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Worksheets

SYS 5 - 3

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:

a)

in horizontal and vertical planes

b)

only in the horizontal plane

c)

only in the vertical plane

2.

In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give information such as:

a)

climb/descent

b)

turn left/turn right

c)

too low terrain

3.

The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of:

a)

airborne weather radar system

b)

transponders fitted in the aircraft

c)

F.M.S. (Flight Management System)

4.

The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information: 1- about the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder 2- from the radio altimeter 3- specific to the airplane configuration 4- from the inertial units The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

1, 2, 4

5.

When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a:

a)

"traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".

b)

"traffic advisory" only.

c)

"traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory"

6.

On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory":

a)

which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary asks him not to modify his current vertical speed rate.

b)

asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.

c)

asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.

7.

An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying:

a)

a red full square.

b)

a blue or white full lozenge.

c)

a yellow full circle.

8.

A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a :

a)

red full square.

b)

blue or white full lozenge.

c)

blue or white empty lozenge.

9.

A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by:

a)

an orange full circle.

b)

a blue or white empty lozenge.

c)

a blue or white full lozenge

10.

The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of: 1- a specific dedicated screen 2- a screen combined with the weather radar 3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA) 4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a)

1, 2 and 3.

b)

1, 2, 3 and 4.

c)

3 and 4

11.

A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:

a)

the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes.

b)

a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.

c)

the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.

12.

In order to establish what radial you are on, you could

a)

Read the OBS when the CDI is centred and the TO/FROM is showing TO

b)

Rotate the OBS until the CDI gets centred and the TO/FROM indicator is showing FROM. Then read the radial on the OBS

c)

Turn the OBS to make the TO/FROM change from TO to FROM. The OBS is now indicating the radial you are on

13.

Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?

a)

An ADF sited on the flight route

b)

A DME station sited on the flight route

c)

A VOR station sited on the flight route

14.

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:

a)

UHF band and is a primary radar system

b)

VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison

c)

UHF band and is a secondary radar system

15.

The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:

a)

400 Hz, blue

b)

3000 Hz, blue

c)

1300 Hz, blue

16.

An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localizer inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:

a)

will receive signals without identification coding

b)

will not normally receive signals

c)

may receive false course indications

17.

Inner marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:

a)

1300 Hz

b)

400 Hz

c)

3000 Hz

18.

Middle marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:

a)

1300 Hz

b)

400 Hz

c)

3000 Hz

19.

The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of:

a)

alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing

b)

two dashes per second and a blue light flashing

c)

dots and a white light flashing

20.

Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

a)

112.10 MHz

b)

108.25 MHz

c)

109.15 MHz

21.

What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?

a)

450 FT/MIN

b)

400 FT/MIN

c)

600 FT/MIN

22.

Which of the following frequencies are used by ILS?

a)

109,35 MHz

b)

111,10 MHz

c)

A and B above

23.

The glide path transmitter operates on

a)

36 VHF frequencies, paired with localizer frequencies

b)

The frequencies 90 and 150 MHz

c)

40 frequencies from 329,15 MHz to 335,00 MHz

24.

In an ILS system, the identification

a)

Is transmitted with a tone of 1450 Hz

b)

Is transmitted in morse by the localizer transmitter with a tone of 1020 Hz

c)

Is transmitted by the localizer and the glidepath transmitters

25.

On a standard radar display (PPI)

a)

The time base is a sine curve

b)

The time base is a linear, straight scale

c)

The time base is made to rotate synchronously with the antenna in order to display bearing as well as range

26.

A Primary radar operates on the principle of:

a)

transponder interrogation

b)

pulse technique

c)

phase comparison

27.

The maximum range of primary radar depends on:

a)

pulse recurrence frequency

b)

wave length

c)

frequency

28.

In a primary radar system

a)

The aircraft plays the secondary role, just listening to the radar signals from the ground radar

b)

All radio frequency energy is produced by the radar located at the radar site

c)

The radar is primarily used for range-finding

29.

A long-range surveillance radar will typically use a frequency of

a)

1000 MHz

b)

600 MHz

c)

3000 MHz

30.

A flight director system is:

a)

an autopilot system without the servos.

b)

an autopilot system is equipped with one servo to control the flight heading

c)

an autopilot system is equipped with two servos to control aircraft in both of the heading and the attitude.

31.

A sense antenna in ADF system is used:

a)

to remove the ambiguity concerning whether the aircraft is heading to or from the transmitter.

b)

to improve the signal from the ground station

c)

to determine the direction of the ground station

32.

The distance from the aircraft to the DME unit at the VORTAC ground station is displayed on:

a)

PFD

b)

ND

c)

SD

33.

Which of the following is one of the functions of the Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area Navigation (RNAV) system?

a)

It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the air.

b)

It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches.

c)

It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint.

34.

In a simple RNAV system the phantom station will be designated by:

a)

DME/DME.

b)

VOR/VOR.

c)

VOR/DME.

35.

The IRS position can be updated:

a)

at designated positions en-route and on the ground.

b)

at selected waypoints and on the ground.

c)

on the ground only.

36.

The range to a required waypoint presented by RNAV system is:

a)

plan range.

b)

slant range.

c)

plan range or slant range depending on RNAV settings.

37.

Area navigation (RNAV) allow

a)

the navigation from point A to point B without direct over flight of navigational aids.

b)

decreasing the number of the VOR station en-route

c)

decreasing the error of the signal received from the ground stations

38.

In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR:

a)

does not have to be in range when entered or used

b)

must be in range

c)

does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used

39.

Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?

a)

Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course deviation

b)

Aircraft position in latitude and longitude

c)

Wind velocity

40.

Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?

a)

Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

b)

Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

c)

Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or 'Phantom Station

41.

In it's simplest form, RNAV may consist of

a)

At least one VOR and 2 DME sets

b)

A VOR/DME receiver with an associated navigation computer

c)

ADF and VOR receivers with an associated navigation computer

42.

What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

5

43.

In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:

a)

timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver

b)

the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known position

c)

timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known position.

44.

In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?

a)

EHF

b)

SHF

c)

UHF

45.

What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?

a)

5

b)

4

c)

3

46.

Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?

a)

Satellite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation; satellite clock

b)

Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation

c)

Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation

47.

GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?

a)

L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)

b)

L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)

c)

L1-precise (P)

48.

Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?

a)

Latitude, longitude and altitude

b)

Latitude, longitude and time

c)

Latitude, longitude, altitude and time

49.

Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?

a)

GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT

b)

NNSS-Transit and GLONASS

c)

NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

50.

Integration of the wide area augmentation system (WAAS) improves GPS accuracy to within

a)

7.6 meters

b)

15 meters

c)

25 meters

51.

The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:

a)

determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the speed of light

b)

calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies

c)

calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite and the receiver

52.

The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:

a)

under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-GPS stations

b)

inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and fuselage

c)

on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity.

53.

The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:

a)

control, space and user segments

b)

main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennas

c)

antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)

54.

One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

a)

manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of the position fix (Selective Availability SA)

b)

manufacture and launch the satellites

c)

monitor the status of the satellites

55.

The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

a)

select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver

b)

transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the satellite

c)

to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time

56.

One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

a)

transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and velocity

b)

transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomously

c)

compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed position back to the user segment

57.

The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:

a)

6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a geostationary orbital plane

b)

3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane

c)

6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane

58.

Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?

a)

Ionospheric

b)

Multipath

c)

Tropospheri

59.

GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation uses:

a)

only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes

b)

only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code

c)

only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code

60.

What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

a)

It may prevent the reception of signals

b)

It causes multipath propagation

c)

The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and information from unaffected signals

61.

In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)?

a)

Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the characteristical receiver noise error

b)

The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed by the receiver to determine an error correction

c)

Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable receiver on the aircraft

62.

The satellites used in the GPS

a)

Are geostationary

b)

Do not cross the plane of the Equator

c)

Orbit the Earth at an altitude of about 20,200 km

63.

Using GPS, the primary position information is in the form of

a)

Spheres, with the satellites in the centre of the spheres

b)

Spheres, with the airplane in the centre of the spheres

c)

Bearing and distance from the satellite

64.

the wide area augmentation system (WAAS) was developed. It consists of

a)

approximately 25 precisely surveyed ground stations

b)

approximately 225 precisely surveyed ground stations

c)

approximately 75 precisely surveyed ground stations

65.

The WAAS system is known to reduce position errors to:

a)

1-3 meters laterally and vertically.

b)

About 5 meters laterally and vertically

c)

10 meters laterally and vertically

66.

The GPS satellite system consists of.

a)

20 satellites and 5 standby satellite.

b)

21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.

c)

24 satellites and 1 standby satellites.

67.

Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must.

a)

insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS.

b)

insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS.

c)

set the altitude to be fed into the INS.

68.

A laser gyro output is.

a)

inversely proportional to angular turning rate.

b)

directly proportional to frequency addition.

c)

directly proportional to angular turning rate.

69.

The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a.

a)

rate gyro.

b)

rate integrating gyro.

c)

displacement gyro.

70.

An IN system requires data from the.

a)

air data computer.

b)

Doppler system.

c)

satellites.

71.

What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?

a)

Present position.

b)

E.T.A.

c)

Waypoints

72.

Laser gyros have.

a)

no rotating parts.

b)

rotating parts.

c)

moving parts.

73.

In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed (GS) is calculated:

a)

from TAS and W/V from RNAV data

b)

from TAS and W/V from Air Data Computer (ADC)

c)

by integrating measured acceleration

74.

What is the name given to an Inertial Reference System (IRS) which has the gyros and accelerometers as part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure?

a)

Solid state

b)

Rigid

c)

Strapdown

75.

In a strap down INS the accelerometers are oriented with their axes

a)

With the local vertical, True North and True East

b)

With the lateral axis of the aircraft, True North/South and True East/West

c)

Along yaw, longitudinal and lateral axis of the aircraft

76.

Few modern INS systems use a mechanically stabilised platform and mechanical gyros. These components has been replaced by

a)

Rotating accelerometers and analogue computers

b)

Strap down Ring laser gyros and accelerometers plus advanced digital computers

c)

A digital horizon and gyrosyn true-reading compass

77.

Which of the following statements concerning the loss of alignment by an Inertial Reference System (IRS) in flight is correct?

a)

It is not usable in any mode and must be shut down for the rest of the flight

b)

The IRS has to be coupled to the remaining serviceable system and a realignment carried out in flight in-flight realignment

c)

The navigation mode, including present position and ground speed outputs, is inoperative for the remainder of the flight

78.

Where and when are the IRS positions updated?

a)

During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC

b)

Only on the ground during the alignment procedure

c)

IRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-around' button at the start of the take-off roll

79.

The sensors of an INS measure:

a)

precession

b)

velocity

c)

acceleration