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Exam 1 (Mo): Questions

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT matched with the infectious disease that it produces?

a)

Rickettsia Akaria: Rickettsiapox

b)

Rickettsia Quintana: Q fever

c)

Rickettsia Rickettsi: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

d)

Borrelia Recurrentis: Relapsing Fever

e)

Borrelia Burgoferi: Lyme Disease

2.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Televancin (Vibativ)?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Redman Syndrome

c)

Prolongation of the PR interval

d)

Metallic Taste

e)

Nephrotoxicity

3.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Daptomycin (Cubicin)? SATA

a)

Endocarditis

b)

Hyperphosphatemia

c)

Myopathy

d)

Eosinophilic Pneumonia

e)

Hypokalemia

4.

A patient who is severely allergic to Tazobactam ONLY should not be treated with which of the following?

a)

Timentin

b)

Avycaz

c)

Recarbrio

d)

Zerbaxa

e)

Vabomere

5.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 3rd-generation Cephalosporin?

a)

Cefmetazole (Zefazone)

b)

Cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)

c)

Cefditoren (Spectracef)

d)

Cefpirome (Cefrom, Keiten, Broact, Cefir)

e)

Cefozopram (Firstcin)

6.

Which of the following is effective in treating CRE-induced infections? SATA

a)

Gentamicin (Garomycin)

b)

Teixobactin

c)

Colistin (Coly-Micin, Colomycin, Xylistin)

d)

Fosfomycin (Monaural)

e)

Tigecycline (Tygacil)

7.

Which of the following statements about Cefiderocol (Fetroja) is FALSE?

a)

It is administered intravenously

b)

It has a half-life of about 23 hours

c)

It undergoes renal excretion

d)

It is a Cephalosporin-siderphore conjugate

e)

Its plasma protein-binding capability is about 40-60%

8.

Which of the following statements is TRUE? SATA

a)

Proteus mirabilis will split Urea into Ammonia, Carbon Dioxide, and Water

b)

Salmonella Typhosa will turn the indicator in the Thioglycolate broth red

c)

Escheria coli will grow on a MacConkey agar plate

d)

Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive

e)

Streptococcus viridian produces complete hemolysis on a blood agar

9.

Which of the following bacteria is spiral in shape? SATA

a)

Actinomyces

b)

Yersinia

c)

Treponema

d)

Leptotrichia

e)

Borrelia

10.

Which of the following statements about Aztreonam (Azactam) is INCORRECT?

a)

It can be administered intramuscularly and by inhalation

b)

About 56% of the drug is excreted through the feces

c)

Its half-life is longer in elderly patients

d)

It is administered every 6-12 hours

e)

It can be administered intravenously

11.

Primaxin (Imipenem/Cilastatin) is effective in the treatment of infections caused by which of the following? SATA

a)

Peptostreptococcus

b)

Corynebacterium

c)

Salmonella

d)

Pasteurella

e)

Fusobacterium

12.

When caused by susceptible organisms, Imipenem-Cilastatin (Primaxin) is used to treat which of the following? SATA

a)

Endocarditis

b)

Meningitis

c)

Diabetic Foot Infection

d)

Peritonitis

e)

Cellulitis

13.

Which of the following is a parenterally administered Pleuromutilin?

a)

Retapamulin (Altabax)

b)

Mupirocin (Bactroban, Cetany)

c)

Chlormycetin (Chloramphenicol)

d)

Lefamulin (Xenleta)

e)

Meclan (Meclocycline Sulfosalicylate)

14.

Azithromycin is used to treat which of the following? SATA

a)

Haemophilus influenzae-induced COPD

b)

Mycoplasma pneumonia-induced community-acquired pneumonia

c)

Neisseria gonorrhea-induced cervicitis

d)

Haemophilus ducreyi-induced chancroid

e)

Chlamydia trachoqmatis-induced urethritis

15.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Macrolide?

a)

Fidaxomicin (Dificid)

b)

Sisomicin (Baymicin)

c)

Gentamicin (Garamycin, Cidomycin)

d)

Isepamicin (Exacin)

e)

Arbekacin (Habekacin)

16.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Linezolid (Zyvox)?

a)

Lactic acidosis

b)

Exacerbation of hyperglycemia

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Headache

e)

Nausea and Vomiting

17.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to cause scotoma?

a)

Mupirocin (Bactroban, Century)

b)

Altabax (Retapamulin)

c)

Bacitracin (Baciim)

d)

Streptomycin (AgriStrep, Ambistryn-S, Streptobrettin, Streptomac, Vetstrep)

e)

Daptomycin (Cubicin)

18.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a mechanism by which a bacterium can become resistant to Synercid (Streptogramin) ?

a)

Production of a Phosphorylase

b)

Efflux of the drug

c)

Inactivation by bacterial Acetyltransferase

d)

Inactivation by bacterial Lactonase

e)

Prevention of drug binding to target by a ribosomal Methylase

19.

Which of the following statements about Linezolid (Zyvox) is FALSE?

a)

A complete blood count should be done weekly while the patient is taking the drug

b)

The patient should avoid concurrent ingestion of red wine

c)

The drug should be used with caution in a patient who has PKU

d)

The patient should avoid concurrent ingestion of beef jerky

e)

It causes suprainfection because it is a broad-spectrum antibacterial agent

20.

Which of the following is NOT matched with the syndrome it produces?

a)

Demeclocycline: System of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)

b)

Tetracycline HCl: Fanconi Syndrome

c)

Chloramphenicol: Grey Baby Syndrome

d)

Vancomycin: Red Man Syndrome

e)

Neomycin: Malabsorption Syndrome

21.

Which of the following is a derivative of Sisomicin that is administered intravenously for the treatment of complicated UTI caused by Enterobacteriaceae?

a)

Baymicin (Amikacin)

b)

Septopal

c)

Zemdri (Plazomicin)

d)

Zinplava (Bezlotoxumab)

e)

Zylet

22.

An Anticholinesterase is employed in the management of which of the following adverse effects of Aminoglycosides?

a)

Peripheral neuritis

b)

Hypersensitivity Reaction

c)

Nephrotoxicty

d)

Neuromuscular Blockade

e)

Ototoxicity

23.

Which of the following is a topical foam preparation of Minocycline that is used to treat Rosacea?

a)

Oracea

b)

Periostat

c)

Xerava

d)

Amzeeq

e)

Meclan

24.

Which of the following is a hyclate salt of Doxycycline? SATA

a)

Periostat

b)

Vibramycin Capsule

c)

Doryx

d)

Monodox

e)

Dynacin

25.

Which of the following statements about Doxycycline (Vibramycin, Monodox, Doryx) is FALSE?

a)

It must not be taken concurrently with dairy products since it is a type of Tetracycline

b)

It has a half-life of 15-25 hours

c)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 80-95%

d)

It can be administered intravenously

e)

It is excreted through the feces

26.

Which of the following is an indication of Tetracyclines? SATA

a)

Amoebiasis and Dientamoebiasis

b)

Balantidiasis and Ornithosis

c)

Typhus and Tularemia

d)

Brucellosis and Human Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis

e)

Lyme disease and Traveler's Diarrhea

27.

Which of the following results DIRECTLY from the administration of Teixobactin? Inhibition of the: SATA

a)

Synthesis of the Park Nucleotide

b)

Transpeptidation Reaction

c)

Binding of Peptidoglycan to the bacterial cell membrane

d)

Transport of Peptidoglycan across the bacterial cell membrane

e)

D-alanyl-D-alanine synthase

28.

Which of the following statements about Pivmecillinam (Pivya) is FALSE?

a)

It is a prodrug

b)

It is a penicillinase-resistant Penicillin

c)

It binds to PBP-3

d)

It inhibits the transpeptidation reaction

e)

It is active against gram-negative, aerobic bacilli

29.

Which of the following statements about Pivya (Pivemeciilan) is FALSE?

a)

It is a prodrug

b)

It has a low plasma protein-binding capability

c)

It is administered per os

d)

Its half-life is about 1-1.5 hours

e)

It is primarily excreted through the feces

30.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its correct contents?

a)

Avycaz: Avibactam and Ceftizoxime

b)

Unasyn: Sulbactam and Ampicillin

c)

Recarbrio: Relebactam and Imipenem + Cilastatin

d)

Zerbaxa: Tazobactam and Ceftolozane

e)

Vabomere: Vaborbactam and Meropenem

31.

Which of the following is an indication of Vancomycin (Vancocin, Firvanq)?

a)

Meningitis caused by MRSA

b)

Pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile

c)

Endocarditis caused by Enterococci

d)

Enterocolitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus

e)

Meningitis caused by Flavobacterium meningosepticum

32.

Pyrimethamine (Daraprim) is MOST LIEKLY to be combined with Clindamycin (Cleocin) for the treatment of which of the following?

a)

PCP

b)

Babesiosis

c)

Toxoplasmosis

d)

Impetigo

e)

Bacterial Vaginosis

33.

Additive hyperkalemia may result from the concurrent administration of Penicillin VK and all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

K-tab

b)

Canagliflozin

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Yaz

e)

Furosemide

34.

Which of the following statements about Fosfomycin (Monaural) is TRUE? SATA

a)

The calcium salt is available in granules

b)

The disodium salt is administered intravenously

c)

The usual dose for managing uncomplicated cystitis is one packet of granules mixed with 3-4 oz of hot water PO x 1 dose

d)

The drug is primarily excreted through the renal system

e)

The drug is effective against gram-negative bacilli

35.

Unasyn (Ampicillin/Sulbactam) is active against all of the following bacteria EXCEPT:

a)

Bacillus anthraces

b)

Moraxella catarrhalis

c)

Morganella morganii

d)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

e)

Bacteroides fragilis

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