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Heart and Circulatory System Quiz

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the inner layer of the heart called?

a)

Myocardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Endocardium

d)

Pericardium

2.

Which layer of the heart is responsible for contraction?

a)

Endocardium

b)

Myocardium

c)

Epicardium

d)

Pericardium

3.

What is the outermost layer of the heart?

a)

Myocardium

b)

Pericardium

c)

Endocardium

d)

Epicardium

4.

Which of the following lists the four valves of the heart?

a)

Aortic, Pulmonary, Bicuspid, Left AV

b)

Tricuspid, Mitral, Pulmonary, Aortic

c)

Tricuspid, Bicuspid, Left AV, Right AV

d)

Left AV, Right AV, Pulmonary, Aortic

5.

What is the main function of the heart valves?

a)

Increase oxygen levels in blood

b)

Maintain heart rate

c)

Prevent blood clots

d)

Keep blood flowing in one direction

6.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of blood flow through the heart?

a)

Right atrium → Pulmonary vein → Left atrium → Aorta

b)

Right atrium → Tricuspid valve → Right ventricle → Pulmonary valve → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → Pulmonary veins → Left atrium → Mitral valve → Left ventricle

c)

Left atrium → Mitral valve → Right atrium → Aorta

d)

Right atrium → Aorta → Lungs → Pulmonary artery

7.

What is the correct sequence of cardiac conduction?

a)

AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibers

b)

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers

c)

Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibers → AV node

d)

AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibers → Bundle of His

8.

Which structure is considered the heart’s natural pacemaker?

a)

AV node

b)

Purkinje fibers

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Sinoatrial node

9.

What is the backup pacemaker of the heart?

a)

AV node

b)

SA node

c)

Aorta

d)

Right ventricle

10.

What is the role of the Bundle of His?

a)

Pumps blood to lungs

b)

Detects BP changes

c)

Coordinates the heartbeat and pumping action

d)

Prevents valve backflow

11.

What is the primary function of the Purkinje fibers?

a)

Stimulate atrial contraction

b)

Open heart valves

c)

Transmit electrical impulses rapidly to ventricles

d)

Control breathing rate

12.

What is cardiac output?

a)

Amount of blood in the lungs

b)

Blood pumped per heartbeat

c)

Amount of blood pumped in one minute

d)

Total body blood volume

13.

What does stroke volume measure?

a)

Amount of blood in arteries

b)

Blood pumped per minute

c)

Volume of blood ejected from the right atrium

d)

Amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle per beat

14.

What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?

a)

Transport nutrients

b)

Circulate hormones

c)

Immune response and pathogen filtration

d)

Regulate temperature

15.

What is the function of arteries?

a)

Carry blood to the lungs

b)

Carry blood away from the heart

c)

Connect veins to the lungs

d)

Return blood to the heart

16.

What unique feature do veins have?

a)

Thick muscle layers

b)

High pressure

c)

Carry oxygenated blood

d)

Contain valves to prevent backflow

17.

Which blood vessels are the smallest and most numerous?

a)

Arteries

b)

Capillaries

c)

Arterioles

d)

Veins

18.

What occurs when baroreceptors respond to high blood pressure?

a)

Increase heart rate and vasoconstriction

b)

Decrease HR and cause vasodilation

c)

Close heart valves

d)

Stimulate adrenal hormones

19.

What is the universal blood recipient type?

a)

AB-

b)

AB+

c)

O+

d)

O-

20.

Which blood type is the universal donor?

a)

AB+

b)

A+

c)

O-

d)

B-

21.

What is blood plasma primarily composed of?

a)

Glucose and fat

b)

Water, proteins, electrolytes, nutrients, gases

c)

White blood cells

d)

Clotting factors only

22.

Which of the following are major proteins found in blood plasma?

a)

Albumin, Insulin, Globulin

b)

Fibrinogen, Albumin, Creatinine

c)

Albumin, Fibrinogen, Prothrombin, Globulin

d)

Myosin, Hemoglobin, Globulin

23.

What does leukopenia indicate?

a)

High platelet count

b)

Low red blood cells

c)

Low white blood cells

d)

High hematocrit

24.

What does an elevated WBC count suggest?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Infection

d)

Anemia

25.

Which vital sign is a key indicator of infection?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Oxygen saturation

c)

Temperature

d)

Blood pressure

26.

Which white blood cell type is first to respond to bacterial infections?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Neutrophils

27.

Eosinophils are typically elevated during what condition?

a)

Viral infections

b)

Allergic reactions

c)

Fungal infections

d)

Cancer

28.

Which WBCs are involved in allergic and inflammatory reactions?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes

c)

Basophils

d)

Lymphocytes

29.

Which of the following is a sign of anemia?

a)

High hemoglobin

b)

Low platelets

c)

Low RBCs, hematocrit, and hemoglobin

d)

Elevated WBCs

30.

What may occur with low platelet counts?

a)

Muscle weakness

b)

Risk for bleeding

c)

High cholesterol

d)

Dehydration

31.

What does an elevated Creatinine Kinase Myocardial Band (CK-MB) level indicate?

a)

Stroke

b)

Heart valve disease

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Congestive heart failure

32.

An elevated myoglobin level suggests what condition?

a)

Muscle growth

b)

Heart muscle damage

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Blood clot

33.

Which lab finding is a strong indicator of myocardial infarction?

a)

Low calcium

b)

Elevated troponin level

c)

High WBC

d)

Decreased hemoglobin

34.

Which lab value, when elevated, is a key sign of myocardial infarction?

a)

Hematocrit

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Troponin

d)

CK-MB

35.

What do elevated Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) levels indicate?

a)

Stroke risk

b)

Heart is struggling to pump adequately

c)

Risk of infection

d)

Dehydration

36.

What does an elevation in serum lipid levels signify?

a)

High blood sugar

b)

Increased risk for coronary artery disease (CAD)

c)

Low red blood cell count

d)

Elevated platelet count

37.

What can an electrolyte imbalance indicate?

a)

Muscle growth

b)

Increased WBCs

c)

Cardiac arrhythmias/dysrhythmias

d)

Hypoxia

38.

Electrolyte imbalances can directly affect what part of cardiac function?

a)

Blood pressure regulation

b)

Cardiac conduction

c)

Oxygen saturation

d)

Respiratory rate

39.

What is the purpose of a cardiac angiogram?

a)

Treat congestive heart failure

b)

Identify cardiac infections

c)

Identify blockages or narrowing of coronary arteries

d)

Monitor oxygen levels

40.

Which of the following is a correct pre-operative instruction for a cardiac angiogram?

a)

Take iron supplements

b)

Eat a light breakfast

c)

Confirm no allergy to shellfish or iodine

d)

Drink fluids before test

41.

What is a post-op instruction for a cardiac angiogram?

a)

Encourage immediate ambulation

b)

Patient can flex hip after 2 hours

c)

Lay flat for several hours

d)

Apply cold packs

42.

What is angina?

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Tight chest pain from lack of oxygen to the heart

c)

Irregular heartbeat

d)

High blood pressure

43.

What is a characteristic of stable angina?

a)

Occurs at rest

b)

Not relieved by nitroglycerin

c)

Lasts over 30 minutes

d)

Triggered by stress, relieved by nitroglycerin

44.

What distinguishes unstable angina?

a)

Relieved by rest

b)

Triggered by physical activity only

c)

Occurs at rest and lasts longer than 30 minutes

d)

Associated with fever

45.

Which of the following are symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI)?

a)

Fever, dry mouth, constipation

b)

Sharp chest pain, jaw pain, elevated HR, low BP

c)

Rash, itching, nausea

d)

High BP, bradycardia, fatigue

46.

What does STEMI stand for in cardiology?

a)

Partial blockage of an artery

b)

Stroke with minor infarction

c)

Complete blockage of a coronary artery

d)

Sinus tachycardia episode

47.

What is the difference in NON-STEMI compared to STEMI?

a)

Caused by infection

b)

Complete blockage

c)

Incomplete blockage of a coronary artery

d)

Results in stroke

48.

Which of the following medications may be ordered for an MI patient?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Morphine, vasodilators, thrombolytics (alteplase)

c)

Antihistamines

d)

Laxatives

49.

What is a key order for a patient post-MI after 24 hours?

a)

Complete bed rest

b)

High sodium diet

c)

Encourage gradual return to activity

d)

Immediate exercise

50.

What is arteriosclerosis?

a)

Sudden blood vessel rupture

b)

Flexible arteries

c)

Hardening and reduced flexibility of arteries

d)

Narrowing of veins

51.

What is claudication?

a)

Rapid breathing

b)

Muscle cramping due to decreased blood flow, relieved by rest

c)

Chest pain

d)

High pulse pressure

52.

Which of the following are recommended lifestyle changes to prevent hypertension?

a)

Increase sodium and sugar

b)

Avoid exercise

c)

Avoid nicotine and reduce salt/cholesterol

d)

Drink alcohol daily

53.

What is the most common cause of heart block?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Coronary artery disease (CAD)

c)

Anemia

d)

Obesity

54.

If heart block becomes severe, what treatment might be necessary?

a)

Antivirals

b)

Heart transplant

c)

Pacemaker

d)

Chemotherapy

55.

Which of the following is a common symptom of heart failure?

a)

Cough with mucus

b)

Fluid retention, SOB, fatigue, hypoxemia

c)

Red rash

d)

Constipation

56.

What describes Grade 1 edema?

a)

Deep pitting with no rebound

b)

Slight pitting that rebounds immediately

c)

Pitting lasting over 60 seconds

d)

No visible swelling

57.

What is a feature of Grade 2 edema?

a)

Rebounds in more than a minute

b)

Pitting rebounds in less than 15 seconds

c)

Severe pitting with swelling

d)

Skin breakdown

58.

What defines Grade 3 edema?

a)

No visible swelling

b)

Rebounds in under 5 seconds

c)

Severe pitting, rebounds in 15–60 seconds

d)

Mild swelling only

59.

What defines Grade 4 edema?

a)

Pitting with no rebound

b)

Slight swelling

c)

Very severe pitting, rebounds in over 60 seconds

d)

Rebounds immediately

60.

What should a nurse assess before administering digoxin (Lanoxin)?

a)

Pupillary reflex and BP

b)

Weight and lung sounds

c)

Blood sugar and temperature

d)

BP and apical pulse

61.

What must be monitored daily for a patient taking furosemide (Lasix)?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Glucose levels

c)

Daily weights

d)

Heart sounds

62.

What is part of treatment and care for heart failure?

a)

Low fluid intake and high sodium

b)

Oxygen therapy, fowler’s position, fluid I&O, cardiac diet

c)

Total bed rest

d)

High carbohydrate diet

63.

What does bacterial endocarditis cause?

a)

Lung inflammation

b)

Valve damage in the heart

c)

Muscle cramps

d)

Seizures

64.

What is atrial fibrillation?

a)

A condition with low heart rate

b)

A blockage in coronary arteries

c)

Irregular heartbeat due to faulty atrial signals

d)

Blood clotting disorder

65.

What is the treatment for atrial fibrillation?

a)

Bronchodilators

b)

AED (Automated External Defibrillator)

c)

Insulin

d)

Diuretics

66.

What is ventricular tachycardia?

a)

Fast heart rhythm from upper chambers

b)

Slow heart rhythm

c)

Fast rhythm from lower chambers of the heart

d)

Absent heart rhythm

67.

What is a hypertensive crisis?

a)

Drop in blood pressure

b)

Gradual rise in BP

c)

Sudden severe rise in blood pressure

d)

Fainting episode

68.

What is a symptom of hypertensive crisis?

a)

Mild headache and dizziness

b)

High fever

c)

Sudden severe headache, chest pain, blurry vision

d)

Bruising

69.

What is the treatment for a hypertensive crisis?

a)

Fluids and bedrest

b)

Vasodilators, NTG, monitor BP, encourage rest

c)

Exercise and caffeine

d)

Laxatives

70.

Which of the following are symptoms of leukemia?

a)

Cold intolerance, rashes

b)

Fever, fatigue, joint pain, night sweats

c)

Nausea and vomiting

d)

Diarrhea

71.

What nursing care is important for a patient with leukemia?

a)

Increase iron intake

b)

Infection and bleeding precautions, avoid invasive procedures

c)

Promote sports activities

d)

Encourage aspirin use

72.

What is hemophilia?

a)

Condition where red blood cells are deformed

b)

Inherited disorder with missing clotting factors, causing bleeding risk

c)

White blood cell overproduction

d)

Disease of the kidneys

73.

What is a sign of internal bleeding?

a)

Rapid weak pulse, abdominal pain, hypotension

b)

High fever

c)

Rash

d)

Excessive hunger

74.

What nursing care should be provided for hemophilia?

a)

Encourage contact sports

b)

Avoid NSAIDs and anticoagulants

c)

Daily injections

d)

Encourage rough play

75.

What is agranulocytosis?

a)

Overproduction of red blood cells

b)

Decrease in ANC that increases infection risk

c)

Bleeding disorder

d)

Clotting condition

76.

What causes hypotonic shock?

a)

Low sodium

b)

Brain injury

c)

Extreme fluid or blood loss

d)

Infection

77.

Which is a symptom of iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Fatigue, dizziness, tachycardia, pallor

c)

Rash

d)

Nausea

78.

What should you do when taking iron supplements?

a)

Avoid fluids

b)

Consume low fiber foods

c)

Eat high fiber diet to avoid constipation

d)

Avoid vitamin C

79.

What are signs of sickle cell anemia?

a)

Constipation, fever, high BP

b)

Acute pain, jaundice, dark urine, fever

c)

Blurry vision

d)

Slow heart rate

80.

What is an embolism?

a)

Narrowed artery

b)

Bleeding in the brain

c)

Clot that travels and blocks blood flow

d)

Infection in the lung

81.

What is deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

Swelling in the arteries

b)

Blood clot in a superficial vein

c)

Blood clot in a deep vein

d)

Infection of the foot

82.

What is a pulmonary embolism?

a)

Stroke in the brain

b)

Kidney stone

c)

DVT clot traveling to lungs and blocking blood flow

d)

Airway infection

83.

What are the 5 P’s used to assess for peripheral vascular disease?

a)

Pain, pressure, perspiration, pulse, paresthesia

b)

Pain, pallor, pulse, paresthesia, paralysis

c)

Pressure, paleness, perspiration, pulse, posture

d)

Pallor, pressure, pain, pupil, pulse

84.

What is hemiplegia?

a)

Total blindness

b)

Weakness/paralysis on one side of the body

c)

Loss of sensation

d)

Muscle cramps

85.

What is appropriate nursing care for a patient with hemiplegia?

a)

Apply ice packs

b)

Encourage running

c)

Fall precautions and ADL assistance

d)

Avoid movement altogether

86.

What is hemianopsia?

a)

Inability to hear

b)

Memory loss

c)

Partial blindness in visual field

d)

Loss of smell

87.

What nursing action helps patients with hemianopsia?

a)

Have them close one eye

b)

Encourage them to keep eyes closed

c)

Teach them to turn head side to side to scan environment

d)

Avoid visual stimulation

88.

What is dysphagia?

a)

Difficulty breathing

b)

Difficulty swallowing

c)

Slurred speech

d)

Chest pain

89.

What is dysphasia?

a)

Complete speech loss

b)

Difficulty swallowing

c)

Partial loss of speech ability

d)

Hearing loss

90.

What is aphasia?

a)

Visual disturbance

b)

Complete loss of speaking ability

c)

Seizure disorder

d)

Low BP

91.

What acronym helps identify signs of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

a)

STOP

b)

FAST (Face, Arm, Speech, Time)

c)

SAFE

d)

BEAT