wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cranium Anatomy and Pathology

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many cranial bones make up the human skull?

a)

12

b)

8

c)

14

d)

10

2.

How many facial bones are there?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

12

d)

14

3.

Which bones form the skullcap (calvaria)?

a)

Frontal, parietal (2), occipital

b)

Parietal, temporal (2), occipital

c)

Frontal, ethmoid, occipital, sphenoid

d)

Frontal, sphenoid, temporal, parietal

4.

The floor of the cranium is formed by which bones?

a)

Temporal (2), occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid

b)

Frontal, parietal (2), sphenoid

c)

Temporal, parietal, frontal

d)

Sphenoid, frontal, occipital

5.

How many bones does the frontal bone articulate with?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

4

6.

Which bone forms the anterior portion of the skullcap and the forehead?

a)

Frontal bone

b)

Parietal bone

c)

Occipital bone

d)

Temporal bone

7.

Which of the following bones articulates with 5 other bones?

a)

Parietal

b)

Frontal

c)

Temporal

d)

Sphenoid

8.

Which of the following bones articulates with 6 other bones?

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Occipital

d)

Sphenoid

9.

Which bone contains the structures of the middle and inner ear?

a)

Occipital

b)

Frontal

c)

Temporal

d)

Parietal

10.

How many parts make up the temporal bone?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

11.

The dense petrous part of the temporal bone is significant because it:

a)

Contains the mastoid air cells

b)

Houses the organs of hearing and balance

c)

Connects to the frontal bone

d)

Forms the zygomatic arch

12.

The sella turcica is a depression in which cranial bone?

a)

Ethmoid

b)

Temporal

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Frontal

13.

Which gland sits in the sella turcica?

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Adrenal gland

d)

Pineal gland

14.

Which bone articulates with all other cranial bones?

a)

Frontal

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Parietal

15.

Which cranial bone contains the cribriform plate?

a)

Sphenoid

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

16.

The ethmoid bone is involved in forming all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Nasal septum

b)

Medial orbital wall

c)

Cranial floor

d)

Zygomatic arch

17.

How many cranial bones does the ethmoid articulate with?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

2

18.

Which suture lies between the two parietal bones?

a)

Coronal

b)

Sagittal

c)

Lambdoidal

d)

Squamosal

19.

Which cranial junction is located at the intersection of the sagittal and coronal sutures?

a)

Lambda

b)

Asterion

c)

Pterion

d)

Bregma

20.

The lambdoidal suture separates the parietal bones from the:

a)

Occipital bone

b)

Frontal bone

c)

Temporal bone

d)

Ethmoid bone

21.

The junction point at the meeting of the parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones is called the:

a)

Bregma

b)

Lambda

c)

Pterion

d)

Asterion

22.

Which part of the ear contains the auricle and external auditory meatus?

a)

Internal ear

b)

Middle ear

c)

External ear

d)

Eustachian tube

23.

The eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the:

a)

Mastoid process

b)

Nasopharynx

c)

Cochlea

d)

Semicircular canals

24.

Which part of the ear houses the cochlea and vestibule?

a)

Middle ear

b)

Inner ear

c)

External ear

d)

Eustachian tube

25.

Which ossicle is shaped like a stirrup?

a)

Malleus

b)

Incus

c)

Stapes

d)

Cochlea

26.

The mastoid air cells are located in which cranial bone?

a)

Sphenoid

b)

Temporal

27.

What type of skull has a width between 75% and 80% of its length?

a)

Dolichocephalic

b)

Mesocephalic

c)

Brachycephalic

d)

Microcephalic

28.

Which positioning line should be parallel to the IR for a lateral skull projection?

a)

MML

b)

IOML

c)

OML

d)

AML

29.

What is the minimum SID recommended for skull radiography?

a)

36 inches

b)

40 inches

c)

48 inches

d)

72 inches

30.

Which projection best demonstrates the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbits?

a)

AP axial (Towne)

b)

Lateral

c)

PA Caldwell

d)

Parietoacanthial (Waters)

31.

Which projection best shows the sella turcica in profile?

a)

Lateral

b)

Towne

c)

Caldwell

d)

Waters

32.

Which of the following is NOT a common skull positioning error?

a)

Tilt

b)

Rotation

c)

Excessive exposure

d)

Excessive flexion

33.

Air-fluid levels in the sinuses are best seen in which position?

a)

Erect

b)

Prone

c)

Supine

d)

Trendelenburg

34.

What is the typical kVp range for skull imaging with digital systems?

a)

60-75

b)

75-90

c)

80-100

d)

85-105

35.

What landmark lies at the base of the anterior nasal spine?

a)

Acanthion

b)

Nasion

c)

Glabella

d)

Bregma

36.

Which line is used to align the skull for a Waters projection?

a)

OML

b)

MML

c)

IOML

d)

AML

37.

Which type of skull fracture appears as a jagged or irregular lucent line?

a)

Depressed

b)

Linear

c)

Basal

d)

Open

38.

Linear fractures most commonly occur in which skull regions?

a)

Occipital and temporal

b)

Frontal and parietal

c)

Temporal and sphenoid

d)

Frontal and occipital

39.

A depressed skull fracture is best visualized with which imaging technique?

a)

Axial X-ray

b)

Tangential view

c)

Lateral view

d)

Waters view

40.

A depressed skull fracture is sometimes referred to as a:

a)

ping-pong fracture

b)

greenstick fracture

c)

comminuted fracture

d)

linear fracture

41.

Which fracture often shows bruising behind the ears and around the eyes?

a)

Depressed

b)

Linear

c)

Basal skull fracture

d)

Orbital fracture

42.

Which sign may indicate a basal skull fracture?

a)

Fluid in the maxillary sinus

b)

Fluid in the sphenoid sinus

c)

Hematoma in the frontal sinus

d)

Opacity in the mastoid air cells

43.

Metastatic lesions that break down bone are termed:

a)

Osteoblastic

b)

Osteolytic

c)

Sclerotic

d)

Cartilaginous

44.

Which metastatic pattern appears as thickened, dense bone?

a)

Osteoblastic

b)

Osteolytic

c)

Mixed

d)

Erosive

45.

A 'moth-eaten' radiographic appearance suggests which type of metastases?

a)

Osteolytic

b)

Osteoblastic

c)

Mixed osteolytic/blastic

d)

Calcified

46.

Multiple myeloma originates from:

a)

Cartilage

b)

Blood vessels

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Lymph nodes

47.

Which condition is a bacterial infection of the mastoid process?

a)

Otosclerosis

b)

Acoustic neuroma

c)

Cholesteatoma

d)

Mastoiditis

48.

A benign tumor that causes widening of the internal auditory canal is:

a)

Acoustic neuroma

b)

Cholesteatoma

c)

Pituitary adenoma

d)

Osteoma

49.

Which cyst-like benign lesion destroys bone in the mastoid area and can cause hearing loss?

a)

Osteoma

b)

Polyp

c)

Cholesteatoma

d)

Otosclerosis

50.

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with cholesteatoma?

a)

a) Hearing loss

b)

b) Benign tumor

c)

c) Bone destruction

d)

d) Viral origin

51.

What condition is characterized by excessive spongy bone in the middle and inner ear?

a)

Otosclerosis

b)

Paget’s disease

c)

Polyp

d)

Acoustic neuroma

52.

Which imaging modality is preferred for detecting recent bleeding in the brain?

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

Ultrasound

53.

MRI is superior for evaluating:

a)

Fluid levels

b)

Bone fractures

c)

Soft tissues and tumors

d)

Metastatic extent

54.

Nuclear medicine is especially useful for evaluating:

a)

Soft tissue tumors

b)

Degree of metastases

c)

Internal bleeding

d)

Pediatric brain infections

55.

Which modality is preferred for detecting hydrocephalus in neonates?

a)

CT

b)

MRI

c)

Nuclear medicine

d)

Ultrasound

56.

Premature closing of cranial sutures is called:

a)

Hydrocephalus

b)

Craniosynostosis

c)

Cholesteatoma

d)

Otosclerosis