 mg/dL or less

51.

Nitrite reacts with amine reagent at acidic pH to form which type of compound?

a)

Pyrrole compound

b)

Diazoniun compound

c)

Ester compound

d)

Urobilinogen

52.

Which compound reacts with 3-hydroxy-1,2,3,4 tetrahydrobenz (h)-quinoline to produce a pink color?

a)

Nitrite

b)

Leukocyte esterase

c)

Urobilinogen

d)

Bilirubin

53.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of false negative nitrite test?

a)

A) Lack of dietary nitrate

b)

B) Urine not in the bladder long enough

c)

C) Bacteria are present but not nitrate reducers

d)

D) Excessive protein in urine

e)

E) Ascorbic acid on some older strips

54.

Any shade of pink in the nitrite test is considered to represent a clinically significant amount of _________

a)

bacteria

b)

glucose

c)

protein

d)

ketones

55.

Leukocyte esterase splits an ester to form a pyrrole compound which reacts with a diazo reagent to produce a ________ color.

a)

purple

b)

green

c)

yellow

d)

red

56.

Positive reactions in the leukocyte esterase test indicate the presence of ________ (pyuria).

a)

leukocytes

b)

erythrocytes

c)

proteins

d)

glucose

57.

Normal urine sediment includes which of the following?

a)

0-2 RBC/hpf

b)

0-5 WBC/hpf

c)

0-2 hyaline casts/lpf

d)

Slight mucus

e)

All of the above

58.

Abnormal urine sediment: RBCs may indicate ________ damage or menstrual contamination.

a)

glomerular

b)

tubular

c)

vascular

d)

interstitial

59.

WBCs in abnormal urine sediment may indicate ________ or infection (pyuria).

a)

inflammation

b)

dehydration

c)

allergy

d)

malnutrition

60.

Casts in urine sediment are cylindrical forms having ________ sides and are formed in the lumen of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

a)

parallel

b)

curved

c)

irregular

d)

tapered

61.

What is the major constituent of casts in urine?

a)

Albumin

b)

Uromodulin (Tamm Horsfall protein)

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Myoglobin

62.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences cast formation?

a)

Low pH

b)

High output

c)

High solute concentration

d)

High protein

63.

Fill in the blank: The most frequently seen type of cast is _________.

a)

Hyaline

b)

Granular

c)

Waxy

d)

Fatty

64.

Which type of cast is primarily composed of uromodulin protein?

a)

RBC cast

b)

WBC cast

c)

Hyaline cast

d)

Granular cast

65.

RBC casts in urine are diagnostic of which condition?

a)

Intrinsic renal disease

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Chronic renal disease

d)

Renal failure

66.

WBC casts in urine are associated with which condition?

a)

Glomerular dysfunction

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Renal failure

d)

Chronic renal disease

67.

Which type of cast indicates prolonged urinary stasis and is considered a sign of renal failure?

a)

Hyaline cast

b)

Waxy cast

c)

Granular cast

d)

Broad cast

68.

Broad casts form in which part of the nephron?

a)

Proximal tubule

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

Collecting ducts

d)

Distal tubule

69.

Crystals in urine are formed by the precipitation of urine solutes subjected to changes in ________, temperature, and concentration.

a)

pH

b)

volume

c)

pressure

d)

color

70.

Which of the following is a normal crystal found in acid urine?

a)

Amorphous urate

b)

Calcium oxalate

c)

Cystine

d)

Struvite

71.

What shape is calcium oxalate crystal?

a)

Enveloped shaped

b)

Needle shaped

c)

Hexagonal shaped

d)

Dumbbell shaped

72.

Calcium oxalate crystals may be seen in ______ poisoning.

a)

antifreeze

b)

paracetamol

c)

aspirin

d)

lead

73.

Which of the following is a type of crystal found in alkaline urine?

a)

Amorphous phosphate

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Cystine

d)

Tyrosine

74.

Triple phosphates in urine are described as having a ______ lid appearance.

a)

coffin

b)

glass

c)

box

d)

bottle

75.

Which abnormal crystal is described as colorless hexagonal plates?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Cystine

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Leucine

76.

Cholesterol crystals in urine are described as ______ plates with notched corners.

a)

rectangular

b)

hexagonal

c)

oval

d)

circular

77.

Leucine crystals are yellow brown spheres with ______ circles or radial striations.

a)

concentric

b)

eccentric

c)

parallel

d)

spiral

78.

Bacteria in urine are most commonly present as ______ shaped.

a)

rod

b)

spherical

c)

spiral

d)

comma

79.

Yeast in urine most often represents a ______ infection and must correlate with clinical findings.

a)

vaginal

b)

urinary tract

c)

respiratory

d)

skin

80.

Which of the following produces large intracellular inclusions in RTE cells?

a)

Rubella

b)

CMV

c)

Lead poisoning

d)

Herpes

81.

What is the hormone used as a marker for confirming pregnancy in pregnancy testing?

a)

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

b)

Progesterone

c)

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

d)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

82.

At what time can hCG be detected earliest for pregnancy testing?

a)

1-2 days

b)

8-10 days

c)

2-3 weeks

d)

4-5 weeks

83.

Which specimen is preferred for pregnancy testing?

a)

Random urine specimen

b)

First morning specimen

c)

Afternoon specimen

d)

Evening specimen

84.

Which of the following is NOT a test for glomerular filtration?

a)

Clearance tests

b)

B2-Microglobulin

c)

Cystatin C

d)

Hemoglobin

85.

What is the most commonly used clearance test to assess GFR?

a)

Creatinine Clearance Test

b)

Urea Clearance Test

c)

Inulin Clearance Test

d)

PAH Clearance Test

86.

(U x V / P) This equation allows the technician to figure?

a)

Creatinine Clearance

b)

Glomerular Filtration Rate

c)

Blood Urea Nitrogen

d)

Serum Albumin

87.

What is the normal creatinine clearance value for adults?

a)

120 ml/min

b)

60 ml/min

c)

200 ml/min

d)

30 ml/min

88.

Which marker is useful for renal tubular function and increases in plasma concentration when GFR is reduced?

a)

Creatinine

b)

B2-Microglobulin

c)

Cystatin C

d)

Hemoglobin

89.

What is a disadvantage of using Cystatin C for GFR detection?

a)

Higher cost than creatinine clearance

b)

It is less sensitive than creatinine

c)

It is not affected by age or sex

d)

It is only useful in pediatric patients

90.

What are the microscopic findings for Acute Glomerulonephritis?

a)

Gross hematuria, Smoky turbidity, RBC casts, Waxy

b)

Fatty casts, Oval fat bodies, Maltese cross

c)

Eosinophiluria, White blood cell casts, Pyuria

d)

Hyaline casts, Broad casts, Granular casts

91.

What are the microscopic findings for Chronic Glomerulonephritis?

a)

Hematuria, all types of casts, but only Occ to few RBC casts

b)

Proteinuria, fatty casts, and oval fat bodies

c)

Eosinophiluria and white cell casts

d)

Granular casts and hyaline casts only

92.

What are the microscopic findings for Acute pyelonephritis?

a)

Turbid, Pos Nitrite, Pos Leukocyte esterase, WBC casts, Bacteria

b)

Clear, Neg Nitrite, Neg Leukocyte esterase, RBC casts, No bacteria

c)

Turbid, Pos Glucose, Pos Protein, Eosinophils, No bacteria

d)

Clear, Pos Ketones, Neg Leukocyte esterase, Hyaline casts, No bacteria

93.

What are the microscopic findings for Chronic pyelonephritis?

a)

Pos Nitrite, Pos Leukocyte Esterase, All types of casts, but Occ to few WBC Casts

b)

Red blood cell casts, heavy proteinuria, and oval fat bodies

c)

Large numbers of eosinophils and granular casts

d)

Abundant uric acid crystals and calcium oxalate stones

94.

What are the microscopic findings for Nephrotic Syndrome?

a)

May see free fat droplets, fatty casts, oval fat bodies

b)

Presence of red blood cell casts

c)

Granulomatous inflammation with caseating necrosis

d)

Glomerular crescents in Bowman's space

95.

What are the microscopic findings for Cystitis/Lower UTI?

a)

Bacteria: WBC's

b)

Red blood cells only

c)

Epithelial cells predominance

d)

Crystals and casts

96.

The innermost portion of the kidney.

a)

renal capsule

b)

renal cortex

c)

renal medulla

d)

renal pyramids

97.

How can urine clarity be described when it contains many particles?

a)

Clear

b)

Cloudy

c)

Colored

d)

Transparent

98.

How does the kidney respond to a high intake of fluid in terms of urine production, and what mechanisms are involved in this response?

a)

Decreases urine production by increasing ADH secretion

b)

Increases urine production by decreasing ADH secretion

c)

Increases urine production by increasing ADH secretion

d)

Decreases urine production by decreasing ADH secretion