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Exam 3 Dr. Mo

Total questions: 37

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cytoxan (Cyclophosphamide) is useful in the management of which of the following conditions? SATA

a)

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

b)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

c)

Wilm's Tumor

d)

Cervical Cancer

e)

Testicular Cancer

2.

Yondelis (Trabectedin) is MOST OFTEN used to treat which of the following conditions? SATA

a)

Primary Brain Tumors

b)

Leiomyosarcoma

c)

Chronic Granulocytic Leukemia

d)

Metastatic Liposarcoma

e)

Neuroblastoma

3.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of Malignant Pancreatic Insulinoma?

a)

Semustine (Methyl CCNU)

b)

Melphalan (Alkeran)

c)

Streptozocin (Zanosar)

d)

Dacarbazine (DTIC)

e)

Trabectedin (Yondelis)

4.

Which of the following is BEST classified as an Alkyl Sulfonate?

a)

Alkeran

b)

Leukeran

c)

Myleran

d)

ThioTEPA

e)

Altretamine

5.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of Priamry Macroglobulimea?

a)

Alkera

b)

Leukeran

c)

Myleran

d)

Carmustine

e)

Novantrone

6.

Which of the following statements about (Cytoxan) Cyclophosphamide is FALSE?

a)

It can be administered intravenously, intraperitoneally, and intrathecally

b)

Its plasma protein binding capability is about 56%

c)

Its half-life is about 6-7 hours

d)

It is activated in the liver

e)

It is mainly excreted through the renal system

7.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the M2 Regimen that is used to treat Multiple Myeloma?

a)

Cytoxan

b)

CCNU

c)

Oncovin

d)

Alkeran

e)

Deltasone

8.

Which of the following is a Protease Inhibitor that is combined with Dexamethasone for the treatment of Multiple Myeloma? SATA

a)

Velcade

b)

Pomalyst

c)

Emplicity

d)

Kyprolis

e)

Darzalex

9.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the CHAD Regimen that is used to treat Ovarian Cancer?

a)

Altretamine

b)

Adriamycin

c)

Cisplatin

d)

Cytoxan

e)

Dactinomycin

10.

Which of the following combination regimens is LEAST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of Breast Cancer?

a)

VATH

b)

FECD

c)

ACTH

d)

CISCA

e)

IMF

11.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor? SATA

a)

Rubraca

b)

Zejula

c)

Kisqali

d)

Verzenio

e)

Faradak

12.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Amphotericin B that is LEAST LIKELY to suggest the occurrence of a hemorrhagic episode?

a)

Melena

b)

Epistaxis

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Hematuria

e)

Dyspepsia

13.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Amphotericin B?

a)

Respiratory Failure and Dyspepsia

b)

Bradycardia and Hypotension

c)

Hypomagnesemia and Hypocalcemia

d)

Azotemia and Anuria

e)

Insomnia and Vertigo

14.

Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B is FALSE?

a)

It can be administered intravenously, intraventricularly, and intraarticularly

b)

It is not metabolized and it is slowly excreted through the renal system

c)

It is well distributed into the peritoneum, synovium, and vitreous humor

d)

It can be complexed with DMPC: DMPG

e)

It can be complexed with Deoxycholate

15.

Which of the following is unnecessary to be done during a long-term therapy with Terbinafine?

a)

Complete Blood Count

b)

Avoid concurrent ingestion of caffeine and acidic food

c)

Liver function test

d)

Avoid concomitant ingestion of alcohol

e)

Renal function test

16.

The mechanism of action of Abafungin involves the inhibition of which of the following?SATA

a)

Synthesis of beta-(1,3)-D-glucan

b)

14C-Alphademethylase

c)

Delta-7-8-Isomerase

d)

24C-Methyltransferase

e)

Squalene Epoxidase

17.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of Nystatin?

a)

Candidemia

b)

Thrush

c)

Vaginal Moniliasis

d)

Esophageal Candidiasis

e)

Candidal Paronychia

18.

The production of Squalene epoxide is inhibited when which of the following is administered? SATA

a)

Halotex

b)

Penlac

c)

Tolnaftate

d)

Mentax

e)

Amorolfine

19.

Which of the following produces its antifungal effect by inhibiting the conversion of Lanosterol to 14-Demethyllanosterol? SATA

a)

Luzu

b)

Ertaczo

c)

Travagen

d)

Kerydin

e)

Monistat

20.

Which of the following is an indication of Sporanox? SATA

a)

Sporothricosis

b)

Cryptococcosis

c)

Aspergillosis

d)

Blastomycosis

e)

Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

21.

Which of the following statements about Ibrexafungerp is FALSE?

a)

It is highly plasma protein-bound

b)

It inhibits cytochrome P450 3A4 and 2C8

c)

It is primarily excreted through the feces

d)

It is administered at a dosage of 2 tablets QAM and 2 tablets QPM x 5 days

e)

It has a half-life of 20 hours

22.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its CORRECT maintenance dose?

a)

Mycafungin: 150 mg IV QD

b)

Anidulafungin: 100 mg IV QD

c)

Caspofungin: 50 mg IV QD

d)

Rizafungin: 200 mg IV QD

e)

Brexafemme: 300 mg PO QAM and 300 mg PO QPM

23.

Which of the following Antifungals is an Antimitotic Agent?

a)

Candicidin

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Ambisome

d)

Posaconazole

e)

Flucytosine

24.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Caspofungin?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Fever and Flushing

c)

Elevation of Serum Potassium Level

d)

Proteinuria

e)

Hypermagnesemia

25.

Jublia is MOST OFTEN used to treat which of the following fungal infections?

a)

Invasive aspergillosis

b)

Invasive candidiasis

c)

Onychomycosis

d)

Sporothricosis

e)

Esophageal Candidiasis

26.

Which of the following is the CORRECT dosage of Cresemba in the treatment of Mucormycosis?

a)

372 mg PO QD

b)

300 mg PO BID

c)

300 mg IV QD

d)

200 mg PO TID

e)

186 mg IV QID

27.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Tetrazole antifungal agent?

a)

Spectazole

b)

Femstat

c)

Oxistat

d)

Vagistat

e)

Vivjoa

28.

Which of the following statements about Terbinafine is INCORRECT? SATA

a)

It is metabolized by Cytochrome P450 3A4, 1A2, and 2C9

b)

Its terminal half-life is 36 hours

c)

It is highly plasma protein-bound

d)

Food slightly decreases its AUC

e)

About 40% of the administered dose is eliminated in the urine

29.

Which of the following statements about Voriconazole is TRUE? SATA

a)

It is effective against Aspergilus Species

b)

Its maintenance dose is 4 mg/kg IV Q12 Hours

c)

It is effective against Fusarium Solani

d)

Its maintenance dose is 200 mg PO Q12 Hours

e)

It is effective against Scedosporium Species

30.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of Chromoblastomycosis?

a)

Noxafil

b)

Vivjoa

c)

Ancobon

d)

Mycelex

e)

Exelderm

31.

Which of the following is classified as a dimorphic fungus? SATA

a)

Aspergillus fumigatus

b)

Coccidiodes Immitis

c)

Cryptococcus neoformans

d)

Histoplasma capsulatum

e)

Sporothrix scheneckii

32.

Which of the following is suggests hemorrhagic effects of Amphoteric B? SATA

a)

Anuria

b)

Melena

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Epistaxis

e)

Hematuria

33.

Heparin is used to prevent or manage which of the following immediate adverse effects of Amphotericin B?

a)

Phlebitis

b)

Rigors

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Anorexia

e)

Nausea and Vomiting

34.

Amphotericin B long term can produce which of the following as an adverse effect? SATA

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypomagnesemia

d)

Hypocalcemia

e)

Decrease in Serum Creatine

35.

Nystatin is effective in the treatment of all of the following EXCEPT?

a)

Tinea Pedis

b)

Thrus

c)

VVC

d)

Oral Pharyngeal Candidiasis

e)

Candida Septicemia

36.

Which of the following is LEAST LIEKLY to inhibit the synthesis of glucan in fungus?

a)

Rezafungin

b)

Abafungin

c)

Anidulafungin

d)

Caspofungin

e)

Micafungin

37.

Which of the following produces antifungal effects by inhibiting leucyl tRNA synthase?

a)

Kerydin

b)

Terconazole

c)

Miconazole

d)

Griseofulvin

e)

Ciclopirox

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